ARK Cumulative Test Series - Weeblyarkmcat2017.weebly.com/uploads/5/8/4/2/58428267/ark_mcat...2 UNIT WISE TESTS University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Cumulative Test

UNIT WISE TESTS 1

University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Cumulative Test Series - 1

ARK Cumulative Test

Series ~ 1

Total MCQs: 170 Max. Marks: 850 Time Allowed: 125 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.

ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.

iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. and Signature in the specified columns only.

COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the Colour of your Question Paper? A) White B) Blue C) Orange D) Green

Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is White. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘A’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ Response Form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).

SYLLABUS PHYSICS Unit 1: PHYSICAL QUANTITIES AND UNITS

Unit 2: FORCES Unit 3: FLUID DYNAMICS

CHEMISTRY Unit 1A: FUNDAMENTAL CONCEPTS Unit 2A: STATES OF MATTER

Unit 3A: ATOMIC STRUCTURE Unit 4A: CHEMICAL BONDING

ENGLISH GRAMMAR

VOCABULARY

BIOLOGY Unit 1: INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY Unit 2: CELL BIOLOGY

Unit 3: BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES Unit 6A: DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

Unit 6B: GAS EXCHANGE AND TRANSPORTATION

A B C D

ID 1 2 3 4

UNIT WISE TESTS 2


PART I - PHYSICS

Q.1 A room in a house has a floor area of 120 ft2. Which of the following is most likely the

approximate volume of the room?

A) 3 m3

C) 300 m3

B) 30 m3

D) 3 000 m3

Q.2 In mechanics, physicists use three basic quantities to derive additional quantities. Mass is one of the three quantities. What are the other two? A) Length and force C) Length and time B) Power and force D) Force and time

Q.3 Which formula is dimensionally consistent with an expression yielding a value for velocity? (a is acceleration, x is distance, and t is time)

A) v/t2

C) v2/t

B) vx2

D) at

Q.4 Which expression is dimensionally consistent with an expression that would yield a

value for time−1

? (v is velocity, x is distance, and t is time) A) v/x C) x/t

B) v2/x D) v

2t

Q.5 The speed of a boat is often given in knots. If a speed of 5 knots were expressed in the SI system of units, the units would be: A) m C) m/s B) s D) kg/s

Q.6 If a is acceleration, v is velocity, x is position, and t is time, then which equation is not dimensionally correct? A) t = x/v C) v = a/t

B) a = v2/x D) t

2 = 2x/a

Q.7 Suppose an equation relating position x, to time t, is given by x = b t3

+ c t4, where b

and c are constants. The dimensions of b and c are respectively:

A) T3, T

4. C) L/T

3, L/T

4.

B) 1/T3, 1/T

4. D) L

2⋅T

3, L

2⋅T

4.

Q.8 Areas always have dimensions ____ while volumes always have dimensions ____.

A) m2, m

3 C) Both A and B are correct

B) L2, L

3 D) No answer is correct because of the “always”.

Q.9 On planet Z, the standard unit of length is the fosse. Ann the Astronaut is 5.90 feet tall on earth. She lands on planet Z and is measured to be 94 fosses tall. Her partner Rachael is 88 fosses tall. How tall is Rachael on Earth? A) 5.2 feet C) 5.8 feet B) 5.5 feet D) 6.3 feet

Q.10 Which of the following is an example of a non-conservative force? A) Gravity C) Friction B) Magnetism D) Both choices A and B are valid

UNIT WISE TESTS 3


Q.11 When NASA was communicating with astronauts on the moon, the time from sending on the Earth to receiving on the moon was 1.28 s. Find the distance from Earth to the

moon. (The speed of radio waves is 3.00 × 108 m/s.)

A) 240 000 km C) 480 000 km B) 384 000 km D) 768 000 km

Q.12 Jack pulls a sled across a level field by exerting a force of 110 N at an angle of 30° with

the ground What are the parallel and perpendicular components, respectively, of this force with respect to the ground? A) 64 N, 190 N C) 95 N, 55 N B) 190 N, 64 N D) 55 N, 95 N

Q.13 A barefoot field-goal kicker imparts a speed of 30 m/s to a football at rest. If the football

has a mass of 0.50 kg and time of contact with the football is 0.025 s, what is the force exerted on the foot? A) 190 N C) 600 N B) 380 N D) 900 N

Q.14 An automobile of mass 2 000 kg moving at 30 m/s is braked suddenly with a constant

braking force of 10 000 N. How far does the car travel before stopping? A) 45 m C) 135 m B) 90 m D) 180 m

Q.15 A shot-putter moves his arm and the 7.0-kg shot through a distance of 1.0 m, giving

the shot a velocity of 10 m/s from rest. Find the average force exerted on the shot during this time. A) 175 N C) 525 N B) 350 N D) 700 N

Q.16 A baseball batter hits an incoming 40-m/s fastball. The ball leaves the bat at 50 m/s

after a ball-on-bat contact time of 0.030 s. What is the force exerted on the 0.15-kg baseball? A) 450 N C) 90 N B) 250 N D) 50 N

Q.17 Find the tension in an elevator cable if the 1 000-kg elevator is descending with an

acceleration of 1.8 m/s2, downward

A) 5 700 N C) 9 800 N B) 8 000 N D) 11 600 N

Q.18 Which of the following is that form of energy associated with an object’s motion?

A) Potential C) Bio-chemical B) Thermal D) Kinetic

Q.19 Which of the following is that form of energy associated with an object’s location in a

conservative force field? A) Potential C) Bio-chemical B) Thermal D) Kinetic

Q.20 As an object is lowered into a deep hole in the surface of the earth, which of the

following must be assumed in regard to its potential energy? A) Increase C) Remain constant B) Decrease D) Cannot tell from the information given

UNIT WISE TESTS 4


Q.21 When an object is dropped from a tower, what is the effect of the air resistance as it falls? A) Does positive work C) Increases the object’s potential energy B) Increases the object’s kinetic energy D) None of the above choices are valid

Q.22 The quantity of work equal to one joule is also equivalent to which of the following?

A) watt C) watt ⋅ s

B) watt /s D) watt /s2

Q.23 The rate at which work is done is equivalent to which of the following?

A) Increase in potential energy C) Potential energy B) Thermal energy D) Power

Q.24 The unit of power, watt, is dimensionally the same as:

A) joule-second C) joule-meter. B) joule/second D) joule/meter.

Q.25 A 60-kg woman runs up a flight of stairs having a rise of 4.0 m in a time of 4.2 s. What

average power did she supply? A) 380 W C) 620 W B) 560 W D) 670 W

Q.26 An automobile delivers 30.0 hp to its wheels when moving at a constant speed of 22.0

m/s. What is the resistance force on the automobile at this speed? (1 hp = 746 watts) A) 18 600 N C) 1 020 N B) 410 000 N D) 848 N

Q.27 Each second a rabbit moves half the remaining distance from his nose to a head of

lettuce 10 m away. When does he get to the lettuce? A) After 25 sec C) After 50 sec B) After 100 sec D) Never

Q.28 A boy of mass 10 kg is standing on a weighing balance in an elevator. The balance reads

his weight as 49 N. the elevator is A) Going up with uniform velocity C) Stationary B) Going down with uniform acceleration D) Going up with constant acceleration

Q.29 A unit for viscosity, the centipoise, is equal to which of the following?

A) 10-3

Ns/m2

C) 10-1

Ns/m2

B) 10-2

Ns/m2

D) 102 Ns/m

2

Q.30 A pipe carrying water has a radius of 1.0 cm. If the flow velocity is 9.0 cm/s, which of

the following characterizes the flow? Take the viscosity of water to be 1.0 × 10-3

Ns/m. A) Streamlined C) Turbulent B) Unstable D) Stagnant

Q.31 Think of Bernoulli’s equation as it pertains to an ideal fluid flowing through a horizontal pipe. Imagine that you take measurements along the pipe in the direction of fluid flow. What happens to the sum of the pressure and energy per unit volume? A) It increases as the pipe diameter increases B) It decreases as the pipe diameter increases C) It remains constant as the pipe diameter increases D) No choices above are valid

UNIT WISE TESTS 5


Q.32 An ideal fluid, of density 0.85 × 103

kg/m3, flows at 0.25 kg/s through a pipe of radius

0.010 m. What is the fluid speed? A) 0.85 m/s C) 3.0 m/s B) 1.3 m/s D) 0.94 m/s

Q.33 The flow rate of blood through the average human aorta, of radius 1.0 cm, is about 90

cm3/s. What is the speed of the blood flow through the aorta?

A) 14 cm/s C) 37 cm/s B) 32 cm/s D) 29 cm/s

Q.34 In a large tank of liquid, the hydrostatic pressure at a given depth is a function of:

A) Depth. C) Liquid density. B) Surface area D) Choices a and c are both valid

Q.35 Atmospheric pressure is 1.0 × 105

N/m2, and the density of air is 1.29 kg/m

3. If the

density of air is constant as you get higher and higher, calculate the height of the atmosphere needed to produce this pressure. A) 7 900 m C) 1 260 m B) 77 000 m D) 10 300 m

Q.36 The water behind Grand Coulee Dam is 1 200 m wide and 150 m deep. Find the

hydrostatic force on the back of the dam. (Hint: the total force = average pressure × area)

A) 5.2 × 109 N C) 13.2 × 10

10 N

B) 8.8 × 1010

N D) 18.0 × 1010

N Q.37 A speed boat requires 80 kW to move at a constant speed of 15 m/s. What is the

resistive force of the water at this speed? A) 2700 N C) 6500 N B) 5300 N D) 7700 N

Q.38 Water flows over a section of Niagara Falls at a rate of 1.20 × 106

kg/s and falls 50.0 m. What is the power dissipated by the waterfall? A) 588 MW C) 147 MW B) 294 MW D) 60.0 MW

Q.39 A jet engine develops 1.0 × 105

N of thrust in moving an airplane forward at a speed of 900 km/h. What is the power developed by the engine? A) 500 kW C) 25 MW B) 10 MW D) 50 MW

Q.40 Yuri, a Russian weightlifter, is able to lift 250 kg 2.00 m in 2.00 s. What is his power

output? A) 500 W C) 4.90 kW B) 2.45 kW D) 9.80 kW

PART II - CHEMISTRY Q.41 Avogram is reciprocal of Avogadro’s number, it is not referred to as

A) 1 amu C)1 Dalton B) 1 Aston D) 1 gm atom

UNIT WISE TESTS 6


Q.42 The hydrogen phosphate of a certain metal has formula MHPO4. The formula of metal chloride would be A) MCl C) M2Cl2

B) MCl2 D) MCl3 Q.43 John Dalton put forward atomic theory based on following postulates, which one is

correct A) Atom is indivisible B) Atom is smallest particle C) Atoms of an element are identical D) Atom of the element have different masses from those of another element

Q.44 Which of the following is incorrect statement?

A) Proton number of isotopes of element is same B) Proton number of different element are different C) Mass number of isotopes and average atomic mass of elements are different D) Proton number of different element are same

Q.45 Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Relative abundance is related with strength of electric current B) Mass number of isotopes is related with C-12 C) Deflection of positive ion is directly related with strength of electric field D) Number of peaks in mass spectrograph is equal to number of isotopes

Q.46 2 moles of Glucose have total number of moles of all the elements

A) 24 moles C) 2 moles B) 36 moles D) 48 moles

Q.47 Atomic number does not present

A) The number of protons in the nucleus B) The number of electrons in the neutral atom C) The order in which the element appears in the periodic table D) The sum of protons and neutrons in the nucleus

Q.48 Avogadro’s number may be present

A) Volume of particles C) Mass of particles B) Number of particles D) All of the above

Q.49 The number of moles of CO2 which contain 16 g of oxygen is

A) 0.25 C) 1.0 B) 0.50 D) 1.50

Q.50 All of the following relationships are correct according to General Gas equation except

A) PVm ∝ T C) PM ∝ dT

B) P ∝ CT D) πC ∝ T Q.51 The process of separation of gases on the basis of difference in their rate of

diffusion/effusion is known as A) Atomolysis C) Ammonolysis B) Pyrolysis D) Solvolysis

Q.52 Which one if the following mathematical expression represents the Avogadro’s law?

A) V = R nT/P (when T and n are const.) C) V = R nT/P (when P and n are const.)

B) V = R nT/P (when P and T are const.) D) V = R P/nT (when P and T are const.)

UNIT WISE TESTS 7


Q.53 According to the Van dar Waal’s equation which of the following is incorrect

A) Ideal pressure is greater than observed pressure

B) Constant ‘a’ is a measure of strength of intermolecular forces

C) Effective volume ‘b’ is four times greater than actual volume

D) In SI unit of ‘b’ is m3 mol-2

Q.54 Which of the following unit cell has lattice point in the center of unit cell and at the

corner of the unit cell

A) Primitive unit cell C) Body centered unit cell

B) Face centered unit cell D) End centered unit cell

Q.55 Which of the following substance shows hexagonal crystal system?

A) K2Cr2O7 C) SnO2

B) ZnO D) Na2B4O7. 10 H2O

Q.56 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A) Ionic solids are brittle but metallic solids are malleable

B) Covalent solids are very hard but molecular solids are soft

C) Properties of isomorphism and polymorphism is shown by ionic crystals

D) Molecular solids have H-Bonding and diploe dipole interaction only

Q.57 Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A) All the element and compound of IVA group are non-conductor except graphite

B) All the noble gases are p block elements except He

C) All the non-polar molecules form molecular crystals except CO2

D) all the metals are insoluble in polar and non-polar solvents except in liquid metal

Q.58 Which of the following statement about allotropy and polymorphism is incorrect

A) Allotropy is for element and polymorphism is for ionic compound

B) Allotropes and polymorphs have same physical property

C) Allotropes and polymorphs have same chemical properties

D) All of the above

Q.59 Isomorphic crystals have

A) Same chemical and same physical properties

B) Different chemical and physical properties

C) Same chemical but different physical properties

D) Same physical but different chemical properties

Q.60 Covalent solid shows all of the following property except

A) Very high MP and BP C) Have layered and network structure

B) All of them are non-conductor D) More soluble in non-polar solvent

Q.61 Under what conditions of temperature and pressure, Vander Waal Gas equation reduce

to ideal gas equation

A) Low Temperature, Low Pressure C) High Temperature, High Pressure

B) Low Temperature, High Pressure D) High Temperature, Low Pressure

Q.62 Which crystal has the largest lattice energy

A) KCl C) LiBr B) MgO D) NaF

UNIT WISE TESTS 8


Q.63 Although the concept of bond energy is rather artificial corresponding to low physical realizable process, it is nevertheless very useful. All of the following are the application of bond energy except A) Comparing the strength of bonds B) Understanding structure and bonding C) To determine molecularity of a reaction D) Estimating the enthalpy change in the reaction

Q.64 Which statement is incorrect

A) Ionization energy is an index of metallic character B) Electron affinity is associated with element C) Sb and Bi have different electronegativity value D) Electronegativity is associated with molecule

Q.65 Which of the following statement is correct about Azimuthal Quantum Number

A) Total sub-shells in a shell is equal to numerical value of n B) A sub-shell is only possible if l < n C) If n=3, l=3,2,1 D) ‘l’ can also specify the shape of orbitals occupied by an electron

Q.66 MgO is used to line industrial furnace because it has a very high melting point. What

type of bond needs to be broken for MgO to be melt? A) Coordinate C) Metallic B) Covalent D) Ionic

Q.67 Which molecule is overall planar

A) NF3 C) C3H8

B) C2Cl4 D) C3H6 Q.68 The melting point of an organic compound is dependent on the molecular forces present

A) Nylon 6, 6 < Poly(ethene) < Terylene C) Poly(ethene) < Terylene < Nylon 6, 6 B) Poly(ethene) < Nylon 6, 6 < Terylene D) Terylene < Poly(ethene) < Nylon 6, 6

Q.69 A metallic ion having ‘+3’ charge and acquires configuration of Neon, the mass number

of that metal will be A) 39 C) 32 B) 28 D) 27

Q.70 For SO3, which of the following statement is wrong

A) Non-polar C) Anhydride of H2SO4 B) Polar D) Eletrophile

Q.71 Atomic number of an element is 37, after the removal of one electron, then its

outermost subshell is A) f-subshell C) s-subshell B) p-subshell D) d-subshell

Q.72 Which of the following compound can be in solid, liquid or gaseous state

A) Ionic compound C) Covalent compound B) Coordinate covalent compound D) Both B and C

Q.73 Which of the bond is directional and rigid?

A) Ionic bond C) Covalent bond B) Metallic bond D) H-bond

UNIT WISE TESTS 9


Q.74 Which statement is correct about the shape of SnCl2 and SO2 molecule A) Square planer C) Pyramidal B) Angular D) Tetrahedral

Q.75 Which statement is correct about central atom of PH3 molecule?

A) Has two lone pairs and two bond pair C) Has three bond pairs and one lone pair B) Has three bond pairs and two lone pair D) Has three lone pairs and two bond pairs

Q.76 Cathode rays are produced in gas discharge tube

A) By collision of x-rays with gas molecule C) From anode electrode B) From cathode electrode D) By thermal decomposition of gas molecule

Q.77 Both CH4 and NH3 are four electron pair systems, the angles of CH4 and NH3 are 109.5°

and 107° respectively. This deviation is due to A) Hydrogen bonding in ammonia B) Lone pair occupy more space and repel to other bond pairs C) Lone pair – lone pair repulsion D) Lone pair attraction

Q.78 Which of the following elements has highest ionization energy

A) Li C) Na B) K D) Be

Q.79 The relative energies of 4s, 4p and 3d orbitals are in the order.

A) 3d < 4p < 4s C) 4p < 4s < 3d B) 4s < 3d < 4p D) 4p < 3d < 4s

Q.80 Why is the first ionization energy of Ne lighter than that of F?

A) Fluorine is more electronegative than Neon B) Neon has a complete octet rule, but fluorine does not C) the atomic radius of fluorine is less than that of neon D) the nuclear charge in neon is greater than that in Fluorine

Q.81 Which of the following molecule do not obey extended octet rule

A) PCl5 C) SF6 B) SbCl3 D) IF7

Q.82 Which of the following statement is not correct about alpha particles

A) Their mass is 4 amu B) They are more penetrating than gamma rays C) They are He+2 ion D) They carry +2 unit charge

Q.83 Which of the following particle has maximum charge to mass ratio

A) Electron C) Neutron B) Proton D) Alpha particle

Q.84 Which of the following species assumes planar structure

A) CH3- C) CH4

B) CH3+ D) BF4

- Q.85 CO2 molecule is iso-structural with which of the following

A) SnCl2 C) NO2-

B) H2O D) HgCl2

UNIT WISE TESTS 10


Q.86 Which of the following processes involve the cleavage of covalent bonds A) Evaporation of water C) Formation of atomic hydrogen B) Sublimation of iodine D) Melting of sodium metal

Q.87 Which rule helps us to determine valency of an element

A) Mosley law C) Hund’s law B) Aufbau principle D) Pauli Exclusion Principle

Q.88 Which statement is correct about the shape of SnCl2 and SO2 molecule

A) Square planer C) Pyramidal B) Angular D) Tetrahedral

Q.89 Calculate the number of chemical bonds in 4.8 g of ozone

A) 2.48 X 1022 C) 2.32 X 1024

B) 1.806 X 1023 D) 1.2 X 1023 Q.90 Which of the following term is not used for element?

A) Relative Atomic mass C) Average atomic mass B) Fractional atomic mass D) Mass number

PART III – ENGLISH

Q.91 It's a _____ point whether building more roads reduces traffic congestion. A) Proven C) Moot B) Surrealistic D) Admitted

Q.92 After a five-month _____, the talks resumed.

A) Progress C) Momentum B) Hiatus D) Corollary

Q.93 You can't really _____ a trend from such a small sample.

A) Premeditate C) Exonerate B) Extrapolate D) Preempt

Q.94 The publishing of misleading advertisements was a _____ of section 47 of the Act.

A) Compliance C) Promulgation B) Continuation D) Contravention

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.95 Maria, along with her friend Saman, appear to be coming down the escalator.

A) B) C) D) Q.96 In order to secure the first copy of the book the caliph sent the author thousand dinars. A) B) C) D) Q.97 Hours of driving laid ahead of us before we could complete the trip. A) B) C) D)

UNIT WISE TESTS 11


Q.98 The trans-Sahara journey began at a little town, Boussaada, known to the natives as the “Port of A) B)

the Sahara,” for it is here that the desert really started. C) D) Q.99 Fast-food restaurants have established in almost every country in the world. A) B) C) D) Q.100 We couldn’t get past because there was a parked car on the way. A) B) C) D)

In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill the bubble / circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.

Q.101

A) This plan is creative but is risky. B) The plan is creative but risky. C) This plan is creative but has a risk. D) The plan is creative but it has a risk.

Q.102

A) Agricultures rely on water, which is scarce at times. B) Agriculture relies on water, which is scarce at times. C) The agriculture relies on water, which is scarce at times. D) The agricultures rely on water, which is scarce at times.

Q.103

A) Considering human history, it has recently been that man using mass communications. B) Considering human history, it is only recently that man has begun using mass communications. C) Considering human history, it only recently is that man has begun using mass communications. D) Considering human history, it only recently is that man has begun to use mass communications.

Q.104 A) Harry comes to work on car but I prefer to come on foot. B) Harry comes to work into car but I prefer to come by foot. C) Harry comes to work by car but I prefer to come by foot. D) Harry comes to work in car but I prefer to come on feet.

Q.105

A) Children attend private schools are often accused of being slightly spoiled. B) Children attending private schools are often accused of being slightly spoiled. C) The children attend private schools are often being accused of being slightly spoiled. D) Children attending private schools are often accused to be slightly spoiled.

Q.106

A) She made her children to do their homework. B) She made her children do their homework. C) She made her children to do their homeworks. D) She made her children do their homeworks.

UNIT WISE TESTS 12


Q.107 A) The weather got so bad that we had to turn back. B) The weather got so bad that we had to return back. C) The weather got too bad that we had to turn back. D) The weather got too bad that we had to return back.

Q.108

A) He was not so quick a learner as that of his brother. B) He was not so quick a learner as his brother. C) He was not so quick a learner than his brother. D) He was not as quick learner as his brother.

Q.109

A) Anyone is eligible for the scholarship if they write an essay. B) Anyone is eligible for the scholarship if he writes an essay. C) Anyone is eligible for the scholarship if he or she writes an essay. D) Anyone is eligible for the scholarship if one writes an essay.

Q.110

A) If I had seen the advertisement in time I would have applied for the job. B) If I had seen the advertisement in time I would apply for the job. C) If I saw the advertisement in time I will have applied for the job. D) If I had seen the advertisement in time I will have applied for the job.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word and fill the appropriate Bubble / Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.111 FLOTSAM AND JETSAM

A) Ends and means C) Trials and tribulations

B) Odds and ends D) Rights and duties

Q.112 FARTLEK

A) Shooting star C) Exertion

B) Interval training D) Hump

Q.113 HERCULEAN

A) Onerous C) Sisyphean

B) Facile D) Bullying

Q.114 DECANT

A) Dump C) Implicate

B) Draft D) Devise

Q.115 DROLL

A) Despondent C) Comic

B) Uncouth D) Leisurely

Q.116 FLIBBERTIGIBBET

A) Birdbrain C) Dumbfounded

B) Man of few words D) Wild

UNIT WISE TESTS 13


Q.117 HONE A) Dull C) Gouge B) Develop D) Rust

Q.118 FINAGLE

A) Mangle C) Slant B) Fix D) Wangle

Q.119 EFFECT

A) Pretend C) Thwart B) Accomplish D) Authority

Q.120 COVETED

A) Scorned C) Sought-after B) Secretive D) Bogus

PART IV – BIOLOGY

Q.121 Environmental relations, functions, tissues, heredity and microorganisms are different

areas dealt with by the following branches of biology, respectively A) Ecology, physiology, histology, genetics and microbiology B) Ecology, genetics, physiology, histology and microbiology C) Ecology, histology, physiology, genetics and microbiology D) Ecology, histology, physiology, genetics and microbiology

Q.122 Pick up the macromolecule A) Glucose C) Starch B) Fatty acid D) Water

Q.123 Pick up the sub cellular structure A) Stomach C) Lysosome B) Epithelium D) Gland

Q.124 A cell with limited number and variety of sub cellular structures is A) Muscle cell C) Prokaryotic cell B) Meristematic cell D) Eukaryotic cell

Q.125 An assemblage of various organs in plants and various organ systems in animals, give rise to A) The individual C) Populations B) Organ systems D) Tissues

Q.126 Both short term and long term regulation of activities is carried out by A) Plants and animals C) Endocrine system B) Animals only D) Nervous system and endocrine system

Q.127 Some complex communities are A) Not interrelated C) Well interrelated B) Less interrelated D) Always interrelated

Q.128 Eugenic aims can be achieved by a technology called A) Tissue culture C) Cloning B) Genetic engineering D) Biopesticide

UNIT WISE TESTS 14


Q.129 Genetically identical but carry chromosomes from each of the both parents are A) Fraternal twins C) Clones B) Identical twins D) Both B and C

Q.130 It poses no toxicity problem for human being A) Integrated disease management C) Biological control B) Traditional pest control D) Use of pesticide

Q.131 Centrioles, lysosomes and flagellum are not found A) In plant cells C) In most animal cells B) In most plant cells D) In animal cells

Q.132 Perhaps the most distinctive feature of prokaryotic cell is A) Absence of definite membrane bound nucleus C) Presence of naked chromosome B) Absence of membrane bound organelles D) Its cell wall

Q.133 Fluid mosaic model was the result of A) Failure of unit membrane model B) The discovery that protein layers are not continuous, and are not confined to the surface of the membrane C) The discovery that proteins are not embedded in lipid bilayer in a mosaic manner D) Withdrawal of unit membrane model

Q.134 The uphill movement of material requires A) Active transport C) Energy B) Passive transport D) Facilitated transport

Q.135 In some cells SER is responsible for transmission of impulses e. g. A) Muscle cells C) Both A and B B) Nerve cells D) Skeletal cells

Q.136 Bipolarity of the dividing cell is established by A) Migration of a pair of centrioles to opposite poles of the nucleus B) Migration of two pairs of centrioles to opposite poles of the nucleus C) Division of the centriole pair D) Disappearance of nuclear membrane

Q.137 The most prolonged phase of meiosis is A) Pachytene C) Prophase-I B) Leptotene D) Prophase –II

Q.138 Which one of the following may not occur in female A) Edward’s syndrome C) Metafemale B) Turner’s syndrome D) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Q.139 ___________is followed by ___________in mitosis. A) Cytokinesis, karyokinesis C) Cytogammy,karyogammy B) Karyokinesis, cytokinesis D) Karyogammy, cytogammy

Q.140 Intracellular constituents are released freely in extracellular atmosphere in A) Apoptosis C) In both B) Necrosis D) In benign tumor

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Q.141 Complex substances which utilize water while being broken into monomers are A) Oligosaccharides and polysaccharides C) Proteins, lipids and nucleic acids B) Polysaccharides and proteins D) All of these

Q.142 The order of nucleotides in DNA determine the _________ sequence in __________ A) Nucleotide, gene C) Amino acid, proteins B) Ribonucleotide, mRNA D) Monosaccharide, starch

Q.143 Fats which are liquid at room temperature contain A) Unsaturated fatty acids C) Fatty acids with more carbon atoms B) Saturated fatty acid D) Both A and C

Q.144 It checks the entry of pathogen into plant organs, dehydration and protects the plant surface from abrasive damage, it is A) Wax C) Cutin B) Cuticle D) All of these

Q.145 In ATP phosphate is linked with ____________ carbon of pentose A) 3 C) Both B) 5 D) 1

Q.146 In mRNA the phosphate group is attached with _________ sugar on carbon number_____ A) Ribose, 3 C) Deoxyribose, 3 and 5 B) Ribose, 5 D) Ribose, 3 and 5

Q.147 During transcription, the sequence of ______________is encoded on mRNA A) Template strand C) Coding strand B) Antisense strand D) Coding or sense strand

Q.148 Which one of the following is detachable co-factor A) Activator C) Co-enzyme B) Prosthetic group D) Both A and C

Q.149 At low concentration of substrate, by increasing enzyme concentration rate of enzyme action will be A) Increased C) Decreased B) Doubled D) Not affected at all

Q.150 The optimum pH for catalase falls almost in the midway of that required by A) Arginase C) Pancreatic lipase B) Sucrose D) Chymotrypsin

Q.151 Oral cavity is aided in selection by A) Sight C) Taste B) Smell D) All of these

Q.152 Food is rolled into small oval lump called bolus, as a result of A) Digestion C) Mastication B) Lubrication D) Selection

Q.153 Peptones and polypeptides are yielded in human gut by A) Pepsin in duodenum C) Pepsin in stomach and trypsin in small intestine B) Trypsin in stomach D) Both A and B

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Q.154 Two fifth of the gut consists of

A) Ileum C) Duodenum

B) Jejunum D) None of these

Q.155 The fate of those fats which enter the body cells after being digested are

A) Respiration C) Under the skin

B) Stored in liver and muscle D) All of these

Q.156 Food is held in between teeth by

A) Cheeks C) Palate

B) Tongue D) Mandible

Q.157 The secretion of which one of the following salivary glands lack mucus

A) Parotid glands C) Sub-mandibular glands

B) Sublingual glands D) Sub-maxillary gland

Q.158 Regulation of secretion and motility in stomach and small intestine is carried out by

A) HCl C) Secretin

B) Gastrin D) Both A and B

Q.159 Which one of the following enzymes is not secreted by small intestine

A) Sucrase C) Lactase

B) Maltase D) None of these

Q.160 Which one of the following is associated with protection

A) Mucous cell C) Zymogen cell

B) Goblet cell D) Both A and B

Q.161 Air while passing through the nasal cavity is

A) Moistened C) Warmed

B) Filtered D) All of these

Q.162 The opening of the larynx is called

A) Internal nose C) Pharynx

B) Nostril D) Glottis

Q.163 Air is channelized into larynx through

A) Nasal cavity C) Pharynx

B) Oral cavity D) Nostrils

Q.164 The fully inflated lungs of an adult human being may contain

A) 3.5 liter air C) 5 liter air

B) 4.5 liter air D) 1.5 liter air

Q.165 During exercise the __________ of breathing is increased

A) Rate C) Both A and B

B) Depth D) Randomness

Q.166 Inactivation of inflammation producing substances is carried out by

A) Neutrophil C) Basophil

B) Eosinophil D) Monocyte

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Q.167 Lymphoid masses produce A) Antibodies C) Lymphocytes B) Clotting factors D) Lymph

Q.168 After a fatty meal, the fat globules makeup______ of the lymph A) 1 % C) 3% B) 2 % D) 4%

Q.169 A small proportion of ____________ get dissolved in blood plasma A) Oxygen C) Both A and B B) Carbon dioxide D) Nitrogen

Q.170 Increase in the oxygen carrying capacity of blood takes place by A) Increasing –OH ions in the blood C) Decrease in H+ ion in the blood B) Increasing in the pH of the blood D) All of these

UNIT WISE TESTS 18


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ARK Cumulative Test Series - Weeblyarkmcat2017.weebly.com/uploads/5/8/4/2/58428267/ark_mcat...2 UNIT WISE TESTS University of Health Sciences (UHS), Lahore – ARK Cumulative Test