Admission to the Science Stream Class XI and Diploma Courses
for the Academic year 2021 -2022
Instructions:
2. Maximum marks : 120
Section A : 60 questions based on X standard Science portion
Section B : 60 questions based on X standard Mathematics portion
4. Each question is provided with four alternatives. Answer to each question is
to be indicated by darkening the correct alternative in the OMR sheet
provided with the Question Paper.
5. Each correct answer will carry a weightage of 1 mark.
Section A
1 Real images are formed by A) converging rays B) diverging rays C) Both A) and B) D) Neither A) nor B)
2 In a convex lens, we get virtual image when the object is A) between F and 2F B) beyond 2F C) between F and optic centre D) None of these
3 The Sun is seen before the actual sun rise because of A) reflection B) refraction C) scattering of light D) rectilinear propagation of light
4 By using a concave mirror, image of a tree is focussed on a screen. The distance between the screen and the mirror is A) equal to radius of curvature of the mirror B) equal to half the radius of curvature of the mirror C) equal to twice the focal length of the mirror D) equal to one fourth the focal length of the mirror
5 A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each focal length of -15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be A) both concave
B) both convex C) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex D) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave
6 The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about A) 25 m B) 2.5 cm C) 25 cm D) 2.5 m
7 A lens a power of 3 dioptre, then its focal length is approximately A) 0.3 cm B) 33 cm C) 3 cm D) 33 m
8 Which of the following statement is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light in air? A) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed B) Red light moves fastest C) Blue light moves faster than green light D) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
9 Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit? A) I2R B) V I C) V2/ R D) I R2
10 A heater of resistance 10 ohms draws 10 A current, the electric power it consumes is A) 1 watt B) 100 watt C) 1 kilowatt D) 100 kilowatt
11 Two resistances of 2 ohm each are connected in parallel across a battery of 5 volt, the current in the circuit is A) 0.5 A B) 5 A C) 2.5 A D) 0.8 A
12 Specific resistance of a wire depends on the A) length of the wire B) area of cross section of the wire C) resistance of the wire D) material of the wire
13 If 2 A of current flows through a conductor, the charge that flows in one minute is A) 12 coulomb B) 60 coulomb C) 2 coulomb D) 120 Coulomb
14 A positively- charged particle ( alpha particle ) projected towards west is deflected towards north by a magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is A) upward B) towards east C) downward D) towards south
15 The magnetic field inside a long straight current carrying solenoid _______ A) is zero B) decreases as we move towards its centre C) increases as we move towards its end D) is the same at all points
16 Two magnetic lines of force do not intersect because A) they are at a distance B) they are in same direction C) at the point of intersection there will be two directions to the magnetic force which is not possible D) they are parallel to each other
17 In an electric motor, conversion takes place of A) Electrical energy into mechanical energy B) Chemical energy into electrical energy C) Electrical energy into light D) Electrical energy into chemical energy
18 Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house effect? A) Coating with the black colour inside the box B) Glass sheet C) Mirror D) Outer cover of the solar cooker
19 Biogas is produced from biomatter by A) mixing petrol in the biomatter B) fractional distillation C) anaerobic fermentation D) destructive distillation
20 Which form of energy is contained in the wind energy? A) Potential energy B) Thermal energy C) Electric energy D) Kinetic energy
21 After white washing of walls, the walls have a shiny finish due to the presence of A) Ca (OH)2 B) CO2 C) CaO D) CaCO3
22 In the reaction, (x)HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 Ca(NO3)2 + (y)H2O the value of (x) and (y) respectively are A) (x) = 2, (y) = 1 B) (x) = 2, (y) = 2 C) (x) = 1, (y) = 1 D) (x) = 1, (y) = 2
23 Observe the two beakers given below Pb(NO3)2(aq) + KI(aq) Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) Beaker 1 Beaker 2 Identify the correct statements from those given below : A) Beaker 1 : double displacement and precipitation reaction Beaker 2 : double displacement and precipitation reaction B) Beaker 1 : displacement and precipitation reaction Beaker 2 : displacement and precipitation reaction C) Beaker 1 : double displacement and precipitation reaction Beaker 2 : displacement reaction D) Beaker 1 : double displacement and precipitation reaction Beaker 2 : displacement and precipitation reaction
24 Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect? 2PbO(s) + C (s) 2 Pb (s) + CO2(g) i) Lead is getting reduced ii) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised iii) Carbon is getting oxidised iv) Lead oxide is getting reduced A) i), ii), and iii) B) i) and iii) C) i) and ii) D) i), ii), iii) and iv)
25 pH values of five solutions I, II, III, IV and V is given in the table below
Solution pH
IV 7 V 9
The solution which is weakly alkaline is ________ A) IV B) V C) III D) I
26 Match the entries given in Column I with appropriate entries given in Column II
Column I Column II
i) Plaster of Paris P) FeSO4.7H2O ii) Washing Soda Q) CuSO4.5H2O
iii) Gypsum R) CaSO4. 1/2H2O iv) Copper sulphate S) Na2CO3.10H2O
T) CaSO4.2H2O
A) i) → R), ii) → S), iii) → T), iv) → Q) B) i) → T), ii) → P), iii) → R), iv) → Q) C) i) → T), ii) → S), iii) → P), iv) → Q) D) i) → R), ii) → P), iii) → S), iv) → Q)
27 Identify the correct statement from the following statements given below: A) CO2 is evolved when HCl is added to NaHCO3 B) Phenolphthalein gives pink colour with dilute HCl C) Non – Metallic oxides are neutral in nature D) Dry HCl gas changes the colour of blue litmus paper
28 Some compounds are given: NaCl , AlCl3 , CH3COONH4 and CH3COONa The correct statement about the above given compounds is A) NaCl → salt of strong acid + weak base B) AlCl3 → salt of weak acid + strong base C) CH3COONH4 → salt of weak acid + strong base D) CH3COONa → salt of weak acid + strong base
29 Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting? A) Applying grease B) Applying paint C) Applying a coating of zinc D) All of the above
30 The least reactive metal is A) Copper B) Aluminium C) Potassium D) Gold
31 The metals that are refined electrolytically is / are A) Zn B) Sn C) Ni D) All of these
32 Which among the given compounds is ionic compound? A) CaCl2 B) Fe3O4 C) Ca(OH)2 D) NaAlO2
33 Propane with molecular formula C3H8 has A) 8 covalent bonds B) 10 covalent bonds C) 9 covalent bonds D) 11 covalent bonds
34 Observe the following pairs of organic compounds (I) C3H7OH and C5H11OH (II) C3H7OH and C4H9OH (III) C2H5OH and C4H9OH Which of these pairs is a homologus series? A) (I) only B) (I) and (II) only C) (II) only D) (I), (II) and (III)
35 Alkaline KMnO4 CH3- CH2OH CH3COOH is a _________. Heat A) Substitution reaction B) Oxidation reaction C) Combustion reaction D) Addition reaction
36
The name of H CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – C =O is __________ A) Butanoic acid B) Butanol C) Butanone D) Butanal
37 The correct increasing order of atomic radii of second period elements is A) N < O < Be < B < Li B) O < N < Be < B < Li C) O = N < Be < B < Li D) O < N < B < Be < Li
38 Which of the following element belongs to 3rd Period and is a metal? A) Si (B) B (C) Al (D) Cl
39 Element ‘P’ forms an oxide with the formula PO which has a high melting point. Element ‘P’ would be in the same group of the Periodic table as ______ A) Mg (B) Al (C) Na (D) Si
40 The number of valence electrons that can be present in the 2nd element of any Period is ___________ A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 7
41 The enzyme in saliva is A) Pepsin B) Amylase C) Trypsin D) Lipase
42 Movement of food through oesophagus is due to A) Gravity B) Peristalsis C) Lubrication of saliva D) All of the above
43 The correct sequence of air passage is? A) Nostrils → larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs B) Nasal passage → trachea → pharynx → larynx → alveoli C) Larynx → nostrils → pharynx → lungs D) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea
44 The liquid which collects in the cavity of the Bowman’s capsule is A) Concentrated urine B) Glycogen and water C) Blood plasma minus blood proteins D) Used bile for excretion
45 Blood pressure is measured with a A) Sphygmomanometer B) Thermometer C) Stethoscope D) Oximeter
46 Oxygenated blood in the human heart enters the A) Left atrium and right ventricle B) Right atrium and left ventricle C) Left atrium and left ventricle D) Right atrium and right ventricle
47 This is produced in muscles due to lack of oxygen A) Hydrochloric acid B) Nucleic acid C) Lactic acid D) Amino acid
48 Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc? A) Receptors → muscles → sensory neuron → motor neuron → spinal cord B) Receptors → motor neuron → spinal cord → sensory neuron → muscle C) Receptors → spinal cord → sensory neurons → motor neuron → muscles D) Receptors → sensory neuron → spinal cord → motor neuron → muscles
49 The hormone responsible for Masculine characters is ______ A) estrogen B) adrenaline C) testosterone D) progesterone
50 Which of the following does not secrete any hormone? A) Thyroid B) Ovary C) Testes D) Spleen
51 The process of release of an egg from the ovary is called A) menstruation B) ovulation C) oogenesis D) none of these
52 The condition when the menstrual cycle stops is known as A) puberty B) menstruation C) menopause D) gestation
53 This organism reproduces by regeneration A) Spirogyra B) Planaria C) Hydra D) Rhizopus
54 This is not the female part of the flower A) Ovary B)Style C) Stamen D) Stigma
55 Which of the following match is correct? A) Cotyledons – food store B) Plumule – future shoot C) Radicle – future root D) All of the above
56 Mendel conducted his famous breeding experiments by working on A) Drosophila B) Pisum sativum C) Escherichia coli D) All of these
57 A true breeding tall and smooth-seeded pea plant was crossed with a true breeding dwarf and wrinkled-seeded -plant. All the F1 plants were tall and demonstrate A) principle of assortment of characters B) that recombination of characters appears in F2 generation C) that P tall plants were heterozygous D) that tallness was dominant over dwarfness
58 Mendel studied 7 contrasting characters for his breeding experiment with Pisum sativum. Which of the following character did he not use? A) Pod colour B) Pod shape C) Leaf shaped D) Plant height
59 In the given food chain suppose the amount of energy at 4th trophic level is 5kJ what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass >>> grasshopper >>> frog >>> snake >>> hawk
A) 5kJ B) 50kJ C) 500kJ D)5000kJ
60 Name the gas which plays major role in global warming A) Carbon dioxide B) Hydrogen sulphide C) Carbon monoxide D) Sulphur dioxide
Section B
61 The discriminant of the quadratic equation (A) 1 (B) -81 (C) 81 (D) 3
62 If the discriminant of the quadratic equation
(A) (B) (C) (D)
63 If a number is added to twice its square, then the resultant is 21. The quadratic representation of this situation is ----------.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
64 What is the nature of roots of the quadratic equation ? (A) real and equal (B) real and distinct (C) no real roots (D) imaginary
65 Which of the following is not a quadratic equation.
(A) 16
− 1 =
+1 (B) y(8y + 5) = y2 + 3
66 The sum of the roots of the quadratic equation is equal to --------- (A) 2 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) 0
67 If x=-2 is a solution of the equation , then the value of k is --- (A) 8 (B) -8 (C) 6 (D) -6
68 For what value of k, 3 is a zero of the polynomial (A) 10 (B) 21 (C) -21 (D) 20
69
The degree of the polynomial is equal to -------- (A) 4 (B) 9 (C) 5 (D) 0
70 If one zero of polynomial r, then the value of k is equal to ----- (A) - 2 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
71 If
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) -1
72 If and are the sum and product of the quadratic polynomial , then the quadratic polynomial is ---
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
73 The solution of pair of equations y = 0 and y = - 6 is ---- (A) x= 6, y= 0 (B) no solution (C) x=0, y= 6 (D) x=0, y=-6
74 The value of k , for the given equations 5x+ky=4 and 15x + 3y= 12 to have infinitely many solutions is ---- (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) - 1 (D) - 2
75 For the linear equations 3x-2y = 5 and 3y -2x = 3 the value of x +y is equal to _____ (A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 9
76 If x=a , y = b is the solution of the equations x-y = 2 and x + y = 4 , then the value of a and b is equal to ________. (A) a=-3, b=1 (B) a=-1, b= -3 (C) a=1, b=3 (D) a=3, b=1
77 The condition for pair of linear equations ax + by = c and lx + my = n to have unique solutions is ---
(A)

≠


78
If x= 2 and y= - 3 is the solution of the 2x + 3y = - 5 and ax +2y = 4 then value of a is ---- (A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
79 For finding the popular size of readymade garments, which central tendency is used? (A)Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D)Both mean and mode
80 The median of the data 34, 23, 14, 21, 12 , 66 , is equal to ______ (A) 44 (B) 17.5 (C) 22 (D) 21
81 If mode = 80 and mean = 110, then the median is equal to ________ (A) 30 (B) 300 (C) 100 (D) 190
82 If
(A) 124
5 (B)
83 If _______. (A) 90 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 30
84 If
85 (A) 64 (B) 26 (C) 8 (D) 32
86 The value of (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) -1 (D)2
87 = ----
88
If where 3A is an acute angle, then the value of A is -- (A) 54 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 52
89 = ----
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) (D)
91 If (A) 1 (B) 0 (C) not defined (D) -1
92
(A) (B) (C) (D)
93 The distance between the points from A=(1,0) and B= ( 0,-1) is ---units
(A) √3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D)√2
94 The coordinates of the point , where the line x - y = 5 cuts Y- axis is ---- (A) (0, -5) (B) (0, 5) (C) (10, 6) (D) (6, 10)
95 The coordinates of the centre of the circle whose endpoints of diameter are (2, 6) and (8,0) is ------ (A) (3,5) (B) (5,3) (C) (10,6) (D) (6,10)
96 The distance of the point ( 2, 7) from the x- axis is -------units (A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 2 (D) 7
97 The area formed by the points (0.3), (0, -4) and (0,5) is ---- sq. units (A) 10 (B) 26 (C) 0 (D) 60
98 In a quadrilateral ABCD ,if ar( ABD) is 27Sq units and area of quadrilateral ABCD is
125 Sq units, then ar( BCD ) is ------ sq. units (A) 142 (B) 152 (C) 98 (D) 138
99 The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points (4,-3) and ( 2,1) in the ratio 2:1 is ------
(A) ( −1
A) 1 (B) 2√3 (C) √3 (D) -√3
101 The 10th term of the sequence 7, 3, -1, -5 is ------ A) - 6 (B) 20 (C) 45 (D) - 29
102 The 7th term from the end of the A.P 7, 10, 13,…. 184 is ------ A) 168 (B) 166 (C) 202 (D) 164
103 In an AP , if the first term is 8 and the common difference is 4, then The ninth term of AP is equal to _______ A) 4 (B) 20 (C) 40 (D) 64
104 The sum of all natural numbers from 1 to 100 is ------ A) 5020 (B) 5050 (C) 5040 (D) 5030
105 The number of terms of the AP 7, 4, 1, -2,… -65 is ------ A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 25 (D) 22
106 Rahul invests Rs 10 on first day and increases the investment by Rs 2 per day, then his total collection after 10 days is ----- A) 180 (B) 190 (C) 170 (D) 160
107 If 2 coins are tossed simultaneously , then the probability of getting at least one head is --
A) (B) (C) (D) 1
108 A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52 playing cards. The probability of getting a king of black colour is ---
A) (B) (C) (D)
109 A die is thrown once . What is the probability that the number appearing on the top of the die is less than 5?
A) (B) (C) (D) 1
110 A box contains 5 red marbles, 7 black marbles and 9 white marbles. If only one marble is drawn at random from the box, the probability of not getting a white marble is _________.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
111 If the probability of losing an event is 0.03, then the probability of winning an event is --- (A) 0.97 (B) 1.03 (C) 1 (D) 0
112 A lot of 20 bulbs contain 4 defective ones. One bulb is drawn at random from the lot. What is the probability that the bulb is not defective?
A) (B) (C) (D)
113 If 2 dice are thrown simultaneously, then the number of all possible outcomes is ---- (A) 26 (B) 6 (C) 36 (D) 121
114
In A-D-B and A-E-C , AD=2.4cm, AE=3.2cm, EC=4.8cm, then AB = ---- (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 6.4 (D) 3.6
115
If DS=15cm, SA=20cm, XY =12cm then YZ = ---- A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 9 (D) 4
116
If
117
If If AB = 26 cm, then DE = ------. A) 11 (B) 52 (C) 13 (D) 22
118 In Δ ABC, ∠BCA = 90ο and Q is the midpoint of BC, then (AB)2 = − − −
(A) ()2 + ()2 (B) 4()2 − 3()2
(C) 2()2 + 3()2 (D) 3()2 + 4()2
119
If ar( ABC ): ar( PQR) = 25 : 9 then PQ : AB = ---- A) 225:81 (B) 81:225 (C) 5:3 (D) 3:5
120 In the figure of the given construction, if
A) 2:3 (B) 3:2 (C) 2:5 (D) 2:1