BHU (Pre-2010) English

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Date : 13-04-2012 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 800

CODE

0COURSE NAME : SAFAL (MR)

INSTRUCTIONSA. General :1. This Question Paper contains 120 (30 Chemistry, 30 Physics & 60 Biology) questions.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.

3. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space isgiven at the bottom of each page.

4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgetsin any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :

9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts.

10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask fora change of the Booklet.

11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write theseanywhere else.

12. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil.

C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :

13. The question paper consists of 3 Parts (Part-A (Chemistry), PART-B (Physics) & PART-C (Biology)).

14. For each question, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correctanswer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1)mark will be awarded.

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FULL SYLLABUSTEST-2 (FST-2)TARGET : AIPMT 2012

(Space for rough work)

Name of the Candidate Roll Number

I have read all the instructions andshall abide by them.

I have verified all the informationfilled in by the Candidate.

--------------------------------

Signature of the Candidate -------------------------------- Signature of the Invigilator

RESONANCE MRBHU130412C01

1. The IUPAC name of is :

(1) 3-iso-propylheptane(2) 3-iso-propylpentane(3) 2-methyl-3-propylhexane(4) 4-iso-propylheptane

2. Which of the following molecules fails to ex-hibit optical activity?

(1) CH2Cl. CHDBr(2) CH3CHCl2(3) CH3CHDCl(4) CH2OH. CHClCH3

3. In the following reaction sequence, X is

X nBrominatio Y HCl/NaNO 2 Z OHHCBoiling

52

Tribromobenzene :

(1) benzoic acid(2) salicylic acid(3) phenol(4) aniline

PART-A

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27,Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65,As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

Straight Objective TypeThis section contains 50 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)

for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4. KO2 + S (A) 2BaCl ppt white)B(

Carbon

(C) HCl gas

)D(

The correct statement is :

(1) B is BaSO4 and D is H2S(2) A is BaS and D is SO2(3) C is BaS and D is SO2(4) A is K2SO3 and B is BaS

5. In the reaction

4HNO3 + P4H10 4HPO3 + X,

the product X, is :

(1) N2O5(2) N2O3(3) NO2(4) H2O

6. Nitrolim is mixture of :

(1) Ca (CN)2 + graphite(2) CaC2 + graphite(3) CaCN2 + graphite(4) CaCN2 + N2


7. Which of the following aqueous solutions hasminimum freezing point?

(1) 0.01 m NaCl(2) 0.005 m C2H5OH(3) 0.005 m MgI2(4) 0.005 m MgSO4

8. The STP volume of oxygen liberated by 2 A ofcurrent when passed through acidulated waterfor 3 min and 13 s is :

(1) 120 cc(2) 22.4 cc(3) 11.2 cc(4) 44.8 cc

9. KP of a reaction at 300 K is 6 atm and 2 atm at450 K. Which of the statement is incorrectabout this reaction, if ng = 1?

(1) The reaction is exothermic(2) The rate of backward reaction increases

more than that of forward reaction with in-crease in temperature

(3) Ea for the forward reaction is more than that

of backward reaction

(4) The difference between heat of reaction atconstant pressure and that at constant vol-ume is RT

10. In alkaline medium, KMnO4 reacts as follows

2KMnO4 + 2KOH 2K2MnO4 + H2O + [O]Therefore, the equivalent weight of KMnO4 willbe :

(1) 31.6(2) 52.7(3) 7.0(4) 158.0

11. When 92U235 loses one -particle, the new ele-ment will belong to group :(1) IB (2) IA(3) IIIB (4) VB

12. The correct order of bond angles is :(1) NO2 > NO+2 > NO2(2) NO+2 > NO2 > NO2(3) NO2+ > NO+2 > NO2(4) NO+2 > NO2 > NO2

13. Cod liver oil is :(1) fat dispersed in water(2) water dispersed in fat(3) water dispersed in oil(4) fat dispersed in fat

14. Cassiterite is concentrated by :(1) levigation(2) electromagnetic separation(3) floatation(4) liquefaction

15. The stability of the hydrides follows the order :(1) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH\3(2) NH3 < PH3 < SbH3(3) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3(4) AsH3 > NH3 > PH3 > SbH3

16. Catalytic activity of transition metals dependson :

(1) their ability to exist in different oxidationstates

(2) the size of the metal atoms(3) the number of empty atomic orbitals avail-

able

(4) All of the above are correct


17. Which of the following complex species doesnot involve d2sp3 hybridisation?

(1) [CoF6]3(2) [Co(NH3)6]3+(3) [Fe(CN)6]3(4) [Cr(NH3]6]3+

18. In the complex, PtCl4. 3NH3, the number ofionisable chlorines is :

(1) four(2) two(3) one(4) three

19. Which of the following has highest chlorine con-tent?

(1) Pyrene(2) DDT(3) Chloral(4) Gammaxane

20. Benzene on oxidation with acidified Na2Cr2O7gives :

(1) benzyl alcohol(2) benzaldehyde(3) benzoic acid(4) No reaction occurs

21. The correct order of increasing basicity of thefollowing is :

H2O, OH, CH3OH, CH3O

(1) CH3OH < H2O < OH < CH3O(2) H2O < CH3OH < CH3O < OH(3) H2O < CH3OH < OH < CH3O(4) CH3OH < H2O < CH3O < OH

22. A 42

722

SOHOCrK

B oxidatonVigorous

]O[ CH3COOH

If B is the given sequence is propanone then Ais :

(1) ethyl alcohol(2) iso-propyl alcohol(3) propyl alcohol(4) tert-pentyl alcohol

23. In a Cannizaro reaction, the intermediate thatwill be best hydride donor is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24. Aniline on heating with conc HNO3 + conc H2SO4mixture yields :(1) o- and p-nitroanilines(2) m-nitroaniline(3) a black tarry matter(4) no reaction


25. In which of the following reaction, pressure hasno effect on equilibrium ?

(1) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)(3) CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O (g)(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

26. Two moles of HI were heated in a sealed tubeat 440C till the equilibrium was reached. HI wasfound to be 22% decomposed. The equilibriumconstant for dissociation is :

(1) 0.282 (2) 0.0796(3) 0.0199 (4) 1.99

27. Assertion : Most probable velocity is the velocitypossessed by maximum fraction of moleculesat the same temperature.

Reason : On collision, more and moremolecules acquire higher speed at the sametemperature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true andthe Reason is the true explanation of theAssertion.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, butReason is not the true explanation of As-sertion.

(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

28. The first emission line in the atomic spectrumof hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at :

(1) 1cm400R9 (2) 1cm144

R7

(3) 1cm4R3 (4) 1cm36

R5

29. If for H2(g) + 21 O2(g) H2O(g), H1 is the

enthalpy of reaction and for

H2 (g) + 21

O2(g) H2O(l)

H2 is enthalpy of reaction, then :

(1) HH1 > H2(2) H1 = H2(3) H1 < H2(4) H1 = H2 = 0

30. A sodium cation has a different number of elec-trons from :

(1) O2 (2) F(3) Li+ (4) Al3+

31. Oxidation of thiosulphate ion by iodine gives :

(1) SO32 (2) SO42(3) S4O62 (4) S2O52

32. Which of the following bonds has the higherenergy?

(1) Se Se(2) Te Te(3) S S(4) O O

33. Number of -electrons in cyclobutadienyl an-ion (C4H4)2 is :(1) 2(2) 4(3) 6(4) 8


34. Cetane number of diesel fuel will increase withthe addition of :

(1) n-decane(2) n-hexadecane(3) n-hexane(4) -methylnaphthalene

35. Iodoform can be obtained on warming NaOHand iodine with :

(1) CH3CH2(OH)CH3

(2) HCHCC)CH( || O

223

(3) O

||

OCHCCH 33

(4) (CH3)2CHCH2OH

36. Which is an example of thermosetting polymer?

(1) Polythene(2) PVC(3) Neoprene(4) Bakelite

37. Analysis shows that nickel oxide has the for-mula Ni0.98O. What fraction of the nickel existsas Ni3+ ions?

(1) 1 % (2) 2 %(3) 4 % (4) 8 %

38. The molecule/ion which has pyramidal shape is :

(1) PCl3 (2) SO3(3) CO32 (4) NO3

39. By Fajan rule covalent character increases withincrease in size of the anion. Identify the cor-rect order of melting point of calcium halides :

(1) CaF2 > CaCl2 > CaBr2 > CaI2(2) CaCl2 < CaF2 < CaBr2 < CaI2(3) CaF2 > CaCl2 > CaBr2 > CaI2(4) CaCl2 > CaF2 > CaBr2 > CaI2

40. Considering NO, NO+ and NO we say that:

(1) among the three, the one isoelectronic withN2 alone is diamagnetic

(2) among the three, the one isoelectronic withO2 alone is paramagnetic

(3) all the three species are paramagnetic(4) the three overlaps are stronger than N2 or O2

41. For a reaction A + 2B C + D, the followingdata were obtained :

Initial formation of D (mol L1 min1)

[A] [B]1. 0.1 0.1 6.0 103

2. 0.3 0.2 7.20 102

3. 0.3 0.4 2.88 101

4. 0.4 0.1 2.4 101

Expt. Initial concentration (mol L1)

The correct rate law expression will be :

(1) Rate = k [A] [B](2) Rate = k [A] [B]2(3) Rate = k [A]2 [B]2(4) Rate = k [A]2 [B]

42. The standard reduction potential of three metalsX, Y and Z are 0.52 3.03 and 1.18 Vrespectively. The order of reducing power of thecorresponding metals is :

(1) Y > Z > X (2) X > Y > Z(3) Z > Y > X (4) Z > X > Y


43. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?

(1) CaCO3 CaO + CO2(2) O2 + 2H2O

(3) Na + H2O NaOH + 21

H2

(4) MnCl3 MnCl2 + 21 Cl2

44. In which of the following pair, the EAN of centralmetal atom is not same?

(1) [FeF6]3 and [Fe(CN)6]3(2) [Cr(NH3)6]3 and [Cr(CN)6]3(3) [Fe(CN)6]3 and [Fe(CN)6]4(4) Ni(CO)4 and [Fe(CN)6]4

45. Which amino acid has no asymmetric carbonatom?

(1) Histidine (2) Glycine(3) -alanine (4) Threonin

46. An organic compound with the formula C6H12O6forms a yellow crystalline solid withphenylhydrazine and gives a mixture of sorbitoland mannitol when reduced with sodium. Whichamong the following could be the compound?(1) Fructose (2) Glucose(3) Mannose (4) Sucrose

47. Identify the incorrect statement :

(1) The oxidation of iodide ions by ozone canbe used as a method to estimate ozone

(2) Bromine does not liberate nitrogen gas fromammonia like chlorine

(3) With hot concentrated alkali, chlorine pro-duces the chloride and chlorate

(4) Only fluorine attacks SiO2 to give SiF4

48. The maximum number of electrons in all thoseorbital for which principal quantum number is 3and azimuthal quantum number 2 is :

(1) 2 (2) 8(3) 10 (4) 18

49. The weight of hypo (Na2S2O3 . 5 H2O requiredto make 100 cm3 of 0.2 N solution for use in thereaction

2S2O32 + I2 S4O62 + 2I

will be :

(1) 1.49 g (2) 2.98 g(3) 4.96 g (4) 8.94 g

50. Which of the following will not show aromaticbehaviour ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

RESONANCE MRBHU130412C0-7

PARTB

Straight Objective TypeThis section contains 50 multiple choicequestions. Each question has 4 choices (1),(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of whichONLY ONE is correct.

51. Electron makes transition from n = 3 to theorbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom (ionisationpotential 13.6 eV.) The energy of the photonemitted in the process is

(1) 1.89eV(2) 2.55 eV(3) 12.09eV(4) 12.75 eV

52. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod oflength L and mass M about an axis passing

through a point at a distance of 3L from one of

its end and perpendicular to the rod is :

(1) 48ML7 2

(2) 9

ML2

(3) 12

ML2

(4) 3

ML2

53. Two satellites A and B go around a planet P incircular orbits having radii 4R and Rrespectively. If the speed of the satellite A is3v,the speed of the satellite B will be :

(1) 12v(2) 6v

(3) 34

v

(4) v23

54. A closed vessel contains 8 g oxygen and 7 gof nitrogen. The total pressure is 10 atm at agiven temperature. If now oxygen absorbent thepressure of the remaining gas (in atm) will be :(1) 2(2) 10(3) 4(4) 5

55. A thin square steel plate with each side equalto 10 cm is heated by a blacksmith. The rateradiated energy by the heated plate is 1134 W.The temperature of the hot steel plate is(Stefans constant = 5.67 108 Wm2 K4emissivity of the plate =1)(1) 1000 K(2) 1189 K(3) 2000(4) 2378 K


56. The time period of a simple pendulum of lengthL as measured in an elevator descending with

acceleration 3g

is :

(1) g2L32

(2) gL3

(3)

gL32

(4)

g3L22

57. A charged particle is free to move in an electricfield. It will travel

(1) always along a line of force(2) along a line of force, if its initial velocity iszero

(3) along a line of force, if it has same initialvelocity in the direction of an active angle withthe line of force

(4) None of above

58. A charged particle of mass m and charge q isreleased from in uniform electric f ieldE.Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kineticenergy of the charged particle after t second is

(1) 22

t2MEq (2)

mqtEq2 22

(3) m2

tqE 222 (4) tmqE

59. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitorwith air as medium, is 3F. With theintroduction of a dielectric medium between theplates, the capacitance becomes 15 F. Thepermittivity of the medium is

(1) 5C2 N1 m2(2) 15 C2 N1 m2(3) 0.44 1010 C2 N1 m2(4) 8.845 1011C2 N1 m2

60. The magnetic moment produced in asubstance of 1 g is 6 107 A-m2.If its densityis 5g/cm3 , then the intensity of magnetisationin A/m will be :

(1) 8.3 106(2) 3.0(3) 1.2 107(4) 3 106

61. Mark the wrong statement :

(1) Sliding of molecular layer is much easierthan compression or expression

(2) Reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity iscalled compressibility

(3) It is difficult to twist a long rod as comparedto small rod

(4) Hollow shaft is much stronger than a solidrod of same mass

62. A body moves along a circular path of radius10 m and the coefficient of friction is 0.5. Whatshould be its angular speed in rad/s,if it doesnot slip from the surface ?

(1) 5 (2) 10(3) 0.1 (4) 0.7


63. A stone is projected from the ground withvelocity 50 m/s at an angle of 30. It crosses awall after 3s. How far beyond the wall the stonewill strike the ground ? (g = 10m/s2)(1) 90.2m(2) 89.6m(3) 86.6 m(4) 0.7

64. A body of mass M at rest explodes into three

pieces, two of which of mass 4M

each are throw

off in perpendicular directioins with velocitiesof 3 m/s and 4m/s respectively. The third piecewill be thrown off with velocity of :

(1) 1.5 m/s(2) 2.0 m/s(3) 2.5 m/s(4) 3.0 m/s

65. Two identical blocks A and B, each of mass mresting on smooth floor are connected by alight spring of natural length L and springconstant k with the spring at its natural length.A third identical block C (mass m) moving witha speed v along the line joining A and B collideswith A. The maximum compression in thespring is

(1) k2m

v (2) k2v

m

(3) kmv (4) k2

mv

66. A 500 F capacitor is charged at the steadyrate of 100C/s.How long will it take to raisethe potential difference between the plates ofthe capacitor to 10 V ?

(1) 5 s(2) 10s(3) 50s(4) 100s

67. An 8F capacitor is connected across 220 V,50Hz line. What is peak value of the chargethrough capacitor ?

(1) 2.5 103 C(2) 2.5 104 C(3) 5 105 C(4) 6.9 1015 C

68. A hydrogen-like atom emits radiations offrequency 2.71015 Hz then its make atransition from n = 2 to n = 1. the frequencyemitted in transition from n = 3 to n = 1 will be

(1) 1.8 1015 Hz(2) 3.2 1015 Hz(3) 4.7 105 Hz(4) 6.9 1015 Hz

69. The minimum energy to ionize an atom is theenergy required to :

(1) add one electron to the atom(2) excite the atom from its ground state to itsfirst excited state

(3) remove one outermost electron from theatom

(4) remove one innermost electron from theatom


70. When 1 cm thick surface is illuminated withlight of wavelength , the stopping potential isV. When the same surface is illuminated bylight of wavelength 2 , the stopping potentialis V/3 .Threshold wavelength for metallicsurface is

(1) 4/3(2) 4(3) 6(4) 8/ 3

71. The human eye can barely detect a yellow light(6000)that delivers 1.71018 W to the retina.Nearly how many photons per second doesthe retina receive ?

(1) 50(2) 5(3) 500(4) More then 5 million

72. An object is placed 21 cm in front of concavemirror of radius of curvatures 10 cm. A glassslab of thickness 3 cm and = 1.5 is thenplaced close to the mirror .The position of finalimage formed is

(1) 3.94 cm(2) 4.3 cm(3) 4.93 cm(4) 3.94 cm

73. A convex lens of focal length 1.0 m and aconcave lens of focal length 0.25 m are0.75 m apart.A parallel beam of light is incidentin the convex lens. The beam emerging afterrefraction from both lenses is

(1) Parallel to principle axis(2) convergent(3) divergent(4) None of the above

74. The radii of curvature of the two surfaces of alens are 20 cm and 30 cm and the refractiveindex of the material of the lens is 1.5 . If thelens is concavo-convex, then the focal lengthof the lens is

(1) 24 cm(2) 10 cm(3) 15 cm(4) 120 cm

75. Two instruments having stretched strings arebeing played in unison. When the tension inone of the instruments is increased by 1%,3 beats are produced in 2 s. The initialfrequency of vibration of each wire is

(1) 600 Hz(2) 300 Hz(3) 200 Hz(4) 150 Hz


76. Two conducting spheres of radii R1and R2 arecharged with charges Q1 and Q2 respectively.On bringing them in contact , there is

(1) no change in the energy of the system(2) an increase in the energy of the system Q1R2 Q2R1(3) always a decrease in the energy of thesystem

(4) a decrease in the energy of the system ifQ1 R2 Q2R1

77. An electron with the speed 5106 per sec isshooted parallel to the electric field of intensity1103 N/C. Field is responsible for theretardation of motion of electron. Now evaluatethe distance travelled by the electron beforecoming to rest for an instant (mass ofe = 9 1031 kg, charge = 1.6 1019)(1) 7m(2) 0.7 mm(3) 7cm(4) 0.7 cm

78. A source of sound is travelling at 3100

ms1

along a road, towards a point A . When thesource is 3 m away from A, a person standingat a point O on a rod perpendicular of frequencyv. The distance of O from A that times is 4m.

If the original frequency is 640 Hz, then thevalue of observed real frequency is : (Giventhat velocity of sound = 340 ms1)

(1) 620 Hz(2) 680 Hz(3) 720 Hz(4) 840 Hz

79. The sun delivers 104 W/m2 of electromagneticflux to the earths surface.The total power thatis incident on roof of dimensions (10 10) m2will be

(1) 104 W(2) 105 W(3) 106 W(4) 107 W

80. X-rays are not used for radar purposes,because they are not :

(1) reflected by target(2) partly absorbed by target(3) electromagnetic waves(4) completely absorbed by target


81. A 50 Hz Ac current of crest value 1 A. flowsthrough the primary coil of a transformer. Ifmutual induction between primary andsecondary is 1.5 H, the crest voltage inducedin the secondary coil is

(1) 272 V(2) 320 V(3) 415 V(4) 471 V

82. Find the inductance of a solenoid of length whose windings are made of material ofdensity D and resistivity . The windingresistance is R.

(1) DRm

.

40

l

(2) DRm

.

R40

(3) DRm

.

40

l

(4) Dm

.

R20

l

83. A toroid is along coil of wire, wound over acircular core. The coefficient of self-inductanceof the toroid is given by (radius = r) , when themagnetic field is within it is uniform and R >> r

(1) R2NrL

20 (2) R2

NrL 0

(3) RNrL

20 (4)

R2rNL

220

84. A galvanometer of resistance 50 isconnected to battery of 3 V along with aresistance of 2950 in series. A full scaledeflection of 30 divisions is obtained in thegalvanometer. In order to reduce thisdeflection to 20 divisions the resistance inseries should be :

(1) 4450(2) 5050(3) 5550(4) 6050

85. A magnet is suspended in such a way that itoscillates in the horizontal plane. It makes20 oscillations per minute at plane where20 oscillations per minute at a plane where dipangle is 30and 15 oscillations per minute at aplace where dip angle is 60 . The ratio ofearths magnetic fields at two places is

(1) 8:33

(2) 16 : 39(3) 4 : 9(4) 3:22

86. A wire carrying current i and other carrying 2iin the same direction produce a magnetic fieldB at the midpoint.What will be the field when 2icurrent is switched off ?

(1) B/2(2) 2B(3) B(4) 4B


87. An electric immersion heater of 1.08 kw isimmersed in water. After the water has reacheda temperature of 100C, how much time willbe required to produce 100g of steam ?

(1) 50 s(2) 240 s(3) 105 s(4) 210 s

88. The resistance of the filament of a lampincreases with the increase in temperature. Alamp rate 100 W and 200V is connectedacross 220 V power supply. If the voltage dropsby 10% then the power of the lamp will be

(1) 90W(2) 81 W(3) between 90 and 100W(4) between 81 and 90 W

89. A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C0is connected to a cell of emf V and thendisconnected from it. A dielectric slab ofdielectric constant K, which can just fill the airgap of the capacitor, is now inserted in it. Whichof the following is incorrect ?

(1) The potential diffrence between the platesdecreases K times

(2) The energy stored in the capacitordecreases K times

(3) The change in energy )1K(VC21 2

0

(4) The change in energy

1K1VC

21 2

0

90. A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which

causes displacement in it given by 4t

s2

m

where t is time. The work done by the force in2s is :

(1) 12J(2) 9 J(3) 6 J(4) 3 J

91. The Reynolds number of a flow is the ratio of :

(1) gravity to viscous force(2) gravity force to pressure force(3) inertia force to viscous force(4) viscous force to pressure force

92. The kinetic energy of 1 g molecule of a gasat normal temperature and pressure is(R = 8.31J/mol-k)(1) 1.3 102(2) 2.7102 J(3) 0.56 104J(4) 3.4 103 J

93. An ideal gas heat operates in Carnot cyclebetween 227 C. It absorbs 6 104 cal of heatat higher temperature. Amount of heatconverted to work is

(1) 2.4 104 cal(2) 6 104 cal(3) 1.2 104 cal(4) 4.8 104 cal


94. A charged particle enters a magnetic field Hwith its initial velocity making angle of 45 withH. The path of the particle will be :

(1) straight line(2) a circle(3) an ellips(4) a helix

95. The dimensional formula for Boltzmannsconstant is

(1) [M L2 T2 1](2) [M L2 T2 ](3) [M L0 T2 2](4) [M L2 T2 1]

96. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At atime t (in second ) the distance x (in metre) ofthe particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t t3.How long would the particle travel beforecoming to rest ?

(1 ) 24 m(2) 40 m(3) 56 m(4) 16m

97. The velocity of an electron in the second orbitof sodium atom (atomic number = 11) is v. Thevelocity of an electron its fifth orbit will be :

(1) v

(2) v522

(3) v25

(4) v52

98. Choose the correct statement.

(1) When we heat a semiconductor itsresistance increase

(2) When we heat a semiconductor itsresistance decreases

(3) When we cool a semiconductor to 0 K thenit becomes superconductor

(4) Resistance of a semiconductor isindependent of temperature

99. 3.8 days is the half-life period of a sample. After

how many days, the sample will become 81 th

of the original substance ?

(1) 11.4(2) 3.8(3) 3(4) None of these

100. If E = at + bt2 , what is the neutraltemperature ?

(1) b2a

(2) b2a

(3) ba

(4) ba


Straight Objective Type

This section contains 100 multiple choicequestions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLYONE is correct.

PART-C

101.Given below are four methods (A-D) and theirmodes of action (1-4) in achievingcontraception. Select their correct matchingfrom the four options that follow.Method Mode of Action

A. The pill 1. Prevents sperms reaching cervix

B. Condom 2. Prevents implantation

C. Vasectomy 3. Prevents ovulation

D. Copper-T 4. Semen contains nosperms

A B C D(1) 3 1 4 2(2) 4 1 2 3(3) 3 4 1 2(4) 2 3 1 4

102.Polysome is formed by(1) several ribosomes attached to a singlemRNA(2) many ribosomes attached to a strand ofendoplasmic reticulum(3) a ribosome with several subunits(4) ribosomes attached to each other in a lineararrangement

103. What is vital capacity of our lungs?(1) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume(2) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reservevolume(3) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratoryreserve volume(4) Total lung capacity minus residual volume

104. Which one of the following is the truedescription about an animal concerned?(1) Earthworm-Typhlosole is a structurepresent in gizzard

(2) Frog-Body divisible into three regions-head,neck and trunk(3) Hydra - Complete digestion takes place incoelenteron only(4) Cockroach-10 pairs of spiracles

105. Haploids are more suitable for mutation studiesthan the diploids. This is because(1) haploids are reproductively more stable thandiploids(2) mutagenes penetrate in haploids moreeffectively than in diploids(3) haploids are more abundant in nature thandiploids(4) all mutations, whether dominant orrecessive are expressed in haploids

106. Which one of the following is the correctstatement regarding the particular psychotropicdrug specified?(1) Hashish causes alter thought perceptionsand hallucinations(2) Opium stimulates nervous system andcauses hallucinations(3) Morphine leads to delusions and disturbedemotions(4) Barbiturates cause lack of sleep (insomnia)


107.What does the filiform apparatus do at theentrance into ovule?(1) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into asynergid(2) It prevents entry of more than one pollentube into the embryo sac(3) It brings about opening of the pollen tube(4) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg

108.According to Central Pollution Control Board(CPCB), which particulate size in diameter (inmicrometres) of the air pollutants isresponsible for greatest harm to humanhealth?(1) 2.5 or less(2) 1.5 or less(3) 1.0 or less(4) 5.2 or 2.5

109.During the propagation of a nerve impulse, theaction potential results from the movement of(1) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellularfluid(2) Na+ ions from intracellular f luid toextracellular fluid(3) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellularfluid(4) Na+ ions from extracellular f luid tointracellular fluid

110. In germinating seeds, fatty acids are degradedexclusively in the(1) proplastids (2) glyoxysomes(3) peroxisomes (4) mitochondria

111. The most active phagocytic white blood cellsare

(1) neutrophils and eosinophils(2) lymphocytes and macrophages(3) eosinophils and lymphocytes(4) neutrophils and monocytes

112. In humans, blood passes from the post cavalto the diastolic right atrium of heart due to(1) pushing open of the venous valves(2) suction pull(3) stimulation of the sino auricular node(4) pressure difference between the caval andatrium

113. Which one of the following item gives itscorrect total number?(1) Floating ribs in humans 4(2) Amino acids found in proteins 16(3) Types of diabetes 3(4) Cervical vertebrae in humans 8

114. Vacuole in a plant cell(1) is membrane-bound and contains storageproteins and lipids(2) is membrane-bound and contains waterand excretory substances(3) lacks membrane and contains air(4) lacks membrane and contains water andexcretory substances

115. Which one of the following is resistant toenzyme action?(1) Cork (2) Wood fibre(3) Pollen exine (4) Leaf cuticle


116. Which one of the following is not acharacteristic of phylum-Annelida?

(1) Closed circulatory system(2) Segmentation(3) Pseudocoelom(4) Ventral nerve cord

117. What is antisense technology?(1) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used forsynthesis of antigens(2) Production of somaclonal variants in tissuecultures(3) When a piece of RNA that is complementaryin sequence is used to stop expression of aspecific gene(4) RNA polymerase producing DNA

118. Importance of day length in flowering of plantswas first shown in(1) Lemna (2) tobacco(3) cotton (4) Petunia

119. The two subunits of ribosome remain unitedat a critical ion level of(1) copper (2) manganese(3) magnesium (4) calcium

120.The energy-releasing process in which thesubstrate is oxidised without an externalelectron acceptor is called(1) fermentation (2) photorespiraton(3) aerobic respiration (4) glycolysis

121. Cornea transplant in humans is almost neverrejected. This is because(1) its cells are least penetrable by bacteria(2) it has no blood supply(3) it is composed of enucleated cells(4) it is a non-living layer

122. Cry-I endotoxins obtained from Bacillusthuringiensis are effective against(1) mosquitoes (2) flies(3) nematodes (4) boll worms

123. In which one of the following, the male andfemale gametophytes dont have free-livingindependent existence?(1) Pteris (2) Funaria(3) Polytrichum (4) Cedrus

124. In human adult females, oxytocin(1) is secreted by anterior pituitary(2) stimulates growth of mammary glands(3) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin(4) causes strong uterine contractions duringparturition

125. Main objective of production/use of herbicideresistant GM crops is to(1) eliminate weeds from the field without theuse of manual labour(2) eliminate weeds from the field without theuse of herbicides(3) encourage eco-friendly herbicides(4) reduce herbicide accumulation in foodparticles for health safety


126.A competit ive inhibitor of succinicdehydrogenase is(1) malonate(2) oxaloacetate(3) -ketoglutarate(4) malate

127.Which one of the following pair of nitrogenousbases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matchedwith the category mentioned against it?(1) Thymine, Uracil Pyrimidines(2) Uracil, Cytosine Pyrimidines(3) Guanine, Adenine Purines(4) Adenine, Thymine Purines

128.Human insulin is being commercially producedfrom a transgenic species of(1) Escherichia (2) Mycobacterium(3) Rhizobium (4) Saccharomyces

129.Bacterial leaf blight of rice is caused by aspecies of(1) Xanthomonas (2) Pseudomonas(3) Alternaria (4) Erwinia

130. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division,the male germ cells differentiate into the(1) primary spermatocytes(2) secondary spermatocytes(3) spermatids(4) spermatogonia

131.Electrons from excited chlorophyll molecule ofphotosystem-II are accepted first by(1) cytochrome-b (2) cytochrome-f(3) quinone (4) ferredoxin

132. To which type of barriers under innateimmunity, do the saliva in the mouth and thetears from the eyes, belong?(1) Cytokine barriers(2) Cellular barriers(3) Physiological barriers(4) Physical barriers

133. Cellulose is the major component of cell walls of(1) Pythium(2) Xanthomonas(3) Pseudomonas(4) Saccharomyces

134.The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logsin nature is due to their(1) low moisture content(2) poor nitrogen content(3) anaerobic environment around them(4) low cellulose content

135. In leaves of C4-plants malic acid synthesisduring CO2-fixation occurs in(1) epidermal cells(2) mesophyll cells(3) bundle sheath(4) guard cells

136. Earthworms have no skeleton but duringburrowing, the anterior end becomes turgidand acts as a hydraulic skeleton. It is due to(1) coelomic fluid (2) blood(3) gut peristalsis (4) setae


137.Which one of the following pairs of organsincludes only the endocrine glands?(1) Parathyroid and adrenal(2) Pancreas and parathyroid(3) Thymus and testes(4) Adrenal and ovary

138.Replum is present in the ovary of flower of(1) lemon (2) mustard(3) sunflower (4) pea

139.Darwins finches are an excellent example of(1) adaptive radiation(2) seasonal migration(3) brood parasitism(4) connecting links

140.Endosperm is consumed by developingembryo in the seed of(1) coconut (2) castor(3) pea (4) maize

141.Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formedfrom bicarpellary syncarpous inferior ovary is(1) caryopsis (2) cypsela(3) berry (4) cremocarp

142.Nitrogen-fixation in root nodules of Alnus isbrought about by(1) Bradyrhizobium (2) Clostridium(3) Frankia (4) Azorhizobium

143.Which one of the following is heterosporous?(1) Dryopetris (2) Salvinia(3) Adiantum (4) Equisetum

144.The C4-plants are photosynthetically moreefficient than C3-plants because(1) the CO2 compensation point is more(2) CO2 generated during photorespiration istrapped and recycled through PEPcarboxylase(3) the CO2 efflux is not prevented(4) they have more chloroplasts

145. Which one of the following is linked to thediscovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popularfungicide?(1) Bacterial leaf blight of rice(2) Downy mildew of grapes(3) Loose smut of wheat(4) Black rust of wheat

146. Consider the following four measures (A-D)that could be taken to successfully grow chickpea in an area where bacterial blight diseaseis common.A. Spray with Bordeaux mixture.B. Control of the insect vector of the diseasepathogen.C. Use of only disease-free seeds.D. Use of varieties resistant to the disease.

Which two of the above measures can controlthe disease?(1) B and C (2) A and B(3) C and D (4) A and D

147. The haemoglobin of a human foetus(1) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that ofthe adult(2) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that ofan adult(3) has only two protein subunits instead of four(4) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that ofan adult


148.The rupture and fractionation do not usuallyoccur in the water column in vessel/tracheidsduring the ascent of sap because of(1) lignified thick walls(2) cohesion and adhesion(3) weak gravitational pull(4) transpiration pull

149.Vascular tissues in flowering plants developfrom(1) phellogen (2) plerome(3) periblem (4) dermatogen

150.Which type of white blood cells are concernedwith the release of histamine and the naturalanticoagulant heparin?(1) Neutrophils (2) Basophils(3) Eosinophils (4) Monocytes

151.The fleshy receptacle of syconous of figencloses a number of(1) achenes (2) samaras(3) berries (4) mericarps

152.Mitochondria of a sperm occur in its(1) Head (2) Middle piece(3) Tail (4) Whole of it

153.Modern detergents contain enzymepreparations of(1) acidophiles (2) alkaliphiles(3) thermoacidophiles (4) thermophiles

154.The linking of antibiotic resistance gene withthe plasmid vector became possible with(1) DNA ligase (2) endonucleases(3) DNA polymerase (4) exonucleases

155. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferiorovary and has seeds with succulent testa in(1) pomegranate (2) orange(3) guava (4) cucumber

156. The centromere or primary constriction of thechromosome contains rings of proteins thatare intimately associated with a spindle fibre.These rings are called(1) centrioles(2) secondary constriction(3) asters(4) kinetochores

157. Which of the following is correct order of theevolutionary history of man?(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthalman, Cro-Magnon man(2) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homosapiens, Cro-Magnon man(3) Peking man, Hedelberg man,Neanderthalman, Cro-Magnon man(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homosapiens, Hedelberg man

158. First life on earth was(1) cyanobacteria(2) chemoheterotrophs(3) autotrophs(4) photoautotrophs

159. In negative operon(1) co-repressor binds with repressor(2) co-repressor does not bind with repressor(3) co-repressor binds with inducer(4) c-AMP has negative effect on lac operon


160.Which one correctly describes homologous

structures

(1) Organs with anatomical similarities but performingdifferent functions(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities butperforming same function(3) Organs that have no function now but had animportant function in ancestors(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage anddisappearing later in the adult

161.Sickle cell anaemia is due to(1) change of amino acid in -chain ofhaemoglobin(2) change of amino acid in -chain ofhaemoglobin(3) change of amino acid in both and chainsof haemoglobin(4) change of amino acid in either or chainof haemoglobin

162.Reason of diversity in living beings is(1) mutation(2) long term evolutionary change(3) gradual change(4) short term evolutionary change

163.Which of the following metal pollution causessterility in human beings?(1) Mercury (2) Arsenic(3) Manganese (4) Chromium

164.Which of the following is closest relative ofman?(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla(3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon

165. In his experiment, Mendel obtained wrinkledpea. The wrinkling was due to deposition ofsugar instead of starch. This happened due tothe enzyme(1) amylase(2) invertase(3) diastase(4) absence of starch-branching enzyme

166. Which of these do not follow independentassortment?(1) Genes on non-homologous chromosomesand absence of linkage(2) Genes on homologous chromosomes(3) Linkage genes on same chromosomes(4) Unlinked genes on same chromosome

167. A mutant strain of T4-bacteriophage R-II, failsto lyse the E.coli but when two strains R-II andR-11 3' are mixed then they lyse the E.coli. Whatmay be the possible reason?(1) Bacteriophage transforms in wild(2) It is not mutated(3) Both strains have similar cistrons(4) Both strains have different cistrons

168. At the time of organogenesis, genes regulatethe process at different levels and at differenttime due to(1) promoter (2) regulator(3) intron (4) exon

169. Heavy rainfall during summer produces(1) desert (2) grassland(3) forest (4) wetland


170.Which of the following are less general incharacters as compared to genus?(1) Species (2) Division(3) Class (4) Family

171.Element necessary for the middle lamella is(1) Calcium (2) Zinc(3) Potassium (4) Copper

172.Extranuclear chromosomes occcur in(1) peroxisome and ribosome(2) chloroplast and mitochondria(3) mitochondria and ribosome(4) chloroplast and lysosome

173.Spoilage of oil can be detected by which fattyacid?(1) Oleic acid (2) Linolenic acid(3) Linoleic acid (4) Erusic acid

174.What is true for archaebacteria?(1) All are halophilic(2) All are photosynthetic(3) All are fossils(4) These are oldest living beings

175.Which one of the following is correct match?(1) Reserpine Tranquiliser(2) Cocaine Opiatic narcotic(3) Morphine Hallucinogenic(4) Bhang Analgesic

176.Which fish selectively feeds on the larva ofmosquito?(1) Gambusia (2) Rohu(3) Clarias (4) Exocoetus

177. Forthcoming generations are less adaptivethan their parental generation due to(1) natural selection (2) mutation(3) genetic drift (4) adaptation

178. Due to discovery of which of the following in1980s, the evolution was termed as RNAworld?(1) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise proteins(2) In some viruses, RNA is genetic material(3) Some RNAs have enzymatic property(4) RNA is not found in all cells

179. A and B genes are linked. What shall be thegenotype of progeny in a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?(1) AAbb and aabb (2) AaBb and aabb (3) AABB and aabb (4) None of these

180. When dominant and recessive alleles expresstogether, it is called(1) codominance(2) dominance(3) amphidominance(4) pseudodominance

181. Maximum number of bases in plasmidsdiscovered so far is(1) 50 kilobase (2) 500 kilobase(3) 5,000 kilobase (4) 5 kilobase

182. Half life period of C14 is(1) 500 years (2) 5,000 years(3) 50 years (4) 5 x 1014 years


183.The end product of Ornithine cycle is(1) urea (2) uric acid(3) ammonia (4) carbon dioxide

184.Which one is correctly matched?(1) Vitamin-E Tocopherol(2) Vitamin-D Riboflavin(3) Vitamin-B Calciferol(4) Vitamin-A Thiamine

185.In Hydra, waste material of food digestion andnitrogenous waste material are removed from(1) mouth and mouth(2) body wall and body wall(3) mouth and body wall(4) mouth and tentacles

186.Which of the following chamber of heart hasthe thickest muscular wall?(1) Left auricle (2) Left ventricle(3) Right ventricle (4) Right auricle

187.Which gland plays key role in metamorphosisof frog?(1) Adrenal (2) Thyroid(3) Thymus (4) Pancreas.

188.Restriction endonucleases are used as(1) molecular build up at nucleotides(2) molecular degradation to DNA breakup(3) molecular knives for cutting DNA at specificsites(4) molecular cement to combine DNA sites

189. plant cell has potential to develop into a fullplant. This is called(1) totipotency (2) gene cloning(3) tissue culture (4) regeneration

190. Experimental proof that organic compoundsformed the basis of evolution was given by(1) Oparin(2) Pasteur(3) Miller and Urey(4) Spallanzani

191. Number of Barr bodies in XXXX female(1) one (2) two(3) three (4) four

192. Who coined the term zymase?(1) Pasteur (2) Buchner(3) Kuhne (4) Sumner

193. Which is the example of conditioned reflex?(1) Eye closed when anything enter into it(2) Rapid withdrawl of hand while pricked(3) cycling(4) Digestion food goes forward in alimentarycanal

194.The spice saffron is obtained from which oneof the following?(1) Corolla (2) Stamen(3) Stigma (4) Tender tip of leaf

195.The coconut water is a part of(1) nucellus (2) pericarp(3) embryo (4) endosperm


196.Turmeric has recently become widely popularas a

(1) condiment(2) source of insecticides(3) source of antibiotics(4) source of pigments

197.A community of organisms interacting withabiotic environmental factors constitutes(1) a niche(2) a biogeochemical cycle(3) an ecosystem(4) a food chain

198.The food chain in which microbes breakdownenergy rich compounds synthesised byproducers is called(1) ecosystem(2) parasitic food chain(3) detritus food chain(4) predator food chain

199. The function of renin is(1) vasodilation(2) reduce blood pressure(3) degradation of angiotensinogen(4) None of the above

200. Heart beat increases at the time of interviewbecause(1) hypersecretion of renin(2) hyposecretion of renin(3) secretion of adrenaline(4) Secretion of thyroxine

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