Answer Booklet Series NDICDS21902 Test No. A INDIAN POLITY

© NATIONAL DEFENCE INSTITUTTE |CDS-II 2019 TEST SERIES | TEST-02 | INDIAN POLITY-1

CDS-II 2019 INDIAN POLITY Test-02 Answer Key with Explanation Booklet

Answer Booklet Series

INDIAN POLITY-I

ANSWER BOOKLET ENGLISH Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 100

CDS-II 2019 TEST SERIES

INDIAN POLITY-I

ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION

CDS-II 2019 INDIAN POLITY Test-02 Answer Key with Explanation Booklet

Test No.

NDICDS21902 A

© NATIONAL DEFENCE INSTITUTTE |CDS-II 2019 TEST SERIES | TEST-02|POLITY-1

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POLITY-1 ANSWER KEY

1 C 21 B 41 A 61 B 81 D

2 D 22 B 42 D 62 C 82 C

3 B 23 C 43 C 63 B 83 D

4 C 24 B 44 D 64 D 84 D

5 A 25 C 45 A 65 A 85 C

6 C 26 B 46 A 66 C 86 A

7 A 27 C 47 A 67 C 87 D

8 D 28 D 48 C 68 A 88 A

9 C 29 B 49 D 69 A 89 B

10 B 30 A 50 A 70 C 90 A

11 C 31 D 51 A 71 A 91 B

12 D 32 A 52 D 72 B 92 D

13 B 33 D 53 D 73 A 93 C

14 A 34 B 54 A 74 C 94 B

15 B 35 D 55 A 75 B 95 D

16 D 36 A 56 C 76 B 96 B

17 A 37 D 57 B 77 D 97 D

18 C 38 C 58 D 78 A 98 D

19 C 39 C 59 D 79 B 99 A

20 D 40 C 60 C 80 C 100 C

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POLITY-1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS

1. Answer: C

Explanation:

Natural Justice is nowhere used in Indian

Constitution although the Constitution has passed

the golden thread of natural justice. The base of

principle of natural justice is to ensure fairness in

social and economical activities of the people and

also shield individual liberty against arbitrary

action. Natural Justice is firmly grounded to Article

14 and 21 of Indian Constitution. Since violation of

natural justice leads to arbitrariness, so violation of

justice is violation of equality.

The principle of natural justice encompasses the

following rules:

1. No one shall be a judge of his/her own cause.

2. No man shall be punished without being heard.

3. An authority shall act bona fide without any bias.

2. Answer: D

Explanation:

Pro-tem is a Latin phrase which translates to ‘for

the time being’ in English and so the Pro-tem

Speaker is a temporary speaker appointed for a

limited period of time to conduct the works in Lok

Sabha or in state legislatures. Pro-tem speaker is

chosen for the conduct of the house when the Lok

Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been

elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy

speaker has not taken place.

A Pro-tem speaker is chosen with the agreement of

the members of the Lok Sabha and legislative

assembly. Usually, the senior-most member of the

house is selected for the post who then carries on

the activities till the permanent speaker is chosen.

Hence, option D. is the correct answer.

3. Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement (1) is incorrect: The National Anthem

of India Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in

Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in

its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as

the National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950.

It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the

Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.

The design of the National Flag was adopted by the

Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.

Statement (2) is correct: On January 24, 1950, the

President, Dr.Rajendra Prasad came up with a

statement in the Constituent Assembly, “the song

Vande Mataram, which has played a historic part in

the struggle for Indian freedom, shall be honoured

equally with Jana Gana Mana and shall have equal

status with it”. The first political occasion when it

was sung was the 1896 session of the Indian

National Congress. The song was a part of

Bankimchandra’s most famous novel Anand Math

(1882).

4. Answer: C

Explanation:

A requirement to summon a joint session can never

arise in the case of Money Bill. Article 368 of the

Indian Constitution requires that Constitution of

India can be amended by both Houses of

Parliament by 2/3rd majority. In case of

disagreement between both houses, there is no

provision to summon the joint session of

Parliament.

Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery

provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock

between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.

A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under






any one of the following three situations after a bill

has been passed by one House and transmitted to

the other House:

1. If the bill is rejected by the other House;

2. If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the

amendments to be made in the bill; or

3. If more than six months have elapsed from the

date of the receipt of the bill by the other House

without the bill being passed by it.

In the above three situations, the president can

summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting

for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the

bill. It must be noted here that the provision of joint

sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial

bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional

amendment bills. In the case of a money bill, the

Lok Sabha has over riding powers, while a

Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by

each House separately.

5. Answer: A

Explanation: Money bill cannot be returned by the

President to the Parliament for its reconsideration,

as it is presented in the Lok Sabha with his

permission. The President may either give or

withhold assent to a Money Bill. Under the

Constitution, a Money Bill cannot be returned to

the House by the President for reconsideration.

There is no question of joint sitting in case of

money bills because opinion of the Rajya Sabha is

immaterial in their case.

6. Answer: C

Explanation:

Cases when a bill does not lapse:

(1) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed

by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.

(2) If the President has notified the holding of a

joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha,

does not lapse.

(3) A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent

of the president does not lapse.

(4) A bill passed by both Houses but returned by

the president for reconsideration of Rajya Sabha

does not lapse.

(5) Some pending bills and all pending assurances

that are to be examined by the Committee on

Government Assurances do not lapse on the

dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

7. Answer: A

Explanation: Scientists of the Vikram Sarabhai

Space Centre (VSSC) celebrated the 50th

anniversary of the successful flight-test of ‘Mrinal.

Mrinal was the Indian space programme’s first

composite solid propellant for launch vehicles. The

propellant was launched from Thumba aboard an

RH-75 sounding rocket on February 21, 1969 by

members of the Propellant Engineering Division

(PED) of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

(VSSC). It was named after Mrinalini 8.Sarabhai

(an Indian classical dancer and wife of the Indian

physicist Vikram Sarabhai). Hence, option A. is the

correct answer.

8. Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct: Andhra Pradesh High

Court is to be the 25th High Court (HC) in the

country. The principal seat of the Andhra Pradesh

High Court is Amaravati, the capital of the State.

According to The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation

Act, 2014, both States were to have a common high

court, till separate ones were formed.

Statement (2) is correct: The institution of high

court originated in India in 1862 when the high

courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and

Madras. In 1866, a fourth high court was

established at Allahabad.

Additional Information:

The Constitution of India (Article 214) provides for

a high court for each state, but the Seventh

Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament






to establish a common high court for two or more

states or for two or more states and a union

territory. The territorial jurisdiction of a high court

is co-terminus with the territory of a state.

Similarly, the territorial jurisdiction of a common

high court is co-terminus with the territories of the

concerned states and union territory. Delhi is the

only union territory that has a high court of its own

(since 1966)

9. Answer: C

Explanation:

As a convention, a vote-on-account is treated as a

formal matter and passed by Lok Sabha without

discussion. But passing for budget happens only

after discussions and voting on demand for grants.

The constitution says that no money can be

withdrawn by the government from the

Consolidated Fund of India except under

appropriation made by law. For that an

appropriation bill is passed during the Budget

process. However, the appropriation bill may take

time to pass through the Parliament and become a

law. Meanwhile, the government would need

permission to spend even a single penny from April

1 when the new financial year starts. Vote on

account is the permission to withdraw money from

the Consolidated Fund of India in that period,

usually two months. Vote on account is a formality

and requires no debate. Hence, option © is the

correct answer.

10. Answer: B

Explanation:

Any law passed by the Parliament or by legislatures

of India can be declared ultra-vires and null and

void by courts in India. Judicial review is a strong

tool to keep a check on public bodies and rendering

their accountability if their decisions or policies go

outside the powers that have been specified in the

Constitution. It maintains effective checks and

balances by controlling unriddled, arbitrary or

unjust acts taken on behalf of the Executive and the

Legislature. In India, we have the supremacy of the

Constitution where the powers of the Parliament

are circumscribed within the four walls set by the

Constitution.

11. Answer: C

Explanation: Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit,

Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been

given status of classical languages. The Criteria

adopted by the Government to determine the

eligibility of a language for granting classical

language status, are as under:

(i) High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history

over a period of 1500-2000 years;

(ii) A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is

considered a valuable heritage by generations of

speakers;

(iii) The literary tradition be original and not

borrowed from another speech community;

(iv) The classical language and literature being

distinct from modern, there may also be a

discontinuity between the classical language and its

later forms or its offshoots.

Proposal for grant of classical status to Marathi

language is under active consideration of the

Government. Himachal Pradesh Assembly recently

passed the Himachal Pradesh Official Language

(Amendment) Bill 2019 to make Sanskrit as the

second official language of the state. The first

official language of Himachal is Hindi. Hence,

option C is the correct answer.

12. Answer: D

Explanation:

Quasi-judicial bodies are institutions which have

powers analogous to that of the law imposing

bodies but these are not courts. They primarily

oversee the administrative zones. The courts have

the power to supervise over all types of disputes but

the quasi-judicial bodies are the ones with the






powers of imposing laws on administrative

agencies. All the above are quasi-judicial bodies.

13. Answer: B

Explanation: The President is elected by an

Electoral College, which consists of the elected

members of both Houses of Parliament and the

elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of

all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the

Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the

Constitution of India]. As Chairman of Rajya

Sabha, the Vice-President of India is not the

member of either of the houses, so he cannot

participate in the election of President of India. The

Speaker is an elected member of the Lok Sabha.

Hence he has the right to vote in the Presidential

election. Lieutenant Governor of Delhi does not

participate in election of President.

14. Answer: A

Explanation: Tharu tribes are found in West Tarai

region of Himalaya (Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh

and Bihar). Buksaare found in Uttarakhand and

Uttar Pradesh. Kharwar is a community and caste

found in the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,

Jharkhand, West Bengal, Orissa, Gujarat,

Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Delhi and Chhattisgarh.

Hence, option A. is the correct answer.

15. Answer: B

Explanation: The SCO is a permanent

intergovernmental international organization. It is

a Eurasian political, economic, and security

alliance and has been the primary security pillar of

the region. India became a full member of the SCO

in 2017. It was established in 2001. It was preceded

by the Shanghai Five mechanism. The Heads of

State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-

making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and

adopts decisions and guidelines on all important

matters of the organization. The organization has

two permanent bodies: the SCO Secretariat based

in Beijing. The Executive Committee of the

Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in

Tashkent.

Membership: Eight member states: India,

Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia,

Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Four observer states:

Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia. Hence

option B. is the correct answer.

16. Answer: D

Explanation:

Indian Councils Act 1891 introduced an element

of election for the first time. Some of the additional

members of Imperial Legislative council and

Provincial Legislative Councils could be indirectly

elected.

Indian Councils Act 1909 enlarged the size of the

Provincial Councils by including elected non-

official members so that the official majority was

gone. An element of election was introduced in the

Legislative Council at the Centre but the official

majority was maintained.

Government of India Act 1919 – It made Indian

legislature more representative and bi-cameral for

the first time. It was to have an Upper House –

Council of States – composed of 60 members (of

whom 34 were elected) and a Lower House –

Legislative Assembly – composed of 144 members

(of whom 104 were elected).

Government of India Act 1935 – It introduced

diarchy at the centre. Governor General’s functions

were divided into two groups –






(1)Administration of defence, external affairs,

ecclesiastical affairs and of tribal affairs was to be

done by governor general in his discretion with the

help of ‘counsellors’, appointed by him, who were

not responsible to the legislature.

(2)Regarding matters other than the above reserved

subjects, the governor general was to act on the

advice of ‘council of ministers’ who were

responsible to the legislature.

17. Answer: A

Explanation: Pinaka is a Multi-Barrel Rocket

System to supplement the existing artillery gun at

ranges beyond 30 kilometres to make precision

hits. The guided weapon system is equipped with

state-of-the-art guidance kit comprising of an

advanced navigation and control system. It is

produced in India and developed by the Defence

Research and Development Organisation for the

Indian Army. Hence, option A. is the correct

answer.

SPICE, which stands for Smart, Precise Impact and

Cost-Effective, is a guidance and manoeuvring kit

manufactured by Israel’s Rafael. The SPICE turns

a conventional ‘gravity’ bomb into a sophisticated

long-range munition.

18. Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct: UDAN is an acronym for

“UdeDeshKaAamNagrik”. It is a Regional Air

Connectivity Scheme (RCS) which attempts to

connect smaller towns with bigger cities to develop

the regional aviation market. The scheme provides

VGF for operators who cap fares on regional flights

at ₹2,500 for one hour of flying. Under UDAN-III,

13 airports to get air connectivity for first time.

These include Kalaburagi, Amravati, Car Nicobar

and Kalaikunda. The Airports Authority of India is

the implementing authority.

Statement (2) is correct: Key Features of UDAN

3 included –Inclusion of Seaplanes for connecting

Water Aerodromes, Inclusion of Tourism Routes

suggested by the Ministry of Tourism and Bringing

in a number of routes in the North-East Region

under the ambit of UDAN.

19. Answer: C

Explanation:

The ideals of Liberty, Equality and fraternity and

the ideal of Republic have been brought from

French Constitution.

The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints

on the activities of individuals, and at the same

time, providing opportunities for the development

of individual personalities.

The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special

privileges to any section of the society, and the

provision of adequate opportunities for all

individuals without any discrimination.

The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure

two things—the dignity of the individual and the

unity and integrity of the nation.

The ideal of justice—social, economic and

political—has been taken from the Russian

Revolution (1917). The term ‘justice’ in the

Preamble embraces three distinct forms—social,

economic and political, secured through various

provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive

Principles. Hence, option C is the correct answer.

20. Answer: D

Explanation: There should be an Election

commission for the “superintendence, direction

and control of elections” according to Article 324

of the Constitution. The Election Commission

should consist of the Chief Election Commissioner

and any such number of other Election

Commissioners, as the President may from time to

time fix.






Statement 1 is incorrect: From 1950 until 1989, the

ECI was a single-member body, with only a Chief

Election Commissioner (CEC). Since 1991, it has

continuously been a three member body.

Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Transaction of

Business provisions of the EC Act, if there is any

difference in the opinion, the decision shall be

taken based on the majority view.

Statement 3 is incorrect: From 1991 to 1993, the

retiring age for CEC was fixed at 65 years and for

other ECs at 62 years but according to the

amendment in the Election Commission

(Conditions of Service) Act, 1991, the retiring age

for all the members of ECI has been fixed at 65

years since 1993.

21. Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:

Only three subjects are prohibited from

government access – and ‘services’ is not one of

them. Entry 41 of the State List contains the subject

of ‘services’. The Constitution provides for the

clear responsibility of this to the Delhi government.

Under the Government of National Capital

Territory of Delhi (GNCT) Act, 1991; Section 41,

only those matters outside the purview of the

government can be taken up by the Lieutenant

Governor (LG) and services is not one of them.

Statement 2 is correct:

Article 239:

(1) Delhi, although a Union Territory, is not

administered by the President acting through the

Lieutenant Governor (LG) under Article 239.

(2) It is administered under Article 239 AA which

was incorporated in the Constitution of India in

1992. It created a “special” constitutional set up for

Delhi.

(3) It has provisions for popularly elected

Legislative Assembly, a Council of Ministers

responsible to the Legislative Assembly and a

certain demarcation of responsibilities between the

LG and the Council of Ministers.

(4) As per Article 239 AA (3) A., the Delhi

Legislative Assembly can legislate on all those

matters listed in the State List and Concurrent List

as are applicable to the Union Territories.

(5) The public order, police and land are reserved

for the Lieutenant Governor (LG).

22. Answer: B

Explanation:

The government is a major litigant and it is a party

to about 46% of the 13.4 crore cases pending in

various courts in the country, ranging from service

matters to indirect taxes.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Legal Information

Management & Briefing System (LIMBS) is one of

the progressive steps taken by the Ministry of Law

and Justice in the direction of digital India. It is

based on the objective of achieving ‘minimum

government and maximum governance.

Statement 2 is correct: LIMBS helps in reducing

government litigations; reduces the financial

burden, saves time and brings efficiency and

introduces not only transparency but also a sense of

ownership among various stakeholders during the

life cycle of a court case.

Value Addition:

Advantages of LIMBS:

i. Organizing otherwise scattered Information

at one single database and also create a

professional base available for expert

advice

ii. A low cost web technology access to all the

stakeholders involved in a court case in a

coordinated way whereby it provides inputs

which are available seamlessly on 24×7

basis as per the defined access rules.

iii. In this way it is possible to know the various

stages of a case and monitor its progress on

a continued basis through an elaborate set

of user-friendly reports.






iv. It will help authorities to take ‘data driven

decision making’ and to evaluate the

performance of various stake holders and to

conduct a legal audit.

23. Answer: C

Explanation:

Aadhaar:

The recent Supreme Court verdict:

i. The Supreme Court has struck down

Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, hence

private companies can no longer ask for a

consumer's Aadhaar details. Hence,

statement 1 is correct.

ii. Sharing of data with the specially

authorized officers in interest of national

security is not validated by the verdict. The

apex court asked the Central government to

introduce a strong data protection law as

soon as possible to deal with the matter of

data sharing. Hence, statement 2 is

incorrect.

iii. The linkage of Aadhaar and Permanent

Account Number (PAN) remains

mandatory. PAN is a 10-digit alphanumeric

number issued to Assessee by the Income

Tax Department and is mandatory for filing

income tax returns. Hence, statement 3 is

correct.

Additional Information:

i. The need to link Customers bank account

with the Aadhaar number has been done

away with.

ii. Users no longer need to produce their

Aadhaar number for procuring the SIM

cards

iii. The 12-digit unique identification number

need not be produced at the time of school

admissions or enrolment in exams of

NEET, CBSE and UGC The apex court also

asserted that the Aadhaar card will not be

provided to illegal migrants.

24. Answer: B

Explanation:

i. The International Criminal Court (ICC) is

the world’s first intergovernmental legal

body with permanent international

jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for

genocide, crimes against humanity and war

crimes.

ii. It is based in the Hague, Netherlands. India

is not a member of the ICC. US signed the

treaty (Rome Statute) in 2000 but never

ratified it, citing concerns over sovereignty,

similarly is the case with Russia. Israel

signed it for a short period but also never

ratified it into law. China has not signed it.

iii. The ICC has jurisdiction to prosecute

individuals and is independent of United

Nations (UN). But it may receive case

referrals from the UN Security Council and

can initiate prosecutions without UN action

or referral.

iv. Malaysia has ratified the Rome Statute

making it the 124th State party to the

International Criminal Court (ICC).

Philippines announced to withdraw from

International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reason of

international bias.

25. Answer: C

Explanation:

i. The UPSC consists of a Chairman and other

members appointed by the President of

India.

ii. The Constitution, without specifying the

strength of the Commission has left the

matter to the discretion of the President,

who determines its composition.

iii. Usually, the Commission consists of nine to

eleven members including the Chairman.

iv. Further, no qualifications are prescribed for

the Commission’s membership except that

one-half of the members of the Commission






should be such persons who have held

office for at least ten years either under the

Government of India or under the

government of a State.

v. The Constitution also authorises the

President to determine the conditions of

service of the Chairman and other members

of the Commission.

vi. The entire expenses of the UPSC are

charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.

Hence, the correct answer is option C.

26. Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The North Eastern

Council (NEC) is not a constitutional body, but a

statutory organization established under the North

Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in 2002.

Statement 2 is correct: Initially, the NEC was an

Advisory Body for the North Eastern Region

(NER). Now, the NEC is mandated to function as a

Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern

Region. The Council comprises Governors and

Chief Ministers of constituent States and three

members nominated by the President.

Statement 3 is incorrect: It operates under the

Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region

(DoNER).

27. Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Always being connected

has been taking a toll on workers the world over,

studies show. Various studies found that even if

workers aren’t actively checking work emails after

hours, they can still be harmed by the expectation

that they should be available. It has been found that

that this kind of “always on” work culture creates

anxiety amongst workers.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Article 7 of the

Right to Disconnect Bill says that: Every employee

shall have the right to disconnect out of work hours.

However the 'right to disconnect' means that while

the employer may contact the worker after work

hours, the employee is not obliged to reply or shall

have right to refuse to answer such calls; and B. In

case an employee refuses to reply any call during

out-of-work hours, such employee shall not be

subject to any disciplinary action by the employer

Statement 3 is correct: In Bandhua Mukti Morcha

v. Union of India characterizing Article 21 of the

Indian Constitution as the heart of fundamental

rights, the Court gave it an expanded interpretation.

Bhagwati J. observed: “It is the fundamental right

of everyone in this country… to live with human

dignity free from exploitation. This right to live

with human dignity enshrined in Article 21 derives

its life breath from the Directive Principles of State

Policy and particularly clauses (e) and (f) of Article

39 and Articles 41 and 42 of the Constitution of

India.

28. Answer: D

Explanation:

All the pairs given above are matched correctly.

Port Trust: These are established in the port areas

for two purposes: A. to manage and protect ports;

and B. to provide civic amenities. A port trust is

created by an Act of Parliament. It consists of both

elected and nominated members.

Town Area Committee: A town area committee is

set up for the administration of a small town. It is a

semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a

limited number of civic functions like drainage,

roads, etc. It is created by a separate act of the State

Legislature.

Special Purpose Agency: The state have set up

certain agencies to undertake designated activities

or specific functions that legitimately belong to the






domain of municipal corporations or municipalities

or other local urban governments. These are

function based and not area based.

29. Answer: B

Explanation:

Various Law Commissions have been able to make

important contribution towards the progressive

development and codification of laws of the

country. Law Commissions have so far submitted

262 reports.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Law Commission of

India is a non-statutory body constituted by the

Government of India from time to time. The Law

Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and

is re-constituted very three years.

Statement 2 is correct: Cabinet gave approval to

constitute the 21st Law Commission of India for a

period of 3 years (2015-2018). The tenure of the

20th Law Commission was upto 31st August, 2015.

Statement 3 is correct: The Law Commission of

India is an advisory body whose recommendations

are not binding on the government.

Composition

i. A full-time Chairperson;

ii. four full-time Members (including a

Member-Secretary);

iii. Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as

ex officio Member;

iv. Secretary, Legislative Department as ex

officio Member; and

v. Not more than five part-time Members.

Functions

i. Undertake research in law and review of

existing laws in India for making reforms

therein and enacting new legislations.

ii. Undertake studies and research for bringing

reforms in the justice delivery systems for

elimination of delay in procedures, speedy

disposal of cases, reduction in cost of

litigation etc.

iii. Identify laws which are no longer relevant

and recommend for the repeal of obsolete

and unnecessary enactments.

iv. Suggest enactment of new legislations as

may be necessary to implement the

Directive Principles and to attain the

objectives set out in the Preamble of the

Constitution.

Prepare and submit to the Central Government,

from time to time, reports on all issues, matters,

studies and research undertaken by it and

recommend in such reports for effective measures

to be taken by the Union or any State.

30. Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Sikkim Government has

launched 'One Family, One Job' scheme that

envisions employment to a member of every family

which does not have a government job in the State.

Under the scheme the temporary/ad hoc

appointments being given now would be

regularised over the next five years, and all of them

would become permanent government employees.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Article 16 of the

Indian Constitution states that “There shall be

equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters

relating to employment or appointment to any

office under the State”. However clause 4 of the

same Article also empowers the state to make

provisions for the reservation of appointments or

posts in favour of any backward class of citizens

which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately

represented in the services under the State. At the

same time the Supreme Court has also observed

that in its ordinary connotation the expression

'class' means a homogenous section of the people

grouped together because of certain likenesses or

common traits, and who are identifiable by some

common attributes such as status, rank, occupation,






residence in a locality, race religion and the like".

Thus, the scheme is not a violation of Article 16.

31. Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to the

Constitution of India, Article 356 deals with the

failure of Constitutional machinery, the

government of the State will not be functional and

the State will come under the direct control of the

Central/Union government through the Governor.

Statement 2 is correct: During the State

Emergency also, the President takes over the work

of the State through the Governor. Until the point

of time when the President's rule is in effect, the

Parliament makes laws on the 66 subjects made on

the State list. The money bills of the State are also

approved by the Parliament during this time.

Statement 3 is correct. When the President's rule

is imposed, the assembly either is dissolved or is

suspended for the time by the President. The State

government comes under the direct control of the

Centre with the executive authority being shifted to

the Governor (As an agent of the Centre) from the

Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.

32. Answer: A

Explanation:

World's longest salt cave' has been recently

discovered in Israel. Malham Cave in the Negev

Desert is the longest salt cave in the world,

measuring more than 10 kilometres in total length.

The 10 km of passages and chambers inside

Malham Cave, overlooking the Dead Sea, were

mapped out over two years.

33. Answer: D

Explanation:

Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the first anti-

corruption ombudsman of the country. Hence,

statement 1 is correct.

The Lokpal act provides for a Chairperson and a

maximum of eight members in the Lokpal panel

and of these, four need to be judicial members.

Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The Chairperson and members will hold office for

a term of five years or till they attain 70 years of

age. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to the Prime

Minister, Ministers, current and former Members

of Parliament and Members of the Legislative

Assemblies, government employees and

employees of companies funded or controlled by

the Central or State government. Hence, statement

4 is correct.

34. Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The guarantee of equal

justice is meaningless if the poor or illiterate or

weak persons cannot enforce their rights because of

their poverty or illiteracy or weakness. It is

provided in both: the Preamble and the Directive

Principles of the State Policy.

Preamble: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having

solemnly resolved to constitute India into a

SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR

DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its

citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political

etc.

Directive Principles of the State Policy

i) Articles 38 and 39 of the Constitution of India

lay down clear mandate in this regard. According

to Article 38 (1) the State shall strive to promote

the welfare of the people by securing and protecting

as effectively as it may a social order in which

justice, social, economic or political, shall inform

all the institutions of the national life.

ii) Article 39-A directs the State to ensure that the

operation of the legal system promotes justice on a

basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular,

provide free legal aid by suitable legislation or

schemes or in any other way, to ensure that






opportunities for securing justice are not denied to

any citizen by reason of economic or other

disabilities.

Statement 2 is correct: Key functions of the

NDIAC will include:

(i) Facilitating conduct of arbitration and

conciliation in a professional, timely and cost-

effective manner; and

(ii) promoting studies in the field of alternative

dispute resolution. These are supposed to have a

bearing on Right to Justice.

35. Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Prohibition of traffic in

human beings and forced labour (1) Traffic in

human beings and begar and other similar forms of

forced labour are prohibited and any contravention

of this provision shall be an offence punishable in

accordance with law (2) Nothing in this article shall

prevent the State from imposing compulsory

service for public purpose, and in imposing such

service the State shall not make any discrimination

on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or

any of them

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central

Government is already implementing Unorganized

Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008, to provide

social security relating to life and disability cover,

health and maternity benefits, old age protection to

the unorganized workers including domestic

workers.

36. Answer: A

Explanation:

• DRDO-developed A-SAT system successfully

destroyed a live satellite in the Low Earth Orbit.

Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• India is only the fourth country after the U.S.,

Russia and China to have the A-SAT technology.

Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

• Mission Shakti does not violate the 1967 Outer

Space Treaty of which India is a signatory. The

treaty prohibits only weapons of mass destruction

in outer space, not ordinary weapons. Hence,

Statement 3 is incorrect.

• The ASAT test was not directed against any

country. India’s space capabilities neither threaten

any country nor are they directed against anyone.

But as an added advantage the capability achieved

through the anti-satellite missile test provides

credible deterrence against threats to our growing

space-based assets from long-range missiles and

proliferation in the types and numbers of missiles.

Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.

37. Answer: D

Explanation:

(1) Closure motion: Closure is one of the means

by which debate may be brought to an end by a

majority decision of the House, even though all

Members wishing to speak have not done so. At

any time after a motion has been made, any

member may move "That the question is now put".

Such a motion is generally made at the conclusion

of a speech but also at times whilst a member is

addressing the House.

(2) Privilege motion: A privilege motion is moved

against a breach of parliamentary privileges.

Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and

immunities enjoyed by MPs, MLAs, and MLCs,

individually and collectively, so that they can

effectively discharge their functions. When any of

these rights and immunities is disregarded, the

offense is called a breach of privilege and is

punishable under the law of Parliament or the state

legislature.

(3) Adjournment motion: At the end of the

question-hour in the Parliament, motion moved by

a member when it is desired to draw the attention

of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a

definite matter of urgent public importance.






(4) Censure motion: A motion which seeks to

censure the government for its “lapse”. If the

motion is passed in the Popular House, the Cabinet

resigns. A censure means an expression of strong

disapproval or harsh criticism. It can be a stern

rebuke by a legislature, generally opposition

against the policies of Government or an individual

minister.

38. Answer: C

Explanation:

Article 248 of the Indian Constitution vests the

residuary powers in the Parliament. It says that

Parliament has exclusive power to make any law

with respect to any matter not enumerated in the

Concurrent List or the State List. Entry 97 in the

Union List also lay down that the Parliament has

exclusive power to make laws with respect to any

matter not mentioned in the State List or the

Concurrent List including any tax not mentioned in

either of these Lists.

Point (1) is correct: Decisions of the High Courts

were approved by the Supreme Court in Second

Gift Tax Officer, Mangalore v. D. H. Nazareth. The

Supreme Court had held that the Gift Tax Act was

enacted by the Parliament and no Entry in the

Union List and State List mentions such a tax.

Therefore, Parliament purported to use its powers

derived from Entry 97 of the Union List read with

Article 248 of the Constitution. There is no other

entry which covers the gift tax, the residuary

powers of Parliament were exercised to enact the

law.

Point (2) is correct: The Andhra Pradesh High

Court upheld the validity of Expenditure Tax Act,

1957 as expenditure tax which was not specifically

provided for in any of the entries in List II or List

III, was within the ambit or scope of entry 97 of

List I. So long as it was a tax on expenditure, the

mere fact that in furtherance of the legislative intent

and object, the expenditure on which the tax was

sought to be levied was not necessarily confined to

the expenditure actually incurred by the assesses

himself (in this case it had included the expenditure

of his wife) did not render it other than an

expenditure tax. On appeal, the Supreme Court

upheld the validity of the Expenditure Tax Act,

1957 on the ground that it did not fall within entry

62 List II, but under the residuary powers.

Point (3) is correct: In Jaora Sugar Mills v. the

State of M.P, the validity of the central legislation

was questioned. Gajendragadker C. J., delivering

the judgment of the Supreme Court held that

section 3 of the Central Act did not merely validate

the invalid State Acts, because it would not have

been competent for Parliament to confer

jurisdiction on State Legislatures in that way, but

had included all the States and Notifications in the

Central Act at all material times by virtue of section

3. Parliament had the power to levy the cess as had

been levied in the invalid State Acts, under Article

248 read with entry 97 of the List I.

Point (4) is incorrect: Entertainment tax is a type of

tax which is levied by the government on

entertainment aspects like movie tickets, large

scale commercial shows, and other private festival

celebrations. The authorities responsible for the

collection of entertainment tax from customers are

the State governments.

39. Answer: C

Explanation:

Contempt of the House may be defined generally

as "any act or omission which obstructs or impedes

either House of Parliament in the performance of

its functions, or which obstructs or impedes any

Member or officer of such House in the discharge

of his duty, or which has a tendency directly or

indirectly, to produce such results." It may be stated

that it is not possible to enumerate exhaustively

every act which might be construed by the House

as a contempt of the House.

Options A., B. and D. are correct:






• Intimidation of Members in connection with their

Parliamentary conduct;

• Giving false or misleading evidence or

information deliberately to the House or a

Committee thereof, by a Member or a witness.

• Obstructing or molesting any witness during his

evidence before a Committee of the House.

Option C. is incorrect: To prohibit the publication

of its debates and proceedings comes under the

powers necessary for the protection of its privileges

and immunities to each House of Parliament

members.

Value Addition: Some of the other important types

of contempt of Parliament are:-

• Speeches or writings reflecting on the House, its

Committees or members;

• Reflections on the character and impartiality of

the Chairman/Speaker in the discharge of his duty;

• Publication of false or distorted report of the

Proceedings of the house;

• Publication oil expunged proceedings of the

House;

• Publication of proceedings of Secret Sessions of

the House;

• Pre-mature publication of proceedings, evidence

or report of a Parliamentary Committee;

• Reflections on the report of a Parliamentary

Committee;

• Molestation of Members on account of their

conduct in the House or obstructing Members

while in the performance of their duties as

Members or while on their way to or coming after,

attending the House or a Committee thereof;

• Offering bribes to Members to influence them in

their Parliamentary conduct;

• Any misconduct or undignified behaviour on the

part of a Member, such as corruption in the

execution of his office as Member, disorderly and

undignified conduct contrary to the usage or

inconsistent with accepted standards of

Parliamentary conduct;

• Obstructing or molesting officers of the House in

the discharge of their duties;

40. Answer: C

Explanation:

• The World Happiness Report is released by the

United Nations Sustainable Development

Solutions Network. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Report ranks countries on six key variables

that support well-being: income, freedom, trust,

healthy life expectancy, social support and

generosity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• India has witnessed a sustained drop with a 140th

place this year compared with the 133rd place in

2018. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Finland topped the index of for the second year in

a row. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

41. Answer: A

Explanation:

When the bill is sent to the Governor after it is

passed by the State Legislature, he can

a) Give his assent

b) Withhold his assent

c) Return the bill (if it’s not a money bill) for

reconsideration of the state legislature

d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the

President. In one case such reservation is

obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state

legislature endangers the position of the state high

court. In addition, the Governor can also reserve the

bill if it is of the following nature:

• Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the

Constitution

• Opposed to the Directive Principles of State

Policy

• Against the larger interest of the country

• Of grave national importance

• Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property

under Article 31A of the Constitution






42. Answer: D

Explanation:

The Electoral Bond Scheme was launched in an

attempt to “cleanse the system of political funding

in the country.” A donor may buy an electoral bond

at specified banks and branches using electronic

modes of payment and after having completed the

KYC (know your customer) requirements. The

political party will have to deposit the encashed

money in a bank account it has informed the

Election Commission about.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The bonds are available

at specified branches of the State Bank of India

(SBI) for 10 days each in the months designated by

the government from time to time.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The bonds may be

bought for any value, in multiples of ₹1,000,

₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh or ₹1 crore. The State

Bank of India issued a whopping ₹1,716 crore in

electoral bonds in just two months of 2019. The

RTI replies say electoral bonds worth ₹495.6 crore

were sold in Mumbai in 2019, which is the largest

share (28.9%) of the total amount sold

43. Answer: C

Explanation:

Public Account of India funds being managed by

the Government is a perpetual source of distortion

in our public finances. It is time to separate all

Public Account funds from the cash balances of the

Government and entrust their management to

professional trusts free from Government control.

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 266,

all other public money received by or on behalf of

the Government of India or the Government of a

State shall be entitled to the Public Account of

India or the Public Account of the State.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Part XII of the Indian

Constitution deals with the government finance

which is organized under three funds. Under article

266(1), all revenues received by the Government of

India or any state, all loans raised by the issue of

treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances

and all money received by the Government in

repayment of loans shall form the Consolidated

Fund of India.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Public Account, which

does not involve revenues or debt of the

Governments but other public money that does not

belong to the Government as such. Thus there is no

legislative control over the use of funds from the

Public Account, and it is this lack of legislative

control that makes the article 266(2) somewhat

intriguing, and this is what also makes it vulnerable

to misuse and subject to many aberrations in our

financial system.

44. Answer: D

Explanation:

According to Article 240 of the Constitution, the

President of India has the power to make

regulations for certain UTs. UTs covered:

(1) the Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(2) Lakshadweep

(3) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(4) Daman and Diu and

(5) Pondicherry.

The regulations could be for peace, progress and

good government of the UT. The regulation made

by the President may “repeal or amend any Act

made by Parliament or any other law which is for

the time being applicable to the UT.” When the

regulation is announced by the President, it has

the same effect as an Act of Parliament.

Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the

Promulgation of:

i) The Daman and Diu Civil Courts (Amendment)

Regulation, 2019

ii) The Dadra and Nagar Haveli (Civil Courts and

Miscellaneous Provisions) Amendment

Regulation, 2019 under Article 240 of the






Constitution. The president of India, in exercise of

his powers under clause (1) of article 239 of the

Constitution of India, appointed the administrator

of union territory of Chandigarh to exercise the

powers and discharge those functions of the central

government. Hence, option D. is the correct

answer.

45. Answer: A

Explanation:

The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for

accession of India to the Nice, Vienna and

Locarno Agreements.

Statement (1) is incorrect: The Nice Agreement is

on the International classification of goods and

services for the purposes of registration of marks.

Statement (2) is correct: The Locarno Agreement

is for establishing an International classification

for industrial designs.

Statement (3) is incorrect: The Vienna Agreement

is for setting up an International classification of

the figurative elements of marks.

Accession to the Agreements will help the

Intellectual Property Office (IPO) in India to

harmonise the classification systems for

examinational of trademark and design

applications, in line with the classification systems

followed globally. It will also give an opportunity

to include Indian designs, figurative elements and

goods in the international classification systems

and instill confidence in foreign investors in

relation to protection of IPs in India. It will also

facilitate in exercising rights in decision making

processes regarding review and revision of the

classifications under the agreement.

46. Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya

Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP)’s objective is to

make available quality generic medicines at

affordable prices to all.

Statement (2) is incorrect: It is implemented by

Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI), under

the administrative control of the Department of

Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals &

Fertilizers, Government of India.

Jan Aushadhi Scheme was launched by the

Department of Pharmaceuticals in 2008 across the

country. In 2016, it was again renamed as Pradhan

Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana

(PMBJP).7th March 2019 was celebrated as

‘Janaushadhi Diwas’ across India for creating

awareness about use of generic medicines.

47. Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct: Accelerating Growth of

New India’s Innovations or AGNIi is a national

initiative of the Government of India that aims to

support the ongoing efforts to boost the innovation

ecosystem in the country by connecting innovators

across industry, individuals and the grassroots to

the market and helping commercialise their

innovative solutions. It will provide a platform for

innovators to bring their market ready products

and solutions to industry thereby helping propel

India into a new era of inclusive economic

growth.

Statement (2) is incorrect: It is an initiative under

the guidance and support of the Principal Scientific

Adviser to the Government of India. The Prime

Minister’s Science, Technology and Innovation

Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) has recently

launched nine mission of national importance,

including those on artificial intelligence, quantum

computing, electric vehicles and deep ocean

exploration.

48. Answer: C

Explanation:

The Supreme Court ruled that Right to Self-

Defence extends not only to one’s own body but

also to protecting the person and property of






another. The right also embraces the protection of

property, whether one’s own or another person’s,

against certain specified offences, namely, theft,

robbery, mischief and criminal trespass”. Indian

Penal Code (IPC) Section 96 to 106 of the penal

code states the law relating to the right of private

defence of person and property. Section 97 says

that the right of private defence is of 2 types: (i)

Right of private defence of body, (ii) Right of

private defence of property.

Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived

of his life or personal liberty except according to

procedure established by law. This right is

available to both citizens and non-citizens. The

Supreme Court has declared the following rights as

part of Article 21: Right to shelter, Right to

reputation, Right to freedom from noise pollution,

Right to sleep Right against bonded labour, Right

against custodial harassment, Right to emergency

medical aid etc. Hence, option C. is the correct

answer.

49. Answer: D

Explanation:

According to the latest annual breakdown of

patent filings released by the World Intellectual

Property Organization (WIPO), more than half of

all international patent applications filed last year

came from Asia. The World Intellectual Property

Organization is one of the 15 specialized agencies

of the United Nations. WIPO was created in

1967"to encourage creative activity, to promote

the protection of intellectual property throughout

the world".

Pair (1) is correctly matched: A patent safeguards

an original invention for a certain period of time.

It is granted by the Government to a

company/individual for an invention.

Pair (2) is correctly matched: Unlike patents, a

trademark protects words and design elements that

identify the source of a product. Brand names and

corporate logos are primary examples. A service

mark is similar, except that it safeguards the

provider of a service instead of a tangible good.

The term “trademark” is often used in reference to

both designations.

Pair (3) is correctly matched: Copyright law

primarily protects original expression in literary,

dramatic, musical and artistic “works”. For as long

as the copyright is in effect, the copyright owner

has the sole right to display, share, perform or

license the material. One notable exception is the

“fair use” doctrine, which allows some degree of

distribution of copyrighted material for scholarly,

educational or news-reporting purposes. Hence,

option D. is the correct answer.

50. Answer: A

Explanation:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently

launched One Nation, One Card for transport

mobility. The Indigenous Automatic Fare

Collection System based on One Nation One Card

Model i.e. National Common Mobility Card

(NCMC) is the first of its kind in India. India’s

First Indigenously Developed Payment Eco-

system for transport consisting of NCMC Card,

SWEEKAR (Swachalit Kiraya: Automatic Fare

Collection System) and SWAGAT (Swachalit

Gate) is based on NCMC Standards. The customer

may use this single card for payments across all

segments including metro, bus, suburban railways,

toll, parking, smart city and retail.

The stored value on card supports offline

transaction across all travel needs with minimal

financial risk. The service area feature of this card

supports operator specific applications such as

monthly passes, season tickets etc. It has been

implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing &

Urban Affairs. National Payments Corporation of

India (NPCI) has been entrusted to prepare the

standards & specifications of the National

Common Mobility Card (NCMC). Centre for






Development of Advance Computing (C-DAC)

was entrusted the task of finalization of NCMC

specification for AFC system. Hence, option A. is

the correct answer.

51. Answer: A

Explanation:

Pair (1) is correctly matched: A genetic mutation

known as CCR5-delta 32 is responsible for the

two types of HIV resistance that exist. CCR5-delta

32 hampers HIV's ability to infiltrate immune

cells. The mutation causes the CCR5 co-receptor

on the outside of cells to develop smaller than

usual and no longer sit outside of the cell. Various

mutations of the CCR5 gene are known that result

in damage to the expressed receptor. One of the

mutant forms of the gene is CCR5-delta 32, which

results from deletion of a particular sequence of

32 base-pairs.

Pair (2) is correctly matched: CRISPR-Cas9 is a

genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the

science world. It is faster, cheaper and more

accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA

and has a wide range of potential applications.

Pair (3) is correctly matched: India to Get High-

Performing BullSequana Supercomputers worth Rs

4,500 Crore from France. Atos, a global leader in

digital transformation, announced the installation

of its first supercomputer in India. The

BullSequana, which is the first supercomputer to be

installed as part of the Indian Government’s

National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), was

officially inaugurated at IIT-BHU in Varanasi by

the Prime Minister of India recently.

52. Answer: D

Explanation:

Six Scorpene class submarines are being built

under Project 75. The submarines are designed by

French naval defence and energy group DCNS

and manufactured by the Mazagon Dock

Shipbuilders Limited (MDSL), Mumbai under a

2005 contract worth $3.75 billion.

(i) INS Kalvari: It was commissioned in

December 2017.

(ii) INS Khanderi: It was launched in January

2017, is currently undergoing series of trials and is

expected to be commissioned by May 2019.

(iii) INS Karanj: It was launched on 31 st January

2018.

(iv) INS Vela: It was launched in May 2019.

(v) INS Vagir and Vagsheer: The remaining two

submarines are in the series are in advanced stages

of manufacturing and trials.

The entire project is expected to be completed by

2020. The fifth submarine Vagir, is in the final

stages of being booted together. The ‘Boot

Together’ is where the five separate sections are

welded together to form the submarine. INS

Vikrant is the first aircraft carrier built in India and

the first aircraft carrier built by Cochin Shipyard in

Kochi for the Indian Navy. Hence option D. is

correct.

53. Answer: D

Explanation:

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 allows for

setting up of anti-corruption ombudsman called

Lokpal at the Centre. A Lokayukta is to be

appointed in every state within one year of the

passing of the Act (but several states are yet to

appoint such an institution).






Selection procedure of Lokpal: The five-member

selection committee comprises the following –

Prime Minister (chairperson), Lok Sabha Speaker,

Leader of the Opposition, Chief Justice of India and

an eminent jurist nominated by the President. The

Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a

maximum of eight members. Chairperson should

have been a Chief Justice of India, or is or has been

a judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person

who fulfils eligibility criteria as specified. 50% of

the members are to be judicial members, provided

that not less than 50% of the members belong to the

Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, OBCs,

minorities, and women. Hence, option D. is the

correct answer.

54. Answer: A

Explanation:

Interpol is ‘NOT’ a unit or part of united nation

system. It is an independent international

organization. It issues 8 types of notices (7 of

which are colour-coded) which are in the form of

alert/requests allowing police in member countries

to share critical crime-related information.

1. Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of a

person wanted by a judicial jurisdiction or an

international tribunal with a view to his/her

extradition. It is the ‘closest instrument to an

international arrest warrant’.

2. Blue Notice: To locate, identify or obtain

information on a person of interest in a criminal

investigation.

3. Green Notice: To warn about a person’s

criminal activities if that person is considered to

be a possible threat to public safety.

4. Yellow Notice: To locate a missing person or to

identify a person unable to identify

himself/herself.

5. Black Notice: To seek information on

unidentified bodies.

6. Orange Notice: To warn of an event, a person,

an object or a process representing an imminent

threat and danger to persons or property.

7. Purple Notice: To provide information on

modus operandi, procedures, objects, devices or

hiding places used by criminals.

8. Interpol-UNSC Special Notice: To inform

Interpol’s members that an individual or an entity

is subject to UN sanctions.

55. Answer: A

Explanation:

The Group of Seven (G-7) is a forum of the

world’s seven most industrialized economies. It

consists of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan,

the United Kingdom, and the United States. The

G-7 meets on an annual basis in a rotating

member country to discuss international economic

and monetary issues. The European Union is also

represented at the G7 summit. The G-6 was

formed in 1975 and consisted of France,

Germany, Italy, Japan, the United States and the

United Kingdom; Canada was invited to join the

group in 1976 creating the G-7.

In 1998, Russia was added to the G-7 as a full

member, making the group of world leaders the

G-8. The acceptance of Russia created the G-8

from 1998 to 2014. In 2014, Russia was

suspended from the group after the annexation of

Crimea and tensions in Ukraine. Hence, option A.

is the correct answer.






Italy is projected to be the first G7 nation to

officially endorse China’s Belt and Road Initiative

(BRI).

56. Answer: C

Explanation:

According to the Election Commission of India

(ECI), in the 2019 Indian General Election, service

Voters are going to play a crucial and decisive role

in cases of close contests. Service voter are those

who have service qualification. They include

member of Armed Forces of the Union of India,

members of Armed Police forces of the States

serving outside that state and persons employed

under Government of India on posts outside India.

Service Voter can cast his/her vote by proxy also.

They may appoint (By applying to returning officer

in Form 13 F of ECI) any person as his/her proxy

to cast vote on his/her behalf in his/her at the

polling station. Proxy should be a registered voter

of that constituency.

Eligible Organizations: As per existing

arrangements, members of India Army, Navy and

Air force, Boarder Road Organisation, BSF, ITBP,

Assam Rifles, NSG, CRPF, CISF and SSB are

eligible to be registered as service voters.

The key bill to allow proxy voting rights to

overseas Indians and make electoral law gender

neutral for service voters was passed by Lok Sabha

in August, 2018 and has been awaiting Rajya Sabha

nod. Hence, option C. is the correct answer.

57. Answer: B

Explanation:

The authority to enact laws for elections to the

offices of President and Vice-President and to

Parliament and State Legislatures has been reposed

by the Constitution in Indian Parliament (Articles

71 and 327). Laws relating to conduct of elections

to municipalities, panchayats and other local bodies

are framed by the respective State Legislatures

(Articles 243 K and 243 ZA).

All doubts and disputes relating to the elections to

the office of President and Vice-President are dealt

with by the Supreme Court (Article 71), whereas

the initial jurisdiction to deal with all doubts and

disputes relating to the elections to Parliament and

State Legislatures vests in the High Court of the

State concerned, with a right of appeal to the

Supreme Court (Article 329). The disputed matters

relating to elections to municipalities, etc. are

decided by the lower courts in accordance with the

laws made by the respective State Governments.

Hence, option B. is the correct answer.

58. Answer: D

59. Answer: D

It required that three not two of the six

members of the Viceroy’s executive

council were to be Indian.

60. Answer: C

The term untouchability has not been defined in the

constitution

61 :B

62 :C

63 :B

64: D

65:A

66 :C

67 :C

68 :A

69 :A

70 :C

71 :A

72 :B

73 :A

74 :C

75 :B

76 :B

77: D

78 :A

79 :B

80 :C

81: D

82 :C

83: D

84: D

85 :C

86 :A

87: D

88 :A

89 :B

90 :A

91 :B

92: D

93 :C

94 :B

95: D

96 :B

97: D

98: D

99 :A

100 :C








Documents

Answer Booklet Series NDICDS21902 Test No. A INDIAN POLITY