00349 ice formation on a turbofan engine intakes is usually: - prevented by using compressor bleed air 000348 in a compressor stage, if the axial air velocity increases more than the rotor blade velocity the: - stall margin increases 00347 the turbine in a gas turbine engine generates shaft power using: - expansion of hot gas followed by conversion of kinetic energy (velocity) into (mechanical) work. 00346 one of the purposes of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to - reduce the tendency to compressor stall

00345 the compressor blades in a rotating gas turbine engine are held in position by: - the mountings and the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces 00344 one advantage of having three instead of two spools in some high-bypass turbofan engine is that: - fewer variable stator vanes and variable inlet guide vanes are required to prevent compressor stall at low rotor speeds 00343 the most unfavourable conditions for adequate inlet air flow of a turbofan engine are: - maximum take-off thrust, zero forward speed and strong crosswind conditions 00342 the purpose of variable by-pass valves in a high bypass turbofan engine between the LP compressor and the hp compressor is to: - prevent fan stall and LP compressor stall during engine start and low rotor speeds 00341 one reason to fit a tip shroud to a turbine blade is to - increase turbine efficiency 00340 compressor surge may be controlled by means of: - bleed valves 00339 increasing the frequency of variations in thrust setting during normal operation is detrimental to the life of HP turbine blades because: - low cycle fatigue damage is more severe 00338 the compressor pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor is primarily determined by the - number of stages

00337 static gas temperature decrease when flowing at a subsonic speed through a jet engine exhaust nozzle because the: - exhaust nozzle is convergent 00336 in a compressor stage of a gas turbine engine, the sequence is: - rotor - stator 00335 which of the following statements regarding variable inlet guide vanes (VIGVs) and variable stator vanes (VSVs) on a high-bypass engines is correct? - VIGVs are located at the front of the HP vompressor and, together with the VSVs, control compressor airflow. 00334 one of the advantages of annular combustion chamber over a multiple can is that: - the thermal load distribution on the HP turbine is more favourable. 00333 the purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and the HP compressor of an axial flow compressor, is to: - prevent stall in the LP compressor 00332 (refer to figure 021-16) a turbine stage is represented by: - figure 3 00331 the primary function of the diffuser, located between the compressor and the combustion chamber, of a gas turbine engine is to: - decrease the flow velocity 00330 the axial compressor of a gas turbine engine usually ha more stages than its driving turbine because: - the power output of a turbine stage is higher than the power consumption of a compressor stage 00329 one of the functions of a gas turbine engine subsonic intake is to: - decrease airflow velocity 00328 the rotor blades of an axial compressor of a gas turbine engine are often mounted on a disk or drum using a 'loose fit' because this: - limits damage to the blades due to vibration 00327 some gas turbine engines have multiple stages in the HP and LP turbines - because one stage does not generate sufficient shaft power

00326 in a gas turbine engine, the propelling jet is generated by: - expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy (velocity). 00325 compressor stall is due to: - an excessively high angle of attack of the rotor blades 00324 in addition to providing 'customer' bleed for aeroplane systems, air may be bled from compressors of a turbofan engine to increase stall margin: - at low rotor speed 00323 ice protection for gas turbine engine intakes is typically required: - when flying in cloud through super-coold water droplets 00322 each stage of an axial compressor comprises: - a row of rotor blades followed by a row of stator vanes 00321 in a gas turbine combustion chamber: - secondary air is required for cooling of the inner casing 00320 which of the following parameters remains constant in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? - total temperature 00319 one of the advantages of an annular combustion chamber is: - reduced thermal stress on the turbine 00318 when a gas turbine engine is fitted with can-type combustion chambers: - a total of only two igniters are usually fitted since the chambers are inter-connected 00317 the heat for the anti-icing system of a turbofan engine intake is provided by: - bleed air from the HP compressor 00316 compressor surge during gas turbine engine acceleration is prevented by: - controlling the fuel flow (by the FCU - Fuel Control Unit) 00315 which of these statements about a reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? - 1 the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes - 2 the pressure drops across the rotor blades * 1 is incorrect * 2 is correct

00314 the air flow passages adjacent axial compressor rotor blades are divergent, but the absolute exit velocity is higher than the absolute entry velocity of the rotor. This is because: - part of the compressor work delivered to the air is converted into kinetic energy 00313 the function of a drain valve in a gas turbine combustion - remove unburned fuel from the combustion chamber chamber is to

00312 A diffuser in a gas turbine engine is a device in which the: - pressure rises and velocity falls 00311 the internal geometry of a turbofan intake for a subsonic commercial aeroplane is: - divergent in order to reduce airflow velocity and increase static pressure in front of the fan 00310 in which part of a gas turbine engine are high temperature requirements most critical for the materials used? - The combustion chamber and the front part of the HP turbine 00309 the blades of an axial flow compressor decrease in size from the: - low pressure to high pressure stages in an attempt to sustain axial velocity 00308 when a gas turbine engine accelerates from idle to take-off thrust and the compressor RPM is to high in comparison with air inlet velocity, this may result in: - a compressor stall 00307 creep in a gas turbine engine is: - the permanent increase in length of metal parts due to a combination of tensile stress and high temperatures pve prolongue period 00306 the function of the swirl vanes round the fuel nozzle is to: - 2 reduce the average axial flow speed in order to stabilise the flame front - 3 generate a swirl of incoming air to enhance mixing of the fuel with air 00305 what are secondary air holes used for in a gas turbine combustion chamber? - to increase engine cooling 00304 which of the following statements is correct about flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? - 1 the speed remains constant in the flow direction - 2 the total pressure decreases in the flow direction * 1 is incorrect * 2 is incorrect

00303 in a gas turbine engine the creep phenomenon is the most severe in the: - turbine rotors 00302 during the ram recovery process in a gas turbine engine subsonic intake, the: - flow velocity decreases 00301 compressor stall in a gas turbine engine: - can be caused by an axial airflow velocity that is low relative to the rotor speed 00300 (refer to figure 021-16) an axial compressor stage is represented by: - figure 1 00299 which of these statements about compressor stall are correct or incorrect? - 1 a compressor stall is most likely to occur in a compressor designed for high pressure ratio at high RPM - 2 a compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the rear stage of the compressor * 1 is incorrect * 2 is correct 00298 which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect? - 1 The pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes - 2 the pressure remains constant across the rotor blades. - 3 The pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes - 4 the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes - 5 the pressure drops across the rotor blades ** 1 is incorrect * 2 is correct * 3 is incorrect * 4 is correct * 5 is incorrect 00297 which of the following statements is correct about the fuel flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? - 1 the dynamic pressure decreases in flow direction - 2 the static temperature increases in flow direction * 1 is correct * 2 is correct 00296 in a high by-pass engine exhaust, the cod flow is usually exhausted: - separately 00295 the term used to describe a permanent an cumulative deformation of the turbine blades in a gas turbine engine is: - creep 00294 fuel for gas turbine engines is usually heated in order to - prevent icing-up of the LP filter

00293 labyrinth seals in the lubrication system of a gas turbine engine are designed to provide a seal that is: - not completely tight, allowing some movement between rotating and static parts 00292 the fuel-oil heat exchanger: - cools the oil and heats the fuel 00291 in an ignition system during a normal start of a gas turbine engine, igniter activation: - should commence prior to fuel entering the combustion chamber 00290 the primary reason for venting an engine oil tank is to: - prevent excessive pressure in the tank 00289 the FADEC of a gas turbine engine normally includes: - an engine overspeed and/or EGT protection function 00288 the electronic engine control unit of a gas turbine engine FADEC uses data from: - aircraft systems - its own sensors 00287 on most high by-pass ratio (fan) engines, reverse thrust is achived by reversing - only the direction of the fan airflow 00286 the FADEC of a gas turbine engine consists of: - an electronic engine control unit and its peripherals (fuel metering, actuators, electrica wiring, sensors...). 00285 the throttle lever angle (TLA) information of a FADEC controlled gas turbine engine is provided: - to the electronic engine control unit by a direct electrical wiring connection 00284 concerning the fuel system high-pressure shut-off valve (HPSOV) of a gas turbine engine: - ignition is activated before fuel is delivered by the HPSOV to the fuel nozzles 00283 a full authority digital engine control (FADEC) has the following functions: - flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring) - automatic starting sequence - transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments - thrust management and protection of operation limits - monitoring of the thrust reverses

00282 In a gas turbine engine fuel system, why is the fuel heater before the filter? - To prevent water in the fuel freezing and blocking the filter 00281 The electronic engine control of a FADEC gas turbine engine checks: - All input and output data 00280 the function of a vibrator in some gas turbine ignition systems is to provide: - a DC current to the transformer to facilitate the generation of a higher voltage to the igniters 00279 For a turbine engine, the self-sustaining speed relates to the minimum RPM at which the engine: - will continue to operate without any starter motor assistance 00278 if a gas turbine engine fuel/oil hesat exchanger is located downstream of the HP fuel pump, internal leakage of the heat exchanger will cause the oil level to: - Rise 00277 the oil supply to a gas turbine engine bearings is maintained in the event of the main oil filter becoming clogged by: - differential pressure opening the by-pass valve of the main oil filter 00276 to achive reverse thrust on a turbine engine with a high by-pass ratio, generally: - the fan flow is deflected 00275 most high-bypass turbofan engines are equipped with a cold exhaust reverser (fan reverser) only in order to: - save costs and mass at the expense of a reduction in available reverse thrust 00274 the use of igniters in a gas turbine engine is required: - for ground starts - for in-flight relights - during turbulance in flight - under heavy precipitation or on icing conditions 00273 the primary input signals for a hydro-mechanical gas turbine engine fuel control system include: - N2, compressor dicharge pressure, compressor inlet temperature, fuel shut-off, thrust lever angle 00272 a FADEC on a gas turbine engine: - is a single fault tolerant

00271 on a FADEC gas turbine engine during normal flight, the power for the FADEC's sensors comes from: - the FADEC power source(S) on the engine.

00270 a reverse thrust alert on the flight deck occurs when: - the reverser doors are unlocked with the reverse lever in the stowed position - the reverser doors remain stowed with the reverser lever in the deployed position 00269 the accesory units driven by the accesory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the: - AC generator through its constant speed drive (CSD) - oil pumps - hydraulic pumps - high pressure fuel pumps 00268 the pressuring function of the pressurising and dump valve in a gas turbine engine fuel system is: - to admit fuel to the nozzles only if the fuel pressure is high enough for sufficient atomisation 00267 in a gas turbine engine lubrification system fitted with an oil to fuel heat exchanger the: - oil is cooled through thermal exchange with the fuel 00266 after a successful start of a high bypass turbofan engine, the air starte: - is disengaged by the coupling between engine N2 spool and starter by the use of centrifugal forces 00265 If there is a single input data failure on a FADEC gas turbine engine: - The engine continues to operate normally 00264 the meaning of abbreviation "FADEC" on a gas turbine engine is: - Full Authority Digital Engine Control 00263 an abortive (hung) start is the term used to describe an atempt to start in which the engine: - lights up, but fails to accelerate sufficiently 00262 if a twin spool gas turbine engine is controlled by a conventional N2 control system, rupture of the LP shaft may result in: - overspeed of the LP turbine 00261 concerning the starting procedure of a gas turbine engine: - the selected igniters are activated before fuel is delivered to the fuel nozzles.

00260 the main oil filter of a gas turbine engine becomes clogged, oil to the main bearings is still assured: - because the oil filter bypass valve opens 00259 then a turbo-prop aeroplane decelerates during the initial part of the landing roll, a constant speed propeller within the beta range: - produces negative thrust 00258 in the alpha and beta rangesrespectively the governed elements of turboprop proppeler controls are as follows - proppeler RPM and engine RPM 00257 the following problems may occurwhen starting a twin-spool turbofan engine: - No N1 roatation, although N2 may accelerate normally 00256 the purpose of gas turbine engine trending is: - to enhance maintenance plannung and detect anomalies 00255 one of the causes of hight oil temperature in a gas turbine at constant power setting is: - malfunction of the heat exchanger 00254 the primary performance indicator (cockpit instrument) for the thrust of a turbofan engine is: - either EPR or N1 00253 vibration sensors are used in a gas turbine to indicate: - Imbalance of one or both of the spools 00252 the most important oil system instrument indication during gas turbine engine start is: - oil pressure 00251 on landing and prior to shutdown, a gas turbine engine should be run at "ground idle" for a short period. This allows: - The core temperature do diminish 00250 With regard to a twin spool turbofan, an abortive start (hung start) will result in: - N2 speed stabilising at a lower tha normat RPM and a subsequent increase in EGT

00249 A gas turbine engine is run at ground idle for a period of time prior to shutdown to: - prevent seizure of the rotor blades in their seals. 00248 which statement is correct for a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power turbine, when the power setting is increased? - 1 the gas generator speed decreases - 2 the EGT decreases - 3 HP spool speed decreases * 1 is incorrect * 2 is incorrect * 3 is incorrect 00247 the output of a turboprop engine is usually indicated by: - torque 00246 when a turbo prop pneumatic anti-icing system is switched on whilst at cruise: - propeller RPM remains unchanged, turbine temperature rises and torque reduces 00245 using bleed air to power systems: - decreases aicraft performance 00244 flat rated jet engines are designed to provide constant maximum take-off thrust up to a certain level of: - ambient temperature 00243 consider a jet engine whose control is based on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) - with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases - at same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing. 00242 Regarding a jet engine: - 1 the maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases - 2 The specific fuel consumption decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS - 3 the maximum thrust increases as the pressure altitude decreases * 1 is incorrect * 2 is incorrect * 3 is correct 00241 a flat rated turbofan engine has a constant maximum rated thrust level: - up to a specific OAT. 00240 bleeding air from the HP compressor of a turbofan, whilst maintaining thrust, increases: - EGT and fuel flow 00239 regarding a jet engine:

- 1 the maximum thrust decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases - 2 the specific fuel consumption increases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS * 1 is incorrect * 2 is correct 00238 a flat rated turbofan will be temperature limited if: - OAT is higher than flat rated temperature 00237 consider a flat rated twin-spool turbofan with conventional hydromechanicak fuel control. when using maximum take-off thrust at an outside air temperature OAT that is below the flat rated temperature: - the thrust lever is not positioned at the maximum stop 00236 derated or reduced thrust take-offs save engine life primarily due to: - reduced low cycle fatigue damage. 00235 the take-off of a jet aeroplane may be performed with "reduced thrust" in order to: - reduce maintenance costs. 00234 a booster or LP compressor in a twin spool turbofan: - rotates at the same rotor speed as the fan 00233 a simple by-pass engine has: - a proportion of ai routed through the engine core and the rest goes down the by-pass duct 00232 in a subsonic convergent duct the: - velocity increases, pressure decreases and temperature decreases 00231 Given: P0 = static ambient pressure t0 = static ambient temperature m = air mass flow Vv = true air speed Vj = jet efflux (exhaust) velocity pj = jet efflux (exhaust) static pressure tj = jet efflux (exhaust) static temperature A = exhaust cross-sectional area The thrust T of a jet engine is: - T = m(Vj - Vv) + A(pj - p0) 00230 during the take-off, the fan in a high by-pass ratio turbofan engine produces - the grater part of the thrust

00229 the effect of ram airon the operation of a gas turbine engine is: - an increase in the efficiency of the engine 00228 (refer to figure 021-15) the gas turbine illustrated is of the following type: - free turbine and centrifugal compressor 00227 (refer to figure 021-17) the station numbers before and after the HP compressor are: - 3 and 4 00226 (refer to figure 021-19) the engine type represented in the annex is: - twin spool turbojet 00225 a twin spool gas turbine engine is one which the: - LP turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the HP compressor 00224 jet engine total efficiency indicates the efficiency at which: - chemical power in the fuel is trasformed into propulsive power (T x V) 00223 a turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1000 kg/s and a by-pass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a by-pass ratio of: - 8.01 00222 one of the advantages of multiple-spool jet engine design is that: - a smaller air starter diving only a single spool can be used 00221 in a theoretical gas turbine cycle, combustion takes place at a constant: - pressure 00220 at urbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 200 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has a by-pass ratio of: - 9 00219 specific fuel consumption for a turbo-prop engine can be expressed in kg per: - hour per unit of shaft power 00218 a turbofan engine with a by-pass mass flow of 888 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 111 kg/s has a by-pass ratio of: - 8 00217 the static thrust of a turbo-jet:

- equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not moving 00216 (refer to figure 021-17) the engine represented in the drawing is a: - twin-spool turbofan 00215 Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect? - 1 the process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent - 2 theoretically the combustion occurs at a constant pressure * 1 is incorrect * 2 is correct 00214 a turbofan engine with a by-pass mass flow of 250 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 50 kg/s has a bypass ratio of: - 5 00213 a twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a by-pass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a by-pass ratio (BPR) of: - 1 00212 assuming jet pipe is not chiked, the equation to calculate jet engine thrust T (with mass flow m, airspeed Vv and jet velocity Vj) is: - T = m x (Vj - Vv) 00211 given the following information about an aeroplane with a turbojet engine: mass air flow 50kg/s TAS 90m/s exhaust nozzle gas velocity 150m/s exhaust nozzle static pressure 1050 hPa ambient static pressure 1000 hPa cross-sectional area of the nozzle 0.10 square m NET ENGINE THRUST EQUALS: - 3500 N 00210 A twin-spool engine with an inlet flow of 220kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 220kg/s has a by-pass ratio of: - 0 00209 the by-pass ratio: - 1 is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to exhaust air mass flow - 2 can be determined from the bypass air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow. - 3 is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow - 4 can be determined from the inlet air volume flow and the HP compressor volume flow. - 5 can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the HP compressor mass flow

*** 1 is incorrect *2 is correct

*3 is incorrect

*4 is incorrect

*5 is correct

00208 the principle of aeroplane propulsion is to generate a propelling force by: - accelerating air or gas in order to obtain a reaction force 00207 the generator of auxiliary power unit (APU) can only be used when: - no other power source is feeding the busbar 00206 in addition to fire detection/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have automatic controls for starting, stopping and mantaining operation within safe limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as protection against: - high turbine gas temperature (TGT) overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil temperature 00205 when a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested: - the wiring an warning are tested 00204 smoke detectors systems are installed in the: - upper cargo compartments (class E) 00203 an engine fire in a large transport aircraft is indicated by a: - visual and aural allert 00202 on a large transport multi-angined aircraft a fire detection system includes: - a warning light for each engine and a single aural alert common to all engines 00201 in a fire dection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the inner core contacts the outer casing: - the fire allarm is triggered 00200 a continuous loop detector system is a: - overheat detection system 00199 a gaseous fire loop system is tested by: - heating up the sensor 00198 power plant fire extingishers are operated by: - an electrically fired cartridge rupturing a seal in the head of the bottle 00197 generally, when the fire handle of the engine fire-extingishing system on an aeroplane is pulled, the effects are:

- arming of the extinguishing system - deactivation of the electric generators 00196 halon is used as a fire extinguishing agent because it: - acts as a very effective inhibitor 00195 firewire detects a fire by: - detecting the heat caused by the fire 00194 when fire handle of the engine fire-extinguishing system of an aircraft is pulled, the effects are: - closing of the LP valve of the fuel system - setting of extinguishing systems - closing of the isolation and de-icing valves - isolation of the associated electric current generators 00193 a flight deck indication that a fire extinguishing agent has been discharged would be? - Light only 00192 the functions of a LP booster pump in a gas turbine fuel system are to: - avoid vapour locking and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump. 00191 fuel pumps subemrged in the fuel tanks of large multi-engine aircraft are typically: - centrifugal low pressure type pumps 00190 a large transport category jet aircraft is typically refuelled by which of the following methods? - pressure refuelling 00189 the engine fuel control unit (FCU) is protected from damage by debris by: - the fine fillter located between the high pressure fule pump and the governor unit 00188 fuel dump systems are required: - on all transport category where MTOW is significantly higher than the MLW 00187 the operating pressure of a booster pump in the fuel supply system of a gas turbine aircraft is typically within the following range: - 20 to 50 psi 00186 on some large aeroplanes the fuel tanks may be vented through: - air intakes on the underside of the wing

00185 during fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when: - the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass 00184 the correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three mentioned fuels is: - JET A, JET A-1, JET B 00183 in an aircraft with fuel dumpingsystem - how much fuel can be dumped? - all fuel down to a predetermined safe value 00182 one of the reasons for the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in fuel is to: - facilitate the priming of the pumps - cool the pumps 00181 most apropiate statement concerning multi-engine jet aeroplane fuel systems, is: - The fuel system may have provisions for heating the fuel before it enters the fuel filter

00180 Which statement is correct? - 1 the freezing point for JET A is at a higher temperature than that for JET B - 2 the flash point for JET A is at a lower temperature than that for JET B ********** 1 is correct 2 is incorrect 00179 the refuelling of large transport jet aicraft is typically performed: - through a unique point (an underwing reffueling centr) 00178 fuel tank air pressure is maintained at ambient by: - the fuel vent system 00177 fuel is delivered to the engine under pressure to: - prevent vapour lock 00176 on small aircraft the fuel content is typically measured by: - the level of fuel in tank 00175 On most transport aircraft, flight deck windows are protected against icing by: - electric heating 00174 the elements typically protected against icing on large transport aircraft are: - engine air intake and pod

- front glass shield - pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts - leading edges of the wings 00173 a pneumatic de-icing system should be operated: - when there is approximately 1.5 of ice on the leading edges 00172 the anti-icing method for the wings of large jet transport aeroplanes most commonly used in flight is: - thermal 00171 in the case of a termal de-icing system over-temperature, this is indicated by: - warning lights 00170 the de-icing of a propeller by fluid is achived through: - slinger rings 00169 with regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only correct statement is: - they can only be used as de-icing devices 00168 generally for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on: - pitot tubes 00167 the use of a hot air wing anti-icing system: - does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust 00166 electrically powered ice protection devices on aircraft are: - used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield 00165 cabin heating in a large turbojet transport aeroplane is obtained from: - hot air extracted from the engine compressors 00164 (refer to figure 021-20) automatic temperature of the system as shown, would be accomplished by: - the temperature selector in conjuction with cabin sensore and temperature regulator, modulating the miix valve 00163 the maximum cabin differential pressur of an aeroplane with a maximum certified altitude of 41000 feet is approsimately: - 9 psi

00162 in a "bootstrap" cooling system, the bleed air is compressed in the cold air unit to: - ensure a sufficient temperature drop in the secondary heat exchanger 00161 when the air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is: - unaffected 00160 the term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane: - has the means to mantain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure 00159 whilist in level crising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurized cabin experiences a malfunction of the pressure controller. If the cabin vertical speed indicator reads 200ft/min rate of descent: - the differential pressure will rise to it's maximum value, thus causing the safety valves to open 00158 in a typical air conditioning system of a short-haul turbojet aircraft the cabin air is not controlled in respect to the: - humidity 00157 in a typical air conditioning system of modern large transport aeroplanes the reduction of air temperature an pressure is achived by: - an expantion turbine 00156 most cabin pressurization systems have two modes of operation: - the isobaric mode and the constant pressure differential mode 00155 under normal conditions (EASA CS-25)the cabin pressure altitude of a transport aeroplane is nor allowed to exceed: - 8000 feet 00154 a warning device alerts the crew in cas of an excessive cabin altitude. this warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: - 10000 feet (aprox 3000 m ) 00153 the turbine in a bootstrap air conditioning system (air cycle machine) - drives the compressor and creates a temperature drop in the conditioned air. 00152 an air cycle machine (air conditioning pack): - causes a pressure and temperature drop in the bleed air.

00151 assuming that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, all the outflow valves fully close: - the pressure differntial would go to the maximum value 00150 a cabin rate of descent - result in a cabin pressure increase 00149 why is the combustion chamber of a heater in an aircraft pressurization system completly separated from ventilating system? - to prevent any exhaust gases from contaminating the cabin air 00148 "conditioned" air has air that has: - been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure 00147 cabin air for large aeroplane during flight: - is temperature controled 00146 on modern large pressurized jet transport aeroplanes, the maximum differential pressure is approximately: - 7-9 psi 00145 cabin pressurization is regulated by the: - cabin outflow valves 00144 the term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurization system, refers to the: - cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement. 00143 the term "cabin altitude" refers ti the: - cabin pressure expressed as altitude 00142 an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin flies at fl310 and, following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. given: CAB V/S = Cabin rate of climb indication CAB ALT = Cabin pressure altitude DELTA P = Differential pressure This will result in a: - CAB V/S increase, CAB ALT increase, DELTA P decrease 00141 in a large transport aeroplane the main temperature reduction of the conditioned air is achieved in: - the heat exchangers

00140 cabin air for modern transport airplanes is usually taken from: - the HP compressor 00139 engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the: - compressor section 00138 bleed air extracted from turbine engine can be used for: - cabin pressurization 00137 which controls act together in a V-tail aircraft? - The stick in one axis and the rudder-pedals 00136 what is the principle of operation of a differential aileron flight control system? - equlise the drag on up-going and down-going wings. 00135 primary flight controls are: - ailerons, elevators, rudder 00134 a cable operated flight control system can be equiped with external gust locks. - when fitted to the control surface, they will prevent movement of the column if the controls are not fitted with servo tabs 00133 Which is the correct statement regarding a large aircraft fitted with both inboard and outboard ailerons: - the outboard ailerons are typicaly used only when the flaps are extended 00132 in a flight control system a device in which a small input operates a large output in a strictly proportionate mannesr is called: - a servomechanism 00131 most transport aeroplanes are provided with protection against control jamming. This means that: - the flight control system has provisions to disconnect the part of the control system tha becomes blocked 00130 the range of movement of a control surface is limited by: - primary stops at the surface 00129 a primary stop is mounted on an elevator control system in order to: - restrict the range of movement of the elevator

00128 a flight control surface actuator is said to be "irreversible" when: - there is no feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface 00127 over-tensioned cables in a flight control system may result in: - excessive friction in the system 00126 The function of the rudder limiter on some aircraft is - to restrict rudder deflection during flight at high IAS 00125 a flight control surface actuator is said to be "reversible" when : - there is feedvack to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface 00124 an aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls: - need not be equipped with separate gust lock system 00123 an aeroplane equipped with reversible flight controls: - does not require an artificial feel system 00122 which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? - 1 A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of turbulance - 2 Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock - 3 there should be suitable design precautions to prevent flight with the gust lock engaged ***** 1 is incorrect 2 is correct 3 is correct 00121 given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls how is control maintained if one hidraulic system is lost due to a hydraulic leak? - the remaining systems will take control 00120 which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? - 1 irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock - 2 manual flight controls should have a gust lock ***** 1 is incorrect 2 is correct 00119 which of these statements regarding most gust lock systems is cirrect? - when the gust lock is ON there is protection to prevent take-off 00118 the expression "primary flight control" applies to the: - elevator - roll spoilers

00117 which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? - 1 A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the ias increases - 2 A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases - 3 A variable stop system reduces both rudder deflection and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases ***** 1 is correct 2 is incorrect 3 is incorrect

00116 some aircraft ues a fly-by-wire system to move the primary flight controls, this system is based on: - electrical signals from a computer sent to hydraulic actuators 00115 the automatic ground spoiler extention system is normaly activated during landing by: - main wheel spin up 00114 a "slat" on a wing is: - a leading edge device tha causes some of the high energy air to flow over the upper surface of the wing 00113 on a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system - extends (part of) the slats automatically when a certain value of A o A is exceeded 00112 spoilers instaled on a typical large transport aeroplane are: - upper wing surfaces devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical 00111 krueger flaps are typically positioned: - at the wing root 00110 most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tab. Is it still posible to trim these surfaces? - yes, trimming is possible by adjusting the neutral poin of artificial feel mechanism by means of a trim switch 00109 where are flight spoilers fitted? - symmetrically on the wing upper surface 00108 rudder trim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is: - an adustment of the zero force rudder position 00107 trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system: - is achived by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system

000106 which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a convetional aeroplane are correct or incorrect? - 1 the zero force position of the control column does not change when using elevator trim. - 2 the zero force position of the control wheel changes when using the aileron trim. ***** 1 is correct 2 correct 00105 the purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: - reduce or to cancel control forces 00104 aircraft is descending in straight flight with the spoilers deployed. If a pilot initiates a descending turn to the left the: - spoilers move up on the down-going wing and down on tje up-going wing 00103 the expression "secondary flight control" applies to the: - trimmable stabilizer - speed brake 00102 on most large aircraft, the main source of braking power is derived from: - the hydraulic system 00101 the ply rating of a tire is? - a parameter indicating the relative strength 00100 hydraulic brake system of transport aircraft: assuming an accumulator is pre-charged to 1.000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurized to 1.500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read: - 1.500 psi 00099 the systems used for emergency extention of landing systems may comprise of: - compressed nitrogen - auxiliary hydraulic system - free-fall (gravity) 00098 shimmy occurs on the nose-wheel landing gear during taxiing when the wheels: - tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground and the effect is overcomed by - an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder 00097 the "creep" may be described as the: circumferential movement of the tire in relevation to the wheel flange

00096 a red or amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies: - at least one wheel is in travelling or unloked condition 00095 compared to a tire fitted with an inner tube, a tubless tire presents the following characteristics - lower risk of bursting - better adjustment to wheels 00094 during hydroplaning, the friction coefficient between tire and runway surface is approximatly: - 0 00093 in a typical commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually: - hydraulically driven 00092 a tubless tire is a tire: - which requires solid or branched wheels - which does not burst in the event of tire puncture - which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire 00091 to avoid the risk of tire burst from overheating there is - a thermal plug that deflates the tire at a specific temperature 00090 "nose-wheel shimmy" may be described as: - a possibly damaging vibration of the nose-wheel when moving on the ground 00089 generaly, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the landing gear can be extended by: - gravity extension 00088 the brake assembly of transport aircraft is typicaly equipped with an anti-skid system. Which device or system supplies the anti-skid control unit with the information required to regulate the brake pressure? - a wheel speed sensor 00087 the damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircraft is: - oil 00086 a modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: - idle wheel speed (measured) - braked wheel speed (measured) - desired idle wheel train slipping rate

00085 overcentre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to: - lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions 00084 the purpose of the oil and nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic landing gear strut is: - the oil suplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function 00083 (refer to figure 021-06) associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams: - 1) cantilever 2) fork 3) half-fork 4) dual wheels 00082 the component that converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called: - an actuator or jack. 00081 (refer to figure 021-14) in the typical hydraulic system represented by the illustration , assuming hydraulic pressure throughout and no internal leakage: - a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place. 00080 (refer to figure 021-02) in the diagram (not to scale), the balancing force required on the right side is: - 100 N 00079 function of a hydraulic selector valve is to: - direct system pressure to either side of the piston of an actuator 00078 For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is: - the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve. 00077 (refer to figure 021-03) in the hydraulic press schematically shown, what balancing force would be acting on the righ hand side? - 4 N 00076 (refer to figure 021-21) the hydraulic system that works correctly is shown in: - diagram 2 00075 the temperature of hydraulic fluid is typically measured: - in the resrvoir 00074 a variable displacement type hydraulic pump: - moves fluid quantity dependent on system demand

00073 (refer to figure 021-24) total number of hydraulic pumps in this hydraulic system (excluding the PTU pump) is: - 5 00072 purposes of an accumulator in an hydraulic system are: - to damp pressure fluctuations - to serve as a limited alternate source of pressure 00071 the following is normaly true regarding hydraulic hand pumps. they are: - connected to the bottom of the resrvoir 00070 hydraulic fluids should have the following characteristics: - thermal stability - anti-corrosive - high flash-point 00069 a modern hydraulic system typically includes "hydraulic fuses". Their function is: - to prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line 00068 hydraulic fluid in the reservoir is slightly pressurised to : - cavitation in the pump 00067 in a typical hydraulic system , the overheat detectors are usually installed : - at the pumps 00066 to protect against exessive system pressure , a hydraulic system usually incorporates - a pressure relief valve 00065 state the advantages of variable displacement hydraulic pump compared to the constant displacement pump - the variable displacement pump adjusts the fluid pumped to the fluid required, and the pump thereby adjusts the pressure output itself, and it moves fluid only when necessary 00064 parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be : - pressure , fluid temperature and quanity 00063 hydraulic fluids most frequently used in the systems of modern large transport airplanes are: - phosphate ester base fluids

00062 the hydraulic system of a transport aircraft is typicaly designed to produce: - high pressure and large flow 00061 the resrvoirs of a hydraulic system of a transport aircraft are typically pressurized: - by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine 00060 large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately: - 3.000 psi 00059 a linear actuator has a damaged seal resulting in an internal leak. In addition to a loss of a actuator efficiency, this will result in : - an increase in fluid temperature 00058 the type of hydraulic fluid most frquently used in the hydraulic systems of modern transport aeroplanes is : - synthetic oil 00057 which of these statements about an aeroplane's hydraulic system is correct ? - the filters , pressure relief valve(s) , the by-pass valve(s) , and the fire shut-off valve are safety features installed in the system 00056 a hydraulic low pressure alert is the first indication of : - the pump output pressure being insufficient 00055 if a piston A has an area of 2 square cm and piston B has an area of 10 square cm , when piston B moves down by 5 cm , how far will piston A have moved ? - 25 cm 00054 pascal's law states that: - pressure in an enclosed container is transmitted equally and undiminished to all parts of the container and acts at right angles to the enclosing walls 00053 signifficant torsion effects on a wing structure during flight can be caused by : - aileron defflection 00052 Controll surface flutter can be avoided by : - high torsional stiffness of the structure si - locating balancing mass in front of the control hinge

00051 A sandwich type structure is often used in aircraft design because of its : - low mass high stiffness 00050 what are the three elements of the fuselage of a large transport aeroplane ? - skin , frames , stringers 00049 engine compartment decking and firewalls are typically manufactured from : - stainless steel or titanium sheet 00048 whe wing of an subjected to bending the torsion box from - compression and aircraft in flight powered by engines mounted on the wings is moments due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar of the wing root to the tip is: then tension

00047 a wing spar typically consists of: - a web and girders 00046 the pressurisation load on the skin of a fuselage is : - tension 00045 loads on the cylindrical part of the fuselage during pressurisation cycles are carried by the : - the skin 00044 the bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the: - upper skin surface - lower skin surface - spar or spars 00043 in flight a cantilever wing of an aeroplane containing fuel is subject to vertical loads that produce a bending moment that is : - highest at the winh root 00042 a structure in which the skin takes all the load is : - a monocoque structure 00041 which of these statements about the wing structure is correct ? - a torsion box is formed by wing spars ribs and wing skin reinforced by stringers 00040 to achieve control flutter damping the balance mass must be located - in front of the control surface hinge

00039 A non-cantilever wing is : - a wing suported by braces or a strut connected to the fuselage 00038 a composite structural component consists of : - a matrix and fibres 00037 A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing - concentrate loads 00036 a cantilever wing is : - a wing attached to the fuselage at the wing root only 00035 the fuselage structure of a presurised transport aeroplane is an example of a - semi-monocoque structure 00034 in streight and level flight the most important loads on a cantilever wing are : - compression in the upper surface and tension in the lower surface 00033 The highest load on the torsion link in a bogie gear is experienced : - while turning on the ground with a small radius 00032 What is the load in the upper respectively lower girder of a spar of a cantilever wing during straight and level flight ? - compression in the upper girder and tension in the lower girder 00031 which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect ? - 1 in a structural component with give dimentions constructed of composite materials , the strenght is the same in all directiones - 2 Composite materials enable structures with higher strenght / weight ratio than metal structures - 3 for a structural component with given dimentions constructed of composite materials enable a structural component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load - 1 is incorrect 2 is correct 3 is correct 00030 When the wing skin is not able to carry loads , the structural elements of the wong , which can carry the bending moment are - the spars 00029 One function of a rib is : - to mantain the aerodynamic shape of the wing

00028 one design method to avoid control surface flutter is : - ensuring correct mass distribution within the control surface 00027 when a wing bends upwards , aileron flutter occur if the aileron deflects : - downwards , because the location of the aileron center of gravity lies behind the hinge line 00026 how can the wing bending moments be reduced in flight ? - Aileron up float and using the fuel from center (fuselage) tanks while mantaining the fuel in the wing tanks for as long as possible 00025 whilst stationary on the ground in a hangar the most important loads on a cantilever wing are: - tension in the upper surface , compression in the lower surface 00024 Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect ? - 1 Cockpit windows never have an additional speed restriction, related to bird impact , when window heating is inoperative - 2 cockpit side windows are usually defogged only . 1 is incorrect 2 is correct 00023 Which of these statements about SANDWICH structural parts are correct or incorrect ? - 1 A sandwich structural part consists of two thin sheets enclosing a light core material - 2 A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads - 3 The main function of the core material is to stabilise the covering sheets - 4 a sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a resin 1 is correct 2 is incorrect 3 is correct 4 is incorrect 00022 The condition of ON CONDITION maintenance is based on the: - monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded 00021 According JAR CS / EASA CS the worst effect of a minor failure on the aeroplane : - slight reduction in functional capabillities or safety margins 00020 For SAFE LIFE designed structural components: - one load carrying component is sufficient for a given load, provided it is strong enough si - the component is removed at the end of the calculeted life time or number

of cycles 00019 The principle of FAIL SAFE design of an aircraft is based on the: - redundancy of the structure or equipment 00018 According JAR CS EASA CS the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a MAJOR FAILURE should be on the order of: - between 10 la -5 and 10 la -7 (remote probability) 00017 Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? - FAIL SAFE implies parallel structural parts - SAFE LIFE implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or cycles 1 is correct 2 is incorrect 00016 Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? - 1 Fail SAfe structure will never fail - 2 Safe life structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles 1 - incorect si 2 - incorect 00015 According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on an aeroplane could be : - large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins . 00014 According JAR CS EASA CS the allowable quantitative average probability per flight hour for a HAZARDOUS FAILURE should be on the order of : - 10 la -7 si 10 la -9 00013 According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a major failure on the flight crew could be : - physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload 00012 According JAR CS / EASA CS the worst effect of a minor failure on the flight crew could be: - a slight increase in workload 00011 According JAR CS EASA CS the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a MINOR FAILURE should be on the order of: - between 10 la -3 and 10 la -5 (probable) 00010 According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the flight crew could be : - physical distress or excessive workload , impairs ability to perform tasks 00009 According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a major failure on the aeroplane could be: - significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins 00008 According JAR CS EASA CS the allowable quantitative average probability per flight hour for a CATASTROPHIC FAILURE should be on the order of:

- less than 10 la puterea -9 00007 An aircraft in flight is affected by loads. These may be classified as: - compressive , tensile, shear and torsional 00006 With regard to an aircraft fuselage, a FAIL SAFE / FAILSAFE structure is one - in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails 00005 for failsafe designed - the mounting principle - there is more than one si - the design is based on structural components: is parallel mounting load carrying component the principle of redundancy of components

00004 the principle of damage tolerant structural design of an aircraft is based on the - capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastophic failure 00003 According JAR CS / EASA CS the worst effect of a minor failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: - physical discomfort 00002 A Safe Life aircraft structural component: - may be used during a declared number of cycles or flight hours 00001 In context of airframe load path philosophies a fail safe component is: -a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that, following it's failure, the remaning structure can withstand resonable loads without failure until the damage is detected c JAA Test Prep 021 - Systems, Powerplant & Electrics 031-03-01 Definition of Centre of Gravity 002012According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a HAZARDOUS FAILURE on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: D serious or fatal injury to a small number of passenger or cabin crew 012012According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a major failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be: D physical distress, possibly including injuries 022012According JAR CS EASA CS the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the aeroplane could be B hull loss 032012Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? 1 the damage tolerance principle takes cracking of the structure into account

2 the safe life principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight hours 1 is correct 2 is correct

879. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically: #A) through its center of gravity. B) through its center of pressure. C) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly. D) through a point defined as the datum point. 907. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The center of gravity is the: A) neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line. B) center of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line. C) focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line. #D) point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated. 923. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The center of gravity of a body is that point: A) which is always used as datum when computing moments. B) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to zero. C) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero. #D) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to act. 1059. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The center of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the: A) vertical axis. B) lateral axis. #C) longitudinal axis. D) horizontal axis. 1067. (AIR: atpl) The center of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord. This means that the center of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of the length of: A) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum. B) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge. #C) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edge. D) the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge. 1069. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The datum for determining the CG has to be along the longitudinal

axis: A) between the nose and the tail. B) between the leading and trailing edge of the MAC. #C) but does not have to be between the nose and the tail. D) at the fire wall. 1085. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from the datum is known as: #A) station. B) moment. C) MAC. D) index. 1091. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The CG position is: A) set by the pilot. B) set by the manufacturer. #C) able to exist within a range. D) fixed.

2933. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The center of gravity of an aircraft: A) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aircraft loading. B) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load. #C) can be allowed to move between defined limits. D) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aircrafts certificate of airworthiness. 12308. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 031-06) For the light twin engine piston propeller aeroplane the datum is located: A) at the leading edge of the MAC. #B) 78,4 in FWD of the wing leading edge at the inboard edge of the inboard fuel tank. C) on the nose of the aeroplane. D) 78,4 cm FWD of the wing leading edge at the inboard edge of the inboard fuel tank. 12309. (AIR: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 031-01) For the single engine piston/propeller aeroplane the Forward CG limits are: A) 74,00 in #B) 74,00 in - 80,4 in C) 80,4 in D) 37,7 in 12463. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The center of gravity is that (i) on an aircraft through which

the total (ii) is considered to act vertically (iii). A) (i) datum; (ii) mass; (iii) upwards B) (i) datum; (ii) moment; (iii) downwards C) (i) point; (ii) moment; (iii) upwards #D) (i) point; (ii) mass; (iii) downwards 18154. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The single point, through which the resultant of all the individual mass components making up the loaded helicopter can be said to act, is the: A) Operating Mass. B) Centre of helicopter. C) Centre of pressure. D#) Centre of Gravity. 021-01-01 Fuselage 15. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to: A) withstand the shear stresses. #B) assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses. C) provide sound and thermal isolation. D) withstand the tension stress. 4390. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) DURALUMIN alloys: 1) have an aluminium-copper base 2) have an aluminium-magnesium base 3) are easy to weld 4) are difficult to weld 5) have a good thermal conductivity 6) have a poor air corrosion resistance The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: #A) 1, 4, 5 B) 2, 4, 5 C) 1, 3, 6 D) 2, 3, 6 4614. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts: 1) The mounting principle is parallel mounting. 2) No routine check is necessary. 3) The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle. 4) Certain components may not be accessible. 5) The principle is the redundancy of components 6) The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 2, 3, 4 #B) 1, 5, 6 C) 1, 3, 4

D) 2, 5, 6 4662. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Of a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are: #A) spars B) ribs C) skin D) webs 4793. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the: 1) normal bending stresses 2) tangent bending stresses 3) torsional moment 4) shear stresses The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 2, 4 B) 2, 3, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 #D) 1, 2, 3 4911. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that: A) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time. B) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights. C) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplanes structure in an unacceptable way. #D) the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum. 4936. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) FAIL-SAFE construction is: #A) a type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails. B) a type of construction for small aircraft only. C) a construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight. D) a simple and cheap type of construction. 12392. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Strain is defined as the: A) ultimate load. B) yield point. #C) deformation due to stress. D) expansion due to temperature rise. 12393. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)

A framework of truss type fuselage is used in: A) heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft. B) supersonic aircraft. C) medium range commuter type turbo-props. #D) light training aircraft mainly. 20368. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Significant torsion effects in a wing during flight can be caused by: #A) aileron deflection. B) wing dihedral. C) propwash. D) wing tip vortices. 20432. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to: 1) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals 2) ensure zero voltage difference between aircraft components 3) isolate all components electrically 4) keep all parts of the aircraft at the same potential The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: #A) 2, 4 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 3 D) 1, 3 20433. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to: A) carry the torsional loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress. B) withstand shear stresses. C) provide sound and thermal isolation. #D) assist the skin withstand longitudinal compressive loads. 22109. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) How can you tell when metallic bonding is incorrect? #A) Corrosion at skin joints. B) CB trips. C) Static on the radio. D) VOR interference. 22135. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In the context of airframe load path philosophies a FAILSAFE component is: A) a component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is designed so that following a failure it is in the safe condition. #B) a component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that, following its failure, the remaining structure can withstand reasonable loads without failure until the damage is detected.

C) a component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of failure in that life is assessed as remote. D) a component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft. 22138. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) With reference to stringers they: #A) integrate the strains due to pressurisation to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress. B) provide sound and thermal insulation. C) perform no structural role. D) withstand the shear stresses. 22143. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Define the term FATIGUE: A) a one off loading that breaks the material. B) a loading on the material but it returns fully to its former state when the load is removed. #C) if a material is continually loaded and unloaded it will eventually break even though the load remains the same. D) the material suffers progressively more permanent damage each time that it is loaded and unloaded. 22144. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which of the following statements concerning the stresses TORSION and TENSION is correct? A) Tension is caused by twisting and torsion resists a force pulling it apart. #B) Torsion is caused by twisting and tension resists a force pulling it apart. C) Torsion is caused by two layers sliding apart and tension resists a force pulling it apart. D) Torsion is caused by twisting and tension is a crushing force. 22208. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The function of stringers in the construction of the fuselage is: A) to withstand shear stress. B) to provide an attachment for insulation. #C) to provide support for the skin and to absorb some of the pressurization strain as tensile loading. D) to provide an alternate load path in the event of the failure of a frame. 22214. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In a non-stressed skin aircraft, bending loads acting on the wings are taken by: A) skin #B) spars C) stringers D) ribs 28034. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)

Which components do a semi-monocoque fuselage consists of? A) Steel tubing, longerons and bulkhead wires. #B) A stressed skin structure in which the skin is supported by a lightweight framework, such as longerons, stringers and formers. C) Metal stringers, bulkheads and fabric covering. D) A stressed skin type of construction in which the stiffness of the skin provides a large measure of the strength of the structure. No truss or substructure is required. 28057. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What are the most frequent used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure? #A) Aluminium or magnesium alloy. B) Steel. C) Wood. D) Composite fibers. 28141. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Monocoque fuselages derive their strength from: A) bulkheads and longerons. B) longerons and formers. #C) the skin. D) metal stringers. 28204. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Monocoque fuselages derive their strength from: #A) the skin. B) metal stringers. C) longerons and formers. D) bulkheads and longerons. 4556. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by: A) vinyl coating. #B) electric heating. C) anti-icing fluid. D) rain repellent system. 4768. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that: A) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection. B) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows. #C) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy. D) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection. 5062. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)

What is the effect of heating flight deck windows? A) To demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function correctly. B) To protect the windows against bird strike. C) To protect the windows against ice formation. #D) To protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation. 20243. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from: #A) a glass and polycarbonate laminate. B) triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 45 to each other. C) a perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element. D) a boron aluminide and glass laminate. 20258. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Cockpit indications associated with a windscreen heating system usually comprise: A) of only the position of the selector switch. #B) a green system ON information light and an amber system failure light. C) green or blue lights which cycle on/off with the function of the heating elements. D) amber lights when the system is functioning with a red warning should the windscreen enter an overheat condition. 20402. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The middle layer of a heated windscreen is made of: #A) soft polycarbonate. B) triplex. C) glass. D) hard perspex. 22130. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On large transport aircraft how is rain protection provided? A) De-mist. B) Anti-icing / de-icing. #C) Water repellent, only applied when wet. D) Windscreen wipers, effective even with heavy rain. 22131. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) What do you do if you encounter rain along your route of flight? A) Anti-ice helps. B) Wipers are sufficient even in heavy rain. C) Alcohol in the anti-ice fluid helps. #D) Use rain repellent with the wipers in heavy rain.

021-01-03 Wing 021-01-02 Cockpit and cabin windows

2724. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a bending moment: #A) highest at the wing root. B) equal to the zero fuel weight multiplied by the span. C) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span. D) lowest at the wing root. 4791. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments Mx are: A) the skin. B) the ribs. C) the webs. #D) the spars. 4804. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment which is: A) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span. B) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span. #C) highest at the wing root. D) lowest at the wing root. 4815. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment due to thrust and drag. The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is: A) compression. B) tension, then in compression. C) tension. #D) compression, then in tension. 12394. (AIR: atpl, cpl) A wing structure consists primarily of: A) a front and rear main spar. #B) a front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers. C) ribs and stringers only. D) ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction. 20453. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The two deformation modes that cause wing flutter are: A) torsion and shearing. #B) torsion and bending. C) bending and elongation. D) shearing and elongation. 22137. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Which part of a wing, other than stressed skin construction,

takes upward loads? A) Ribs B) Skin #C) Spars D) Webs 22141. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How can in flight wing loading be reduced? A) Aileron down float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible. B) Having inboard mounted engines and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible. C) Having inboard mounted engines and reducing the fuel at the wing tips as soon as possible. #D) Aileron up float and maintaining the fuel at the wing tips for as long as possible. 22222. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The torsion box of a modern aircraft wing structure consists of: A) spars, skin, frames and stringers. B) spars, skin, frames and ribs. C) spars, skin, longerons and ribs. #D) spars, skin, stringers and ribs. 22236. (AIR: atpl, cpl) How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight? A) By using aileron up-float and keeping the center section fuel tanks full for as long as possible B) By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron downfloat. #C) By using aileron up-float and using the fuel in the wings last. D) By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first. 28039. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When do you say that an aircraft has a cantilever wing? #A) When the wing is attached to the fuselage at or near one end only. B) When the wing planform is other than rectangular. C) When the wing is supported by braces or strut, linked to the fuselage. D) When the wing is attached to the lower part of the fuselage. 28048. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Stall fences mounted on an aircraft wing are used: A) To increase the maximum speed of the aircraft. B) To avoid the formation of shock waves. C) To increase the lift coefficient in landing. #D) To prevent the tendency of the outer portion of the wing to stall first. 28058. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What mission does the strut have, often observed between

the fuselage and the wing, on small high wing aircraft? A) Serves as a facilitating access to the upper side of the wing. B) Supporting the wing while the aircraft is on ground only. #C) Supporting the wing while the aircraft is on ground and when airborne. D) Supporting the wing if the airplane should become inverted. 28142. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Wings without exterior support are called: A) mono-lever B) monocoque #C) cantilever D) sweepback 021-01-04 Stabilising surfaces 4894. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is: #A) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence. B) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation. C) to have greater effectiveness at high speed. D) that it does not require a de-icing system. 5066. (AIR: atpl, cpl) What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top of the fin? A) To be more efficient at high speed. B) No need for anti-icing. C) Create a pitch up by making the aeroplane tail heavy. #D) To be out of the way of the wing down wash. 12395. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The empennage consists of the: A) horizontal stabilizer only. #B) horizontal and vertical stabilizer. C) vertical stabilizer only. D) tailplane only. 20458. (HELI: atpl, cpl) The vertical fin of a helicopter is often of asymmetric aerofoil section to: A) offset tail rotor loading in the hover. #B) reduce engine power requirement in forward flight. C) assist lateral control in forward flight. D) provide longitudinal stability in the hover. 14. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1) the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground 2) the wheels no longer respond to the pilots actions

This effect is overcome by means of: 3) the torque link 4) an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder The combination of correct statements is: A) 2, 3 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 4 #D) 1, 3 62. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The operating principle of an antiskid system. The brake pressure will be: A) decreased on the faster turning wheels. B) increased on the faster turning wheels. #C) decreased on the slower turning wheels. D) increased on the slower turning wheels. 98. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Nose wheel shimmy may be described as: A) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear. B) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing. C) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect. #D) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground. 2725. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is: #A) to supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of failure of the hydraulic system normally supplying the brakes. B) to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system. C) to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel blocking. D) to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking. 2726. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1) high heating 2) valve fragility 3) lower risk of bursting 4) better adjustment to wheels The combination containing all the correct statements is: #A) 3, 4 B) 2, 3 C) 2, 4 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 4429. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)

A tubeless tyre has: 1) a built-in-air tube 2) no built-in-air tube 3) a crossed side casing 4) a radial side casing The combination of correct statements is: A) 1,3 B) 1, 4 C) 2, 3 #D) 2, 4 4495. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1) idle wheel speed (measured) 2) braked wheel speed (measured) 3) brake temperature (measured) 4) desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5) tire pressure The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 2, 4 B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 #C) 1, 2, 4 D) 1, 3 4499. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is: A) locked-down and its door is locked. B) in the required position. #C) locked-down. D) not in the required position. 4704. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from: A) the brake actuators. B) the master cylinders. C) pressure to the rudder pedals. #D) the aeroplanes hydraulic system. 4769. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre: A) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway. B) its tread will deteriorate faster. C) will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed. #D) will wear at the shoulders. 021-01-05 Landing gear 4785. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: A) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.

B) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system. C) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking. #D) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure. 4789. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually: A) pneumatically driven. B) mechanically driven. #C) hydraulically driven. D) electrically driven. 4792. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The function of a fusible plug is to: A) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. #B) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. C) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system. D) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system. 4795. (AIR: atpl, cpl) When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to: #A) 0,1 B) 1 C) zero D) 0,5 4805. (AIR: atpl, cpl) On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted takeoff, there is: A) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve. #B) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre. C) the Emergency Burst function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre temperature. D) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature. 4807. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to: A) lock the landing gear. B) absorb the spring tension. C) control the wheels. #D) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut. 4811. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic

system failure? A) Pneumatically. B) Electrically. #C) Mechanically. D) By hydraulic accumulators. 4828. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when: A) during crosswind landings. B) during pushback. #C) making tight turns when taxiing. D) after takeoff. 4829. (AIR: atpl, cpl) In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided: A) fuel tank. B) cabin. C) tyres. #D) wheel/undercarriage bay. 4840. (AIR: atpl, cpl) Auto brakes are disengaged: A) when the ground spoilers are retracted. B) when the speed falls below 20 kts. C) on the landing roll when the auto-pilot is disengaged. #D) by the pilot. 4893. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is: A) braking with an inoperative anti skid system. #B) taxiing with a small turning radius. C) touch down with crosswind. D) gear down selection. 4896. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Tyre creep may be described as the: #A) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange. B) the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature. C) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature. D) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear. 4898. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1.000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1.500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read: A) 1.000 psi B) 500 psi

C) 2.000 psi #D) 1.500 psi 4916. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) A scissor (torque link) is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to: A) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20. B) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears. C) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nosewheel. #D) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber. 4963. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft? #A) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid. B) Nitrogen. C) Oxygen. D) Springs. 4989. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are: A) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function. #B) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function. C) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function. D) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation function. 4991. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The Auto Brake System is being disconnected after landing: #A) by pilot action. B) automatically. C) at a certain low speed. D) the system is always armed. 4993. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Landing gear torque links are used to: A) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod. B) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected. #C) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut. D) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and takeoff. 5016. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they: A) prevent the brakes from overheating.

#B) release air from the tyre in case of overheating. C) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres. D) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure. 5019. (AIR: atpl, cpl) the damping found on most transport aeroplanes is a: A) drum type brake. #B) multiple disk brake. C) single disk brake. D) belt brake. 5023. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be: A) never repaired. B) repaired once. #C) repaired several times. D) used on the nose wheel only. 5033. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of: A) a warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system. B) an aural warning horn. #C) a latch located in the landing gear lever. D) a bolt. 11928. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Thermal plugs are installed in: A) cabin windows B) cargo compartments #C) wheel rims D) fire warning systems 11985. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1) which requires solid or branched wheels 2) whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3) whose mounting rim must be flawless 4) which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device 5) which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 6) which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: #A) 1, 5, 6 B) 3, 4, 5 C) 1, 2, 5 D) 2, 3, 6 11991. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl)

A main landing gear is said to be locked down when: A) the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel. B) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber. #C) the strut is locked by an overcenter mechanism. D) it is in the down position. 12023. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) (Refer to figure 021-24) Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams: A) 1 cantilever; 2 dual wheels; 3 half fork; 4 fork B) 1 half fork; 2 single trace; 3 cantilever; 4 dual wheels #C) 1 cantilever; 2 fork; 3 half fork; 4 dual wheels D) 1 half fork; 2 fork; 3 cantilever; 4 tandem 12396. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In a HP brake hydraulic system: A) the aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by operation of a dual brake control valve. B) a NRV is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to that of the brake operating pressure. C) a PRV is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft hydraulic system fails. #D) a separate handbrake system is always fitted together with its own accumulator and its own system components. 20221. (HELI: atpl, cpl) A red LANDING GEAR UP warning light is fitted to some helicopters. This is to inform the pilot that: A) the helicopter is on the ground with weight on wheels. #B) a combination of altitude and/or airspeed is below safe operating limits with the landing gear retracted. C) hydraulic pressure has fallen below the locked up value. D) the normal landing gear extension system has failed. 20222. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies: #A) at least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition. B) all wheels are up and locked. C) all wheels are down and locked. D) the landing has been selected down using the emergency extension system. 20299. (AIR: atpl) Generally, on modern jet transport aeroplanes, if there is a complete hydraulic system failure, the landing gear can be extended by: A) alternate electrical extension. #B) gravity extension. C) alternate pneumatic extension. D) hydraulic accumulators. 20333. (HELI: atpl, cpl) Landing gear skids are normally manufactured from:

A) stainless steel. B) steel. #C) aluminium alloy. D) titanium. 20356. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) Overcenter mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to: #A) lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions. B) lock the landing gear in the up position only. C) ensure that the nose-wheel does not exceed the maximum steering arc. D) ensure the nose-wheel is positioned fore and aft prior to retraction.

20389. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is: #A) oil B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) springs 20397. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to: #A) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber. B) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears. C) transfer the rudder pedal deflection into nose wheel steering commands. D) make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20. 20419. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The pilot may be prevented from retracting the landing gear whilst the aircraft is on the ground by: A) a pneumatic interlock which disables the hydraulic up selector. B) a guard on the selector switch which cannot be moved until the aircraft is airborne. C) any attempt to select the landing gear up will result in a flashing warning light and a loud horn. #D) the electrical control system being routed through the weight on wheels switch. 20442. (AIR: atpl, cpl) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they: A) release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure due to over-inflation. B) prevent the brakes from overheating. C) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

#D) prevent tyre burst. 20448. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise: 1) Compressed CO2. 2) Compressed nitrogen. 3) Compressed oxygen. 4) Auxiliary hydraulic system. 5) Freefall. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 5 C) 2, 3, 4 #D) 2, 4, 5 20463. (AIR: atpl, cpl) To avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating there is: A) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve. #B) a thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature. C) the Emergency Burst function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tyre temperature. D) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature. 20467. (HELI: atpl, cpl) To prevent excessive wear on landing gear skids when landing on hard surfaces: A) aluminium shoes are fitted to steel or titanium skids. B) sacrificial copper shoes are fitted to the titanium skids. C) the underside of the steel skids are case hardened. #D) steel shoes can be fitted to the aluminium skids. 20473. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) VLE is the maximum: A) speed authorized in flight. B) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. C) speed with flaps extended in a given position. #D) flight speed with landing gear down. 20474. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) VLO is the maximum: #A) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety. B) flight speed with landing gear down. C) speed with flaps extended in a given position. D) cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution. 21925. (AIR: atpl, cpl; HELI: atpl, cpl) In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1.600 psi. An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3.000 psi. The

hydraulic