S.No.

Question Options Correct Ans

Your Answer

Status

1 Only sensory branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve is:

A: Auriculotemporal nerve

B: Lingual

C: Long buccal

D: Buccal nerve

C C Correct

2 Nerve supply to musculature of tongue is:

A: Hypoglossal

B: Glossopharyngeal

C: Vagus

D: Facial

A A Correct

3 All of the following muscles are composite muscles except:

A: Pectineus

B: Rectus femoris

C: Adductor magnus

D: Biceps femoris

B - Unanswered

4 All of the following are digastric muscles except:

A: Muscle fibers in ligament of Treitz

B: Omohyoid

C: Occipitofrontalis

D: Sternocleidomastoid

A C Incorrect

5 Tributaries of cavernous sinus include all of the following except:

A: Superior petrosal sinus

B: Inferior petrosal sinus

C: Superficial middle

D D Correct

cerebral vein

D: Deep middle cerebral vein

6 What are the types of joints between the ossicles of ear:

A: Fibrous jonts

B: Primary cartilaginous

C: Secondary

D: Synovial joints

D D Correct

7 Which of the following nerve innervates the capsule of the temporomandibular jont

A: Facial

B: Buccal

C: Maxillary

D: Auriculotemporal

D D Correct

8 Which is not a branch of cavernous part of internal carotid artery:

A: Cavernous branch

B: Inferior hypophyseal

C: Meningeal artery

D: Ophthalmic artery

D D Correct

9 Premature synostosis of coronal suture along with basal sutures is seen in:

A: Oxycephaly

B: Brachycephaly

C: Trigonocephaly

D: Scandamocephaly

A A Correct

10 When a person protrudes his tongue it deviates to the right, which of the following nerve is damaged:

A: Glossopharyngeal

B: Right hypoglossal

C: Left hypoglossal

D: Mandibular

B B Correct

11 Why fetal cells continue to divide but terminally

A: There are many cyclin inhibitors which

A A Correct

differentiated adult cells do not divide:

prevent cell from entering into S phase in adults

B: Phosphatase is absent in fetal cells

C: Proteinase is absent in fetus

D: Absence of CD kinase

12 CSF pressure is mainly regulated by:

A: Rate ofCSF formation

B: Rate of CSF absorption

C: Cerebral blood flow

D: Venous pressure

B B Correct

13 Regarding gOlgl tendon organ true is:

A: Senses dynamic length of muscle

B: Involved in reciprocal innervation

C: q..-motor neuron stimulation

D: Senses muscle tension

D D Correct

14 Increase in threshold level on applying subthreshold, slowly rising stimulus is called:

A: Adaptation

B: Accommodation

C: Refractoriness

D: Electrotonus

B A Incorrect

15 Lining cells of bronchi include all of the following

A: KuIchitsky cells C D Incorrect

except: B: Clara cells

C: Brush cells

D: Langerhans cells

16 Steroid hormone receptors have attachment site for all except:

A: Steroid hormone

B: Transcription repressors

C: Hormone responsive element

D: Transcription activators

B B Correct

17 Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:

A: Increasing acetyl CoA carboxylase activity

B: Increases the transport of glucose into cells

C: Decreases pyruvate dehydrogenase

D: Decrease intracellular cAMP levels

C C Correct

18 True about G-protein coupled receptors is:

A: G-proteins bind to hormones on the cell surface

B: All the three subunits alpha, beta and gamma bind each for y-protein to act.

C: G-protein act as inhibitory and excitatory because of difference in

C A Incorrect

alpha subunit

D: G-protein is bound to GTP in resting state

19 Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because:

A: It is required for the process of transamination

B: It is a co-factor in oxidative reduction

C: It is co-enzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway

D: It is co-enzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase

D D Correct

20 All are true about glutathione except:

A: It is a tripeptide

B: It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin

C: It conjugates xenobiotics

D: It scavenges free radicals and superoxideions

B B Correct

21 True about denaturation of proteins is all except:

A: Unfolding occurs

B: Disruption of secondary structure occurs

C: Sequence of amino acids remains the same

D: Biological activity is retained

D D Correct

22 In molecular cloning blue A: To screen for C - Unanswered

white screening is used: recombinant vectors

B: To detect gene mutations

C: To identify desired chromosomal DNA insert in plasmid vectors

D: To detect DNA in situ

23 Which drug is not acetylated:

A: INH

B: Dapsone

C: Hydralazine

D: Metoclopramide

D C Incorrect

24 Which is a prodrug: A: Enalapril

B: Clonidine

C: Salmeterol

D: Acetazolamide

A A Correct

25 Which is not a 2nd generation antihistaminic:

A: Loratidine

B: Acrivastatine

C: Cyclizine

D: Terfinidine

C B Incorrect

26 Loading dose depends upon: A: Volume of distribution

B: Clearance

C: Rate of administration

D: Half life

A A Correct

27 Drug not used in H. pylori infection:

A: Metronidazole

B: Omeprazole

C: Mosapride

D: Amoxicillin

C D Incorrect

28 Long acting beta-2 agonist A: Albuterol

B: Salmetarol

C: Pirlbuterol

D: Orciprenaline

B A Incorrect

29 Benzodiazepine antagonist is:

A: Flumazenil

B: Naloxone

C: Furazolidone

D: Naltrexone

A A Correct

30 Which statement is true about carbamezapine:

A: Used in trigeminal neuralgia

B: Carbamezapine is an enzyme inhibitor

C: Can cause megaloblastic anemia

D: It is the drug of choice for status epilepticus

A A Correct

31 Buprenorphine is: A: Pure agonist

B: Pure antagonist

C: Partial agonist

D: None

C C Correct

32 Atypical antipsychotics are A: Olanzepine D C Incorrect

all except:B: Clozapine

C: Risperidone

D: Thioridazine

33 Finasteride is a: A: 5 alpha reductase inhibitor

B: PDE inhibitor

C: Alpha la blocker

D: Androgen receptor blocker

A D Incorrect

34 Cross resistance of isoniazid is seen with:

A: Rifampicin

B: Ethionamide

C: Cycloserine

D: Ethambutol

B D Incorrect

35 Ist drug to be used in absence seizures:

A: Phenytoin

B: BZD

C: Valproate

D: Carbamezapine

C C Correct

36 Most important factor for calculating dose for NSAIDS in children?

A: Age of child

B: Body weight of child

C: Flavour of salt

D: Extent of pain

A A Correct

37 Not true about Penicillin-G is:

A: Very active against sensitive gram positive cocci

B: Destroyed by gastric

C C Correct

acid

C: More concentrated in prostatic secretions and intraocular fluid

D: Used for treatment of meningococcal meningitis

38 Which of the following is true:

A: Ranta virus pulmonary syndrome is caused by inhalation of rodent urine and faces

B: Kyanasur forest disease is caused by bite of wild animal

C: Lyssa virus is transmitted by ticks

D: None

A - Unanswered

39 True about mycobacterium other than tubercular bacilli:

A: Causes disseminated infection

B: Occurs in persons with normal immunity

C: Cause decreased efficacy ofBCG due to cross immunity

D: Person to person transmission is seen

C C Correct

40 Acute primary amoebic meningoencephalitis true is:

A: Meningitis caused by acanthamoeba species is acute in nature

B: Diagnosis is by demonstration of trophozoite in CSF

B D Incorrect

C: Feco-oral transmission occurs

D: More common in tropical climate

41 Most common organism associated with reactive arthritis:

A: Staphylococcus

B: Shigella

C: Chlamydia

D: Yersenia

C C Correct

42 . Which of the following represents the most common source of pulmonary embolism:

A: Esophageal varices

B: Endarteritis

C: Lymphangitis

D: Thrombophlebitis

D D Correct

43 Acute infection causes: A: Neutropenia

B: Leucopenia

C: Leucocytosis

D: Monocytosis

C C Correct

44 Earliest transient change fonowing tissue injury win be:

A: Neutropenia

B: Neutrophilia

C: Monocytosis

D: Lymphocytosis

B B Correct

45 A malignant tumor arising from voluntary muscle is a:

A: Leiomyoma

B: Leiomyosarcoma

C: Rhabdomyoma

D: Rhabdomyosarcoma

D D Correct

46 . Differential leucocyte count is used for diagnosis of:

A: Anemia

B: Leukocytosis

C: Leukopenia

D: Eosinophilia

D D Correct

47 Which of the following increases turbulence in blood flow:

A: Reynolds number less than 2000

B: Reduced velocity of blood

C: Reduced density of blood

D: Increase in diameter of blood vessel

D B Incorrect

48 Bone lytic lesions along with increase in B-cells derived from hyperplastic bone marrow are seen

A: Multiple myeloma

B: Plasmacytoma

C: Hodgkins lymphoma

D: Thalasemia

A A Correct

49 Absolute increase in RBC count and hemoglobin with increase in blood volume is seen in:

A: Polycythemia

B: OsIers disease

C: . Mediterranean anemia

D: Cooleys anemia

B A Incorrect

50 Monocytes are increased in all except:

A: Hodgkins lymphoma

B: Hairy cell leukemia

C: Parasitic infection

D: Tuberculosis

B C Incorrect

51 An infant with cleft lip, cleft A: Trisomy 21 C A Incorrect

palate, polydactily, microcephaly with holoprocencephaly and ectodermal scalp defects is suffering from:

B: Trisomy 18

C: Trisomy 13

D: Turners syndrome

52 Cat eye syndrome is: A: Partial trisomy 18

B: Partial trisomy 13

C: Partial trisomy 21

D: Partial trisomy 22

D - Unanswered

53 Disorder characterized by craniosynostosis, polysyndactyly of feet, scalp defects and syndactyly of soft tissues is:

A: Carpenter syndrome

B: Crouzon syndrome

C: Apert syndrome

D: Cri-du-chat syndrome

A C Incorrect

54 What is seen in acromegaly: A: Large tongue

B: Hypoglycemia

C: Crowding of teeth

D: Micrognathia

A A Correct

55 Autism is characterized by: A: Incapacitance of motor and mental co ordination

B: Mental retardation

C: Delayed motor response or lack of motor skills

D: Incapacitating emotional and mental disturbance

D D Correct

56 A middle aged female patient has eyes widely placed, sparse kinky hair, increased systolic BP, increased pulse pressure, weight loss and nervousness. She may be suffering from:

A: Hyperthyroidism

B: Hypothyroidism

C: Hyperparathyroidism

D: Hypopituitarism

A A Correct

57 Most common malignancy seen in AIDS is:

A: Kaposi Sarcoma

B: Hodgkins tumor

C: SCC

D: Non hodgkins lymphoma

D A Incorrect

58 True about polio: A: Paralytic polio is most common

B: Spastic paralysis is seen

C: Increased muscular activity leads to increased paralysis

D: Polio drops given only in < 3 years

C D Incorrect

59 All of the following statements are true about Benedikts syndrome except:

A: Contralateral tumor

B: 3rd nerve palsy

C: Involvement of the penetrating branch of basilar artery

D: Lesion at level of pons

D - Unanswered

60 In Millard Gubler syndrome all are involved except:

A: 5th cranial nerve

B: 6th cranial nerve

A - Unanswered

C: 7th cranial nerve

D: Contralateral hemiplegia

61 Most common mode of treatment of a 1 year old child with asthma:

A: Inhaled short acting beta 2 agonist

B: Oral short acting theophylline

C: Oral ketotifen

D: Leukotriene agonist

A B Incorrect

62 . Most common organism causing sub acute bacterial endocarditis is:

A: Staphylococcus

B: Alpha hemolytic streptococcus

C: Beta hemolytic streptococcus

D: Gamma hemolytic streptococcus

B B Correct

63 Which of the following causes headache of vascular origin:

A: Giant cell arteritis

B: Anaesthesia dolorosa

C: Cluster headache

D: Hemicrania

A A Correct

64 Paradoxical movement of chest in a patient who has suffered trauma is called:

A: Flail chest

B: Cardiac tamponade

C: Dyspnoea

D: Pneumothorax

A A Correct

65 In hemophilia, drug administered before a surgical procedure is:

A: Vit K

B: Aspirin

C C Correct

C: Epsilon amino caproic acid

D: Chloral hydrate

66 A patient with trauma suffers 15% blood loss what should be done:

A: No treatment

B: Blood and colloidal infusion

C: Colloidal transfusion only

D: Blood transfusion only

A D Incorrect

67 A patient is admitted with head injury, GCS < 8, severe midface fractures, frequent apnoea and low oxygenation. Airway management is best done by:

A: Oropharyngeal airway

B: Orotracheal intubation

C: Nasopharyngeal airway

D: Cricothyrotomy

B D Incorrect

68 Chronic burrowing ulcer is caused by:

A: Microaerophilic streptococci

B: Peptostreptococcus

C: Streptococcus viridans

D: Streptococcus pyogenes

A D Incorrect

69 Excisional biopsy is done by:

A: Removal of entire lesion only

B: Removal of entire lesion with a margin of uninvolved normal border tissue

B B Correct

C: Removal of only a part of lesion

D: Partial removal of lesion with a part of normal tissue

70 In mass casualty, patients treated first are:

A: Patients with life threatening injuries

B: Patients with maximum chances of survival with minimum available resource

C: Treating patients with multiple organ failure & that need equipment and mobility

D: All patients are treated equally

B B Correct

71 A patient is suffering from facial pain and a nasoparyngeal tumor is present on lateral wall of larynx. The patient is suffering from:

A: Plummer Vinson syndrome

B: Trotter syndrome

C: Reitters syndrome

D: Eagles syndrome

B B Correct

72 Which is the correct statement regarding facial nerve palsy in temporal bone fractures:

A: More common with transverse fractures

B: More common with longitudinal fractures

C: Facial palsy is of immediate onset

D: It is always associated with CSF

A B Incorrect

leakage

73 A patient comes with a wound caused by a sharp object with length greater than depth. It is called:

A: Stab

B: Slash

C: Laceration

D: Incision

B B Correct

74 When a minimal injury as a glancing blow is struck, to what variables it is related:

A: Position of strike

B: Area of strike

C: Angulation of strike

D: Location of strike

C C Correct

75 N20 acts by: A: Non specific CNS depression

B: Blocking of peripheral pain pathways

C: Gasserion ganglion blockade

D: Reduction in stimulation of motor end plates

A A Correct

76 Most common route for premedication in children is:

A: Oral

B: Intramuscular

C: Subdermal

D: Intravenous

A A Correct

77 Route not used for sedation in child is:

A: Intravenous

B: Subdermal

C: Submucosal

B A Incorrect

D: Intramuscular

78 LA does not act in presence of infection due to:

A: Increase in cationic form

B: Increase in anion form

C: Presence of free base molecules

D: HighpH

A A Correct

79 Bonding of GIC to tooth structure is brought about by:

A: Metal ions.

B: Hydroxyl group

C: Carboxyl group

D: Micromechanical bonding

C A Incorrect

80 Role of Indium in amalgam is:

A: To reduce release of mercury during mastication

B: To reduce release of mercury during amalgam polishing

C: To reduce formation ofyphase

D: To reduce formation ofY2 phase

B - Unanswered

81 Back pressure porosity can be reduced by:

A: Vacuum investing

B: Proper or increased burnout temperature

C: Reduced firing temperature

D: All

B D Incorrect

82 Sequence in setting of GIC is?

A: Decomposition, gelation, maturation, hardening,

B: Gelation, migration, post setting contraction

C: Decomposition, migration, gelation, hardening, maturation

D: Decomposition, maturation, gelation, hardening

C A Incorrect

83 TMJ starts to develop around:

A: 2 weeks

B: 10 weeks

C: 20 weeks

D: 22 weeks

B B Correct

84 True about primary teeth: A: Calcification of primary teeth is almost complete at birth

B: Calcification of all primary teeth and· permanent incisors is complete at birth

C: Calcification of all permanent teeth starts at birth

D: Calcification of all permanent and primary teeth except third molars is complete at birth

A A Correct

85 Degeneration of basement membrane and loss of rete pegs is seen in:

A: Lichen planus

B: Desquamative

B A Incorrect

gingivitis

C: Erythema multiforme

D: Leukoplakia

86 Difference between epithelial lining of cyst and oral cavity is:

A: Stratum germinativum

B: Stratum corneum

C: Stratum spinosum

D: Stratum lucidum

A B Incorrect

87 Saw tooth rete pegs are seen in:

A: Lichen planus

B: Psoriasis

C: Pemphigus

D: Erythema multi forme

A A Correct

88 Most common site for occurrence of sialolith is:

A: Parotid duct

B: Sublingual duct

C: Submandibular duct

D: Parotid gland

C C Correct

89 In a patient with cerebral palsy, all are seen except:

A: Increased dental caries

B: Fluorosis

C: Increased salivation

D: Trauma

B B Correct

90 White radiating lines on buccal musosa are characteristic of:

A: Lichen planus

B: Leukoplakia

C: Erythroplakia

A A Correct

D: OSF

91 In caries, which structure becomes more pronounced:

A: Striae of retzius

B: Hunter Shreger bands

C: Enamel lines ofPickeril

D: Striae of Wickham

A C Incorrect

92 A patient with unilateral ptosis of eyelid shows elevation of lid upon movement of jaw to opposite side. He may be suffering from:

A: Jaw winking syndrome

B: Homers syndrome

C: Freys syndrome

D: Martin amat syndrome

A D Incorrect

93 Phlegmon is: A: STD

B: Type of cellulitis

C: Type of osteomyelitis

D: Veneral disease

B B Correct

94 A 6 years old child present with generalized ulceration of mouth, malaise and fever. Treatment is:

A: Oral penicillin and peroxide mouthwash

B: Prescribe broad spectrum antibiotics and mouthwash

C: Gently debride the ulcers and symptomatic treatment only

D: Systemic antibiotics only

C C Correct

95 If histologic slide and contents of canal space could

A: Normal pulp C C Correct

be obtained, the most likely finding in the region of radiolucency in a case of internal resorption would be:

B: Pulpal necrosis

C: Osteoclastic activity

D: Marked decrease in cellularity

96 A patient with severely discolored teeth; fractured enamel, undefined DEJ and severe attrition may be suffering from:

A: Severe fluorosis

B: Dentinogenesis imperfecta

C: Amelogenesis imperfecta

D: Dentin dysplasia

B B Correct

97 Periapical cyst can be differentiated from periapical granuloma by:

A: Radiograph

B: Vitality testing

C: Histopathology

D: Transillumination

C C Correct

98 Root caries is caused by: A: Lactobacillus

B: S.Viridans

C: Actinomyces sp.

D: S. Sanguis

C C Correct

99 Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth are called:

A: Neonatal

B: Natal

C: Primary

D: Prenatal

B A Incorrect

100 Nasoalveolar cyst is also known as:

A: Klestdats cyst

B: Median palatal cyst

C: Epsteins pearls

A C Incorrect

D: Nasopalatine duct cyst

101 Which deficiency affects tooth development:

A: Vit A

B: Carbohydrates

C: Vit E

D: Vit B

A A Correct

102 Herpangina is caused by: A: Coxsackie virus

B: Herpes Zoster

C: CMV

D: HSV

A A Correct

103 Dentinogenesis imperfecta is inherited as:

A: Autosomal dominant

B: Autosomal recessive

C: Sex linked dominant

D: Sex linked recessive

A A Correct

104 Rushton bodies are seen in: A: Periapical granuloma

B: Periapical cyst

C: Dentigerous cyst

D: Primordial cyst

B B Correct

105 A child reports with greenish stains on teeth. The most probable cause is:

A: Material alba

B: Enamel defects

C: Dentin defects

D: Chromogenic bacteria

D D Correct

106 Most common site for keratoacanthoma is:

A: Lip A C Incorrect

B: Buccal mucosa

C: Palate

D: Tongue

107 Which is most difficult to diagnose radiographically:

A: Necrosed pulp

B: Internal resorption

C: External resorption

D: Acute apical abscess

A D Incorrect

108 Turner hypoplasia is caused by:

A: Hypoplasia due to local trauma/infection

B: Hypoplasia due to systemic infection

C: Hypoplasia due to congenital syphilis

D: Hypoplasia due to fluoride ingestion

A A Correct

109 Most common tumor of parotid gland is:

A: Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

B: Adenoid cystic carcinoma

C: Pleomorphic adenoma

D: Warthins tumor

C C Correct

110 Ehler Danlos syndrome is: A: Autosomal dominant

B: Autosomal recessive

C: Sex linked dominant

D: Sex linked recessive

A A Correct

111 Lubricating gel used while A: Soapy water B C Incorrect

rubber dam placement are all except: B: Vaseline

C: Shaving Cream

D: Scrub gel

112 Which of the following techniques is not used in placement of rubber dam with wingless clamps:

A: Place the clamp on tooth and insert the dam

B: Place the dam on the tooth and then position the clamp over it

C: Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a forcep under the dam.

D: Place the dam over the clamp and frame outside the oral cavity and then on tooth using a forcep over the dam.

D - Unanswered

113 To increase the efficiency and life of a tungsten carbide bur, it should be:

A: Run only after touching the tooth

B: Run at high speed before touching the tooth

C: Run at low speed before touching the tooth

D: Run before entering the oral cavity

B B Correct

114 While restoring a tooth with composite resin, the etched surface gets contaminated with saliva accidentally.

A: Wipe the saliva with corton and continue to restore

C C Correct

What would be done next: B: Wash with water, dry area and continue restoration

C: Dry the area and re-etch before restoring

D: Add excess composite material and cure it

115 A patient reports after 1 hour of restoration of a mandibular molar with a gold inlay with the complaint of shooting pain when the teeth come in contact. What must be the cause:

A: Supraocclusion

B: Allergic reaction

C: Galvanic current between opposing amalgam restoration

D: Extra cement

C A Incorrect

116 For a cast porcelain inlay, the facial wall should:

A: Converge facially

B: Parallel to external wall

C: At right angle to tooth surface

D: Diverge facially

D - Unanswered

117 Due to phenomenon of abfraction, material of choice for restoration in Class V cavities is:

A: GIC

B: RM-GIC

C: Compomer

D: Microfilled composite

D A Incorrect

118 Class V cavity prepared for amalgam and composite differs in:

A: Mesial and distal walls

B: Cavosurface margin

B - Unanswered

C: Position ofretentive grooves

D: Depth of cavity

119 Polymerization shrinkage of composite causes compression stress of:

A: 1 MPa

B: 5 MPa

C: 15 MPa

D: 30 MPa

B - Unanswered

120 Most common site for caries occurrence

A: At contact

B: Above contact

C: Below contact point and above gingival level

D: Below contact and below gingival level

C B Incorrect

121 If F2 protaper is cut 1 nun short at apex, what will be the effective diameter:

A: 0.29 mm

B: 0.30 mm

C: 0.31mm

D: 0.33 mm

D - Unanswered

122 In a tooth with gingival recession undergoing RCT, the G.P. cone is sealed at:

A: 1 mm below the level of recession

B: 1 mm below roof of pulp chamber

C: At the level of CEJ

D: 1 mm above the opening of canal

A - Unanswered

123 Action of primer is to: A: Removal of smear layer

B: Increases surface free

B - Unanswered

energy of dentin

C: Forms thin layer between collagen and resin

D: Bonds with composite

124 Tevdek sutures used in endodontic microsurgery is removed in:

A: 24 - 48 hrs

B: 48 - 72 hrs

C: In 7 days

D: In 10 days

A - Unanswered

125 While using Calzinol as a temporary cement, what should be the thickness of material:

A: 1 mm

B: 2 mm

C: 3 mm

D: 4 mm

D - Unanswered

126 When pins are used in amalgam, strength of amalgam: _

A: Decreases

B: Increases

C: Remains same

D: May increase or decrease

A A Correct

127 To restore stable acid eroded non carious lesion, which is the optimal material:

A: GIC

B: RM-GIC

C: Compomer

D: Composite

A A Correct

128 The most important aspect in gold inlay cavity design:

A: Axiopulpal bevel

B: Gingival bevel

B A Incorrect

C: Occlusal bevel

D: Axiofacial bevel

129 Radiographically an extensive carious lesion is seen reaching upto pulp horn. The treatment of choice is:

A: Remove caries and give sedative dressing

B: RCT

C: Pulptomy

D: Remove caries and cap pulpal exposure

A D Incorrect

130 When a child patient is not able to hold the film during X-ray, who should hold the film:

A: Dental assistant

B: Parent

C: Dentist

D: Radiographer

B C Incorrect

131 An 8 yr old boy comes to the clinic with the chief complain of 2 large and jagged front teeth. Treatment would be:

A: Trim the teeth and apply fluoride varnish to prevent sensitivity

B: Build the teeth to same size with composite

C: Extract the teeth

D: Reassure the parents that the condition will correct by itself and send home

D B Incorrect

132 A 6 year old patient reports with greenish blue swelling distal to deciduous 2"d molar. Treatment would be:

A: No treatment, only observation

B: Surgical excision of flap

C: Bone graft

A D Incorrect

D: Injecting proteolytic solution in the area

133 In a child, failure of inferior alveolar nerve block is caused by:

A: Position of mandibular foramen

B: Angle (position) of needle

C: Concentration of LA

D: None of the above

A A Correct

134 Alveolar bone grafting in a cleft palate patient is done:

A: After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and before canine eruption

B: Before maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and after canine eruption

C: After maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and after canine eruption

D: Before maxillary expansion, cross bite correction and before canine eruption

A C Incorrect

135 Chronic pulpal involvement in a deciduous molar is first manifested as:

A: Normal pulp

B: Widening of PDL in apical 1/3 rd

C: Radiolucency in furcation area

D: Radiolucency at apex of root

C C Correct

136 After enamel has been A: 24 hours D A Incorrect

exposed to bacteria, irreversible bacterial colonization takes place in about:

B: Few minutes

C: 1-2 hours

D: 2 - 4 hours

137 Which of the following organisms is NOT implicated in the etiology of periodontal diseases?

A: Bacteroides

B: Wolinella

C: Neisseria

D: Eikenella

C C Correct

138 Which of the following is most useful in differentiating an acute periodontal abscess from periapical abscess?

A: Type of exudate

B: Nature of swelling

C: Intensity of pain

D: Result of periodontal probing

D D Correct

139 A periodontometer is a device used to measure:

A: Gingival bone count

B: Tooth mobility

C: Debris and materia alba

D: Gingival bleeding

B - Unanswered

140 In chronic marginal gingivitis, radiographic changes seen are:

A: Horizontal bone loss

B: Vertical bone loss

C: Angular bone loss

D: No change

D A Incorrect

141 The bacterial flora associated with juvenile periodontitis is mainly:

A: Gram positive aerobic cocci

B: Gram positive anaerobic cocci

D D Correct

C: Gram negative aerobic rods

D: Gram negative anaerobic rods

142 If an osseous fill procedure is successful, the type of bone formed in the defect is:

A: Cancellous

B: Bundle

C: Spongy

D: None of the above

B A Incorrect

143 The interdental col is more prone to periodontal disease because it:

A: Is covered with non keratinized epithelium

B: Is difficult to clean

C: Harbours bacterial plaque

D: All of the above

A D Incorrect

144 Apical migration of the epithelial attachment with corresponding recession of the marginal gingiva results in:

A: A shallow sulcus

B: Gingival pocket formation

C: Infrabony pocket formation

D: Periodontal pocket formation

A D Incorrect

145 Tobacco chewing is thought to be a contributing predisposing factor in which condition:

A: Desquamative gingivitis

B: ANUG

C: Juvenile periodontitis

D: Erythema multi forme

B A Incorrect

146 The attached gingiva is: A: Always stippled

B: Non keratinized

C: Resistant to masticatory stress and forces

D: Resistant to inflammatory changes

C C Correct

147 A probable etiology of gingivosis is:

A: High progesterone levels

B: Deficiency of estrogen and testosterone

C: Pregnancy

D: Aldosterone deficiency

A C Incorrect

148 Supragingival plaque undergoes which of the following changes with time:

A: Plaque mass decreases

B: Plaque microflora becomes more gram positive

C: Plaque microflora becomes more gram negative

D: Plaque microflora becomes predominantly spirochetal

C C Correct

149 The difference in the color between subgingival and supraginagival calculus is related to:

A: pH of the saliva

B: Death of the leukocytes

C: Haemolysis of

C D Incorrect

erythrocytes

D: All of the above

150 Which is a characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival plaque in humans:

A: Motile bacteria are predominant

B: Spirochetes are evident microscopically

C: Gram negative bacteria are predominant

D: Bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar consumption

D D Correct

151 Delayed hypersensitivity or cell mediated immune reactions occur in patients with periodontal diseases because they often have:

A: IgG antibody reactive with plaque bacterial antigens

B: T - lymphocytes sensitized to plaque bacterial antigens

C: Soluble immune complexes within involved gingival tissue

D: All of the above

B B Correct

152 The type of bone present in the interdental area is:

A: Cortical

B: Cancellous

C: Osteophytic

D: Exophytic

A A Correct

153 The type of bone present in the labial anterior teeth is:

A: Cortical

B: Concellous

A A Correct

C: Osteophytic

D: Exophytic

154 The gingival fiber group which inserts into 2 adjacent teeth is the:

A: Horizontal group

B: Circular group

C: Trans - septal group

D: Oblique group

C C Correct

155 The most common cause of dry mouth in the adult patient is:

A: Tranquilizers

B: Antihistamines

C: Insulin

D: Birth control pills

B A Incorrect

156 The most common clinical sign of occlusal trauma is the presence of:

A: Wear facets

B: Tooth mobility

C: Enamel cracks

D: Cuspal fracture

A D Incorrect

157 Dental floss should ideally be used in:

A: Type I embrasures

B: Type II embrasures

C: Type III embrasure

D: All of the above

A D Incorrect

158 The severe alveolar bone loss seen in patients with juvenile periodontitis is associated with:

A: Impaired osteoblastic activity

B: Increased phagocytosis

C: Increased macrophage migration

D: Impaired neutrophil

D A Incorrect

chemotaxis

159 Champy plate is: A: Monocortical compressive

B: Monocortical non compressive

C: Bicortical non compressive

D: Bicortical compressive

B - Unanswered

160 Most common third molar impaction is:

A: Mesioangular

B: Distoangular

C: Horizontal

D: Vertical

A A Correct

161 When a case is transferred to ICU, mandibular fractures.are evaluated in:

A: Primary survey

B: Secondary survey

C: Primary survey with IMF

D: Away from resuscitation room

B C Incorrect

162 According to rule of tension and compressional forces acting along the condylar border, best way to stabilize a condylar fracture against these forces would require:

A: One plate at anterior border and one at posterior

B: A plate at anterior border

C: A plate at posterior border

D: A plate at lateral border

D - Unanswered

163 Based on Champys principle A: Fixation of segments A B Incorrect

of tension and compression, angle fracture is best treated with:

with bone plates according to AO principles _

B: Compression plating

C: IMF

D: External pin fixation

164 Treatment of comminuted fracture of mandible would require use of:

A: Reconstruction plates with centric screws

B: Dynamic compression plates with eccentric screws

C: Multiple miniplates

D: Single rniniplate which gives functional union

A - Unanswered

165 Type of healing seen after compression plating is:

A: Primary w/o callus formation

B: Secondary

C: Tertiary

D: All

A B Incorrect

166 A case of subcondylar fracture with fragment overlap of> 5 mm and deviation of> 37° degrees would require:

A: Closed reduction and IMF

B: ORIF

C: Soft diet

D: No treatment

B - Unanswered

167 A patient had a fall resulting in midsymphyseal guardsman fracture. While reducing the fracture lingual

A: Interpupillary distance

B: Intercanthal distance

C D Incorrect

splaying of the segments was noted. This will cause increase in:

C: Interangular distance

D: Go-Gn distance

168 Radiographically level of normal alveolar crest is related to:

A: CEJ

B: DEJ

C: Gingival margin

D: None

A A Correct

169 Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in:

A: Fibrous dysplasia

B: Osteitis deformans

C: Osteomyelitis

D: Ewings sarcoma

B B Correct

170 Staghorn pattern is seen in: A: Hemangioma

B: Hemangiopericytoma

C: Neurofibroma

D: None

B D Incorrect

171 Radiopacity at apex of a carious molar could be:

A: Periapical granuloma

B: Condensing osteitis

C: Periapical cyst

D: Cementoma

B A Incorrect

172 Which of the following is identified only by radiographs:

A: Acute pulpitis

B: Periapical granuloma

C: Mental foramen

D: Cementoma

C C Correct

173 Radiographs alone can detect in a pocket:

A: Number of remaining bony walls

D C Incorrect

B: Shape of bony defect

C: Extent of bone loss

D: None of the above

174 Radiographic feature of sinusitis includes:

A: Erosion of bone

B: Clouding of antra

C: Fluid level

D: Fluid level and clouding

B D Incorrect

175 Ground glass appearance of bone in radiograph is seen in:

A: Hyperparathyroidism

B: Hyperthyroidism

C: Hypothyroidism

D: Fibrous dysplasia

A D Incorrect

176 On a radiograph, irregularities were found on the roots of lower incisors. It may be:

A: Subgingival calculus

B: Root caries

C: Epithelial attachment

D: CEJ

A A Correct

177 Which is the best technique for detecting proximal caries in children with miniumum radiation exposure:

A: Bitewing with paralleling technique

B: Bitewing with bisecting angle technique

C: Bitewing with RVG

D: Panoramic radiography

C C Correct

178 Bisecting angle technique is based on:

A: Rule of isometry D A Incorrect

B: ALARA

C: SLOB

D: Cizynskis rule

179 Mc Gregor and Trapnell lines are seen on a

A: SMV

B: PA view skull

C: Waters view

D: True lateral view

C - Unanswered

180 Radiograph alone can diagnose:

A: Periodontal pocket

B: Periodontal abcess

C: Anatomic root length

D: Bifurcation involvement

C D Incorrect

181 In a radiograph, the buccal root of maxillary 1sl premolar appears to be distal to the lingual root. The angulation of the cone was:

A: From mesial to premolar

B: From distal to premolar

C: 10 degrees from above in vertical angulation

D: 10 degrees from below in vertical angulation

A - Unanswered

182 On the radiograph, the mesial site of mandibular 1sl molar reveled bone loss of 2-3mm. On probing, 6 mm pocket was revealed. The discrepancy could be due to:

A: Angulation of radiograph

B: Superimposition of bone remaining on facial and lingual surfaces

B C Incorrect

C: Bone remaining on mesial aspect

D: Taurodontism

183 Moth eaten appearance is seen in all except:

A: Osteomyelitis

B: Hemorrhagic bone cyst

C: OKC

D: Osteosarcoma

C D Incorrect

184 Sampling unit represents: A: Sample group

B: Subset of sample

C: Every individual in sample

D: All

C B Incorrect

185 Which of these represent a normal distribution:

A: Mean is 1, SD is 0

B: Mean=median=mode

C: Curve skewed towards left

D: Curve skewed towards right

B - Unanswered

186 Best way to prevent caries by APF gel application in a patient with high caries index:

A: 2 times per year

B: 4 times per year

C: Every 4 weeks

D: 6 times per year

A - Unanswered

187 Absorbed fluoride is eliminated mainly by:

A: Kidney

B: Lung

C: Liver

A A Correct

D: Saliva

188 Occupational cancers involves following organs except:

A: Lung

B: Breast

C: Bladder

D: Liver

B B Correct

189 Specificity of a screening test measures:

A: True positives

B: False positives

C: False negatives

D: True negatives

D B Incorrect

190 BMI to classify obesity should be:

A: more than equal to 20

B: more than equal to 30

C: more than equal to 40

D: more than equal to 50

B - Unanswered

191 Measure of relative variability:

A: Standard deviation

B: Coefficient of variance

C: Standard error of mean

D: None of the above

B A Incorrect

192 In national water supply and sanitation programme a problem village is defined as all except:

A: Distance of safe water is greater than 1.6 km

B: Water is exposed to the risk of cholera

D D Correct

C: Water source has excess iron and heavy metals

D: Water infested with guinea worm

193 Which index would you use to assess the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studies of a large population:

A: PMA index

B: Gingival index

C: Periodontal index

D: Sulcus bleeding index

C A Incorrect

194 The following plaque index divides each tooth surface into 9 areas:

A: Patient hygiene performance index

B: Plaque index by Silness and Loe

C: Modified navy plaque index

D: Glass criteria for scoring debris

C - Unanswered

195 In India the leading cause of maternal mortality IS:

A: Anemia

B: Hemorrhage

C: Abortion

D: Sepsis

B D Incorrect

196 In which of the following diseases the overall survival rate is increased by screening procedure:

A: Prostate Ca

B: Lung Ca

C: Colon Ca

D: Ovarian Ca

C D Incorrect

197 In a study in UK, an association was found

A: Ecological study A C Incorrect

between sale of antiarrythmic drug and an increase in death due to asthama. This is an example of:

B: Cohort study

C: Case reference study

D: Experimental study

198 Which of the following is an example of disability limitation:

A: Reducing occurrence of polio by immunization

B: Arranging for schooling of children from PRPP

C: Resting affected limbs in neutral position

D: Providing calipers for walking

C D Incorrect

199 Life cycle of filaria is: A: Cyclodevelopmental

B: Cyclopropagative

C: Propagative

D: Transovarian

A A Correct

200 Adjuvant used in DPT vaccine is:

A: Zinc

B: Aluminum

C: Copper

D: Magnesium

B D Incorrect