SAMPLE BOARD QUESTIONS

1. What is Horner-Trantas dots associated with?A) TrachomaB) Granular Corneal DystrophyC) Epithelial Basement Membrane Dystrophy—Dot formD) Vernal Conjunctivitis

2. Patient presents with deep, blue-red nodular lesions over conjuctiva. Patient reports lesions started small and slowly increased in size over the last 3 months. Probing reveals the patient is taking a HART cocktail. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Cavernous hemangiomaB) Subconjunctival hemeC) Kaposi’s sarcomaD) Inflammed pinguecula

3. Your male patient presents with red, itchy eyes that happen year round. He denies CL wear and reports he suffers from asthma. What is the diagnosis?

A) Bacterial ConjunctivitisB) Atopic ConjunctivitisC) EpiscleritisD) Vernal Conjunctivitis

4. Target goals for good glycemic management of diabetes are:a. FBS 100-120 mg/dl; HbA1C > 7%b. FBS 120-140 mg/dl; HbA1C < 3%c. FBS 80-100 mg/dl; HbA1C < 7%d. FBS 120-160 mg/dl; HbA1C > 3%

5. Which type of diabetes is insulin dependent?a. Type Ib. Type II

6. Venous beading, large blot hemorrhages, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities are all strong predictors of subsequent progression to proliferative disease.

a. Trueb. False

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7. Patients with diabetic retinopathy and those with mild retinopathy should be followed up:

a. Every yearb. Every 2 yearsc. Every 6 monthsd. Every 3 months

8. Patient comes in with erythematous ecchymosis OS x 1 wk. She reports that the left eye has been feeling itchy and extremely irritated. The upper and lower lids are involved with ecchymosis OS and patient reported she has been using neomycin and verapamil. What is Dx?

A) Bacterial ConjunctivitisB) Chronic BlepharitisC) ScleritisE) Contact Dermatitis

9. Retinal vascular changes secondary to chronic or acutely elevated systemic blood pressure describe which of the following:

a. Diabetic retinopathyb. Hypertensive retinopathy

10. Hypertensive retinopathy is known to:a. Cause blindnessb. Decrease vision significantlyc. Rarely decrease vision

11. NVD, NVE, and vitreous hemorrhage are all characteristics of:a. CSMEb. NPDRc. PDRd. Hypertensive retinopathy

12. The most common form of DM accounting for 90-95% of all patients is:a. Type Ib. Type II

13. Which anterior scleritis has the most favorable outcome?A) Nodular scleritisB) Scleromalacia PerforansC) Diffuse Anterior ScleritisD) Necrotizing Scleritis

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14. A 20/W/F who wears Acuvue 2 SCL’s presents with GPC OU. What is the least favorable management option for the patient’s GPC?

A) Modify CL wearing scheduleB) Switch her to an RGP CL OUC) Start pt. on using a CL enzymeD) If pt. has acute attack, remove CL’s and use topical steroid OU

15. In eyes with CSME, focal laser treatment decreases the likelihood of visual loss by:

a. 20%b. 30%c. 40%d. 50%

16. One identifying factor of CSME is thickening of the retinal at or within ______ microns of the center of the macula.

a. 100b. 300c. 500d. 700

17. Giant cobblestone papillae are associated with?A) GPCB) ChlamydiaC) Vernal conjunctivitisD) Moraxella conjunctivitis

18. Which papillae are larger?A) Cobblestone papillaeB) GPC papillae

19. Corneal dystrophies are possible without prior corneal pathology or systemic involvement.

a. Trueb. False

20. Corneal dystrophies are usually:a. Unilateralb. Bilateralc. Both

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21. Most patients with CSME continue to lose vision despite treatment.a. Trueb. False

22. Eyes with NPDR and macular edema that is not clinically significant should be watched without any treatment.

a. Trueb. False

23. What is the strongest prediction that NPDR will turn to PDR?a. Venous beadingb. IRMAc. Cotton wool spots

24. What is the most common anterior corneal dystrophy?a. Map-dot fingerprintb. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophyc. Granular

25. Which of the following describes corneal guttata?a. Thickened stromal layerb. Thickened descemet’s membranec. Thinned stromal layerd. Thinned descemet’s membrane

26. Which of the following managements for atopic allergic conjunctivitis is least appropriate? A) Mast cell stabilizer and antihistamine comboB) Cool CompressC) Strong topical steroidD) Artificial Tears

27. What is the main difference between episcleritis and scleritis?A) Episcleritis usually does not have pain and scleritis causes painB) Scleritis usually does not have pain and episcleritis causes painC) Episcleritis presents with papillae and scleritis does notD) None of the above

28. Which of the following does not occur with scleritis?A) It has systemic disease associationB) It has severe painC) It occurs more in females than in malesD) Absence of reoccurrences can happen

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29. Which cells are involved with Horner-Trantas dots?A. NeutrophilB) EosinophilC) BasophilD) Lymphocytes

30. Which is the most common stromal dystrophy?a. Granularb. Latticec. Fuch’s

31. At what decade in life does Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy usually occur?a. 2-3b. 3-4c. 4-5d. 5-6

32. Microcornea is diagnosed when the cornea (at birth) is:a. </= 12 mmb. < 10 mmc. < 9 mm

33. What is the correct dosing schedule for Patanol?A) QDB) BIDC) TIDD) QID

34. What category of drug is Alomide fall into?A) Mast cell stabilizerB) AntihistamineC) CycloplegicD) Topical NSAID

35. Glucose in the blood in produced by the ______.a. Pancreasb. Liver

36. Type II diabetes is typically controlled with:a. Dietb. Exercisec. Oral medsd. All of the above

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37. What category of drug is Naphcon-A fall into?A) Decongestant/AntihistamineB) CycloplegicC) Mast cell stabilizerD) Corticosteroid

38. Which anterior scleritis is least common?A) Nodular ant. ScleritisB) Necrotizing scleritisC) Scleromalacia perforansE) Diffuse ant. Scleritis

39. Which of the following is not considered associated with microcornea?a. Hyperopiab. Angle closure glaucomac. Myopia

40. Most patients with early glaucoma will come to your office complaining of:a. Peripheral vision lossb. Central vision lossc. Blurriness at both distance and neard. Asymptomatice. Puffiness and redness around the eyes

41. Which of the following types of glaucoma is most likely associated with Krukenberg Spindle?

a. Pseudo-exfoliation syndromeb. Pigment dispersion syndromec. Angle recession glaucomad. Angle closure glaucomae. Chronic open angle glaucoma

42. Which of the following decreases aqueous production?a. Timololb. Betaxololc. Acetozolamided. Methazolamidee. All of the above

43. Megalocornea is an X-linked condition. Which of the following is most accurate?a. Mother to daughterb. Mother to sonc. Father to sond. Father to daughter

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44. Fuch’s endothelial dystrophy is associated with decrease vision mainly at what time of day?

a. Morningb. Eveningc. Nightd. General decrease throughout the day\

45. Treatment for optic neuritisa. IV methylprednisoloneb. Beta blockersc. No treatmentd. Homatropine

46. Patient presents complaining of HA, negative APD and bilateral swollen discs.a. Papilledemab. Optic neuritisc. Neuroretinitisd. NAION

47. The current standard of care indicates that the drug of choice for initial open angle glaucoma treatment in most cases is:

a. A mioticb. A beta blockerc. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitord. An alpha adrenergice. A prostaglandin

48. Hx of a tennis ball injury, as well as tonometry and gonio, confirmed the dx of angle-recession glaucoma in a 32-year-old white male. Use of the following topical meds would be inadvisable in the tx of the patient?

a. Pilocarpineb. Timololc. Epinephrined. Dipivefrin

49. Prescribe beta-blocker for increased intra ocular pressurea. QIDb. BIDc. TIDd. QD

50. The most common type of primary angle closure glaucoma isa. Pupillary block b. Ciliary blockc. Iris – trabecular meshwork blockd. Plateau iris

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51. The most common visual field defect in papilledema is:a. Altitudinal defectb. Enlarged blind spotc. Arcuate scotomad. Nasal step

52. Corneal dystrophies are most commonly of what inheritance?a. ADb. ARc. X-linked

53. Which of the following corneal dystrophies is characterized by subepithelial opacification and scarring of Bowman’s membrane?

a. Meesman’sb. Granularc. Reis-Buckler’sd. Fuch’s

54. Steroid Induced glaucoma a. Is genetically determinedb. Occurs with topical steroid usagec. Reflects reduced macrophage activity in the trabecular meshworkd. All the abovee. Only a and b

55. The etiology of congenital glaucoma is a. Pupillary blockb. Faulty angle cleavagec. Imperforate mesodermal membraned. Absence of Schlemn’s canal

56. The most reliable physical finding to dx angle closure isa. Height of pressureb. Acute onset of pressure rise with painc. Chamber depthd. Gonioscopy

57. Haab’s striae is characterized by breaks in which of the following layer?a. Corneal epitheliumb. Stromac. Corneal endotheliumd. Descemet’s membrane

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58. Patient presents with bilateral swollen discs, peripapillary hemorrhages, and Paton’s lines, Dx:

a. Optic neuritisb. Papilledemac. Neuroretinitisd. NAION

59. Patient presents with bilateral disc edema, normal CSF, normal MRI, Dx:a. Papilledemab. Pseudotumor cerebric. Optic neuritisd. NAION

60. What type of glaucoma are we most concerned with following a CRVO?a. Acute angle closure glaucomab. Primary open angle glaucomac. Pigmentary glaucomad. Neovascular glaucomae. Pseudo-exfoliation glaucoma

61. T/F Retroillumination of the iris of a patient with pigment dispersion glaucoma will reveal mid-peripheral slit-like defects

62. Which of the following glaucoma is frequently quite severea. Chandler’s syndromeb. Sturge-weber sydromec. Essential iris atrophyd. Cogan-Reese syndrome

63. Treatment of pseudotumor cerebri:a. No treatmentb. Diamoxc. Oral steroidsd. Tetracycline

64. 45 y.o. presents with 20/100 VA, normal ESR, & undiagnosed HTN and pale optic nerve. Dx:

a. AIONb. NAIONc. Papilledemad. Optic neuritis

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65. Patient presents with unilateral inferior altitudinal VF loss. What is the most likely cause?

a. Papilledemab. Optic neuritisc. NAIONd. Pseudotumor cerebri

66. Which has the highest association with MS?a. Papillitisb. Neuroretinitisc. Retrobulbar optic neuritisd. Peri-neuritis

67. What disease is associated with glaucoma and aniridia?a. Sturge-Weber syndromeb. Fuch’s heterochromiac. Wilson’s diseased. Wilm’s tumor

68. What is diagnostic of a previous attack of acute angle closure glaucoma?a. Iridotomyb. Case hxc. Life long hx of pilocarpined. Glaucomaflekene. Krukenberg spindle

69. What is the highest risk factor for developing glaucomaa. Ageb. Racec. High IOPd. Family Hx of glaucoma

70. Patient presents with bilateral cecocentral defect. A cause could be:a. Ischemiab. Glaucomac. Vitamin deficiencyd. Infiltrative

71. 80 year-old patient presents with painless loss of vision 20/400, (+) APD, (+) HA. What is the next test you should conduct?

a. BPb. FAc. ESRd. BS test

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72. What is the best management of patient with GCA?a. No treatmentb. Aspirinc. Oral prenisoloned. Oral beta blocker

73. Keratoconus is mainly:a. Unilateralb. Bilateralc. Equal occurance

74. Band keratopathy is the calcification of which of the following layer?a. Corneal epitheliumb. Corneal endotheliumc. Stromad. Bowman’s

75. Corneal ulcers are most commonly caused by:a. Bacteriab. Fungusc. Parasites

76. Which of the following is characterized by superficial vascularization and scarring of the peripheral cornea due to inflammation?

a. Pannusb. Band keratopathyc. Arcus senilis

77. Which is most commonly associated with ring infiltrates usually seen due to improper contact lens care?

a. Staph aureusb. Aspergillusc. Listeriad. Acanthamoeba

78. 25 year-old, sudden loss of vision is OS. No other symptoms. VF show central scotoma of OS. Ophthalmoscopy shows elevated ONH of OS. Most likely diagnosis?

a. Papilledemab. Melanocytomac. CRAOd. Papillitis

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79. 12 year-old white male presents with HA, blurred vision, nausea, and vomiting. Symptoms began 2 weeks ago and seem to be getting worse. PCP prescribed medication for a stomach virus. Ophthalmoscopy reveals bilaterally swollen discs, hyperemic discs. Major concern and treatment is:

a. ION; order CT scanb. GCA; order ESRc. Undiagnosed DM type I; fasting blood sugard. Intracranial tumor; order CT scan ASAP

80. Which of the following statements is false?a. Isoniazid may rarely cause toxic optic neuropathy in combination with

ethambutol.b. Neuroretinitis is never a manifestation of dymyelination.c. Bone and calcifications are invisible on MRI.d. AION can recur in the same eye.

81. A middle age woman presents with an optociliary shunt vessels? What is the dx?a. Optic nerve gliomab. Optic nerve drusenc. CRVOd. Spheno-orbital meningioma

82. The blood vessels that get occluded in ANION is/are:a. CRAb. LPCAc. CRVd. SPCA

83. Keratic precipitates are mainly:a. Calcium depositsb. Inflammatory cellsc. Areas of degeneration

84. Which is an exception to being a differential diagnosis in scleromalacia perforans?A) Nevus of OtaB) Necrotizing ScleritisC) Conjunctival nevusD) Scleral thinning resolution

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85. What type of optic neuritis presents with disc edema along with macular star in a patient with a viral infection?

a. Neuroretinitisb. Papillitisc. Retrobulbar optic neuritisd. Peri-neuritis

86. Patient presents with unilateral optic neuritis? What test should be ordered?a. MRIb. CBCc. ESRd. No work-up

87. Young woman 20 y.o. presents with pain on eye movement OD, (+) APD OD, altitudinal field defect and reduced color vision. What is diagnosis?

a. Optic neuritisb. NAIONc. GCAd. Papilledema

88. What is the best tool to use to diagnose posterior scleritis?A) GonioscopyB) UltrasoundC) PachymetryD) OCT

89. Which of the following systemic diseases is not associated with scleritis?A) DiabetesB) Rheumatoid ArthritisC) Wegener’s GranulomatosisD) Polyarteritis Nodosa

90. Which of the following would you use to treat episcleritis?A) OcufloxB) AcularC) PatanolD) Gentamycin

91. An emergency patient presents reporting acidic liquid was introduced to his eye from an industrial accident next door to your office. What is your first step in Tx?A) Evaluate patient under slit lamp to determine extent of damageB) Take an entering VA @ distance

C) Begin immediate irrigation of the involved ocular surface D) Use an alkali substance to neutralize pH of the eye

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92. While examining an otherwise healthy individual you notice a firm, raised nodule on their left lower lid. The nodule has pearlescent appearance to it with central ulceration and surrounding telangectasias. Prior to receiving biopsy results, what do you most likely think the lesion is?A) Basal cell carcinomaB) Molluscum contagiosumC) Sebaceous cell carcinomaD) Malignant melanoma

93. .Which of the following signs is not associated with bacterial conjunctivitis?A) Slow, insidious onsetB) Diffuse injection of conjunctivaC) Papillary responseD) Mucopurulent discharge

94. What is the Tx of choice for hyperacute bacterial conjunctivitis?A) 250 mg Tetracyline QID x 7 daysB) Ocuflox q 2hC) Polysporin ung qhsD) 1 gm Ceftriaxone IM

95. A CL wearing patient presents with photophobia, itching/mild FB sensation, and cobblestone papillae on the superior palpaebral conjunctiva. Which of the following would not be included in Tx?

a. Discontinue CL wearb. Pred Forte QIDc. Cold compressd. Pressure patch with prophylactic antibiotic ung

96. What is the best initial Tx for 3-4 lashes that are turned inwards causing a corneal epithelial disruption?

a. AT prnb. Lid scrubsc. Epilation of offending lashesd. Cryo Tx of hair follicles

97. Which of the following Tx’s is not considered for a small, non-advancing pterygium that has no symptoms and does not threaten the visual axis?

a. AT’sb. UV blocking, wrap-around sunglassesc. Surgical excision with autographd. Patient education and avoidance of ocular irritants such as UV, radiation,

and dust

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98. A swimming instructor presents with bilateral red eyes. Hx indicates a monocular to binocular rapid progression, HA, pharyngitis, and fever. SLE reveals diffuse conjunctival hyperemia with chemosis and mild follicular response. What’s the most likely diagnosis?

a. Pharyngoconjunctival feverb. Bacterial conjunctivitisc. Vernal conjunctivitisd. Herpes Simplex conjunctivitis

99. Which of the following would not be indicated in the Tx of phthiriasis palpebrum?

a. Physostigmine ung BID x 10 daysb. Mechanical removal of adult and eggs with forcepsc. Bland ophthalmic ung x 14 daysd. Kwell shampoo BID to lids/lashes

100. Patient presents with unilateral maculopapular rash on upper eyelid, brow, and forehead that has preceeded by tingling and burning in that area. What’s the most likely Dx?

a. Herpes Zosterb. Hepes Simplexc. Moraxella infectiond. Ulcerative blepharitis

101. Which of the following is the most common malignant eyelid tumor?a. Basal cellb. Squamous cellc. Sebaceous celld. Melanocytic nevi

102. What is the primary site of metastasis in women for eyelid carcinoma?a. Lungb. Breastc. Liverd. Skin

103. A Haitian patient presents for routine examination. You discover discrete black lesions located in the inferior palpaebral conjunctiva. Which of the following are not in your Dx?

a. Epinephrine useb. Eye make-upc. Foreign body debrisd. Malignant melanoma

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104. Which of the following Tx are used prophylactically to prevent ophthalmica neonatorium?

a. Sulfacetamideb. Erythromycinc. Tetracyclined. Neosporin

105. Which of the following signs is absent in inclusion body conjunctivitis in neonates?

a. Papillaeb. Hyperemiac. Mucopurulent discharged. Follicles

106. Tx for a chronic chalazion would include which of the following?a. Surgical excisionb. Topical gentamycinc. FML QIDd. Vigamox q 2h with warm compress TID

107. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for angular blepharitis?a. Staph aureusb. Pseudomonasc. Moraxellad. Staph pneumonia

108. What is the best Tx choice for seborrheic blepharitis?a. Gentomycin ung BIDb. Tobramycin QIDc. Warm compressd. Doxycycline 100 mg BID x 7 days

109. What is the most common cause of ptosis?a. Aponeurosisb. Neurologicalc. Myogenicd. Congenital

110. Your patient presents with scleromalacia perforans OD. Which of the following is not a complication to be concerned with this condition? A) UveitisB) Eye perforationC) KeratitisD) PSC

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