ACCOUNTANCY AUGUST ASSIGNMENT CLASS XII CH 5: Multiple

AUGUST ASSIGNMENT
CLASS XII
CH – 5: Multiple Choice Questions/Objective Type Questions: Admission of a Partner
Q. 1 Which of the following is not the reconstitution of partnership?
a) Admission of a partner
b) Dissolution of Partnership
d) Retirement of a partner
Q. 2 On the admission of a new partner:
a) Old partnership is dissolved
b) Both old partnership and firm are dissolved
c) Old firm is dissolved
d) None of the above
Q. 3 Sacrificing ratio is used to distribute ------------------ in case of admission of a partner.
a) Goodwill
c) Profit and Loss Account (Credit Balance)
d) Both b and c
Q. 4 “At the time of admission, old partnership comes to an end”. Is the statement true or false?
Q. 5Himanshu and Naman share profits & losses equally. Their capitals were Rs.1,20,000 and
Rs. 80,000 respectively. There was also a balance of Rs. 60,000 in General reserve and
revaluation gain amounted to Rs. 15,000. They admit friend Ashish with 1/5 share.
Ashish brings Rs.90,000 as capital. Calculate the amount of goodwill of the firm.
a. Rs.1,00,000
d. None of the above
Q. 6Yash and Manan are partners sharing profits in the ratio of2:1. They admit Kushagra into
partnership for 25% share of profit. Kushagra acquired the share from old partners in the
ratio of 3:2. The new profit sharing ratio will be:
a) 14:31:15
b) 3:2:1
c) 31:14:15
d) 2:3:1
Q. 7A and B are partners sharing profit and losses in ratio of 5:3. C is admitted for 1/4 th
share.
On the date of reconstitution, the debtors stood at Rs 40,000, bill receivable stood at Rs.
10,000 and the provision for doubtful debts appeared at Rs. 4000. A bill receivable, of Rs
10,000 which was discounted from the bank, earlier has been reported to be dishonored.
The firm has sold, the debtor so arising to a debt collection agency at a loss of 40%. If bad
debts now have arisen for Rs 6,000 and firm decides to maintain provisions at same rate as
before then amount of Provision to be debited to Revaluation Account would be:
a) Rs 4,400
b) Rs 4,000
c) Rs 3,400
Q. 8Heena and Sudha share Profit & Loss equally. Their capitals were Rs.1,20,000 and Rs.
80,000 respectively. There was also a balance of Rs. 60,000 in General reserve and
revaluation gain amounted to Rs. 15,000. They admit friend Teena with 1/5 share. Teena
brings Rs.90,000 as capital. Calculate the amount of goodwill of the firm.
a) Rs.85,000
b) Rs.1,00,000
c) Rs.20,000
Q. 9 “As per Section 26 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, a person can be admitted as a new
partner if it is agreed in the Partnership Deed”. Is the statement True or False?
Q. 10 Which of the following is not true with respect to Admission of a partner?
a) A new partner can be admitted if it is agreed in the partnership deed.
b) If all the partners agree, a new partner can be admitted.
c) A new partner has to bring relatively higher capital as compared to the existing partners
d) A new partner gets right in the assets of the firm
Q. 11As per ---------, only purchased goodwill can be shown in the Balance Sheet.
a) AS 37
b) AS 26
c) Section 37
d) AS 37
Q. 12 “A newly admitted partner cannot pay his share of the goodwill to the sacrificing partners
privately”. Is the statement True or False?
Q. 13“Unless agreed otherwise, Sacrificing Ratio of the old partners will be the same as their
Old Profit Sharing Ratio”. Is the statement True or False?
Q. 14A, and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 2:3. Their balance sheet shows
machinery at 2,00,000; stock 80,000, and debtors at 1,60,000. C is admitted and the
new profit sharing ratio is 6:9:5. Machinery is revalued at 1,40,000 and a provision is
made for doubtful debts @5%. A’s share in loss on revaluation amount to 20,000.
Revalued value of stock will be:
a) 62,000
b) 1,00,000
c) 60,000
d) 98,000
Q. 15At the time of admission of a partner, Employees Provident Fund is:
a) Distributed to partners in the old profit sharing ratio
b) Distributed to partners in the new profit sharing ratio
c) Adjusted through gaining ratio
Q. 16If at the time of admission if there is some unrecorded liability, it will be ------------- to --
------------ Account.
d) Credited, Partners’ Capital
Q. 17At the time of admission of a new partner, the balance of Workmen Compensation Reserve
will be transferred to:
b) Sacrificing partners in the sacrificing ratio
c) Revaluation Account
d) All partners in the new profit sharing ratio
Q. 18The firm of P, Q and R with profit sharing ratio of 6:3:1, had the balance in General
Reserve Account amounting Rs. 1,80,000. S joined as a new partner and the new profit
sharing ratio was decided to be 3:3:3:1. Partners decide to keep the General Reserve
unchanged in the books of accounts. The effect will be:
a) P will be credited by Rs. 54,000
b) P will be debited by Rs. 54,000
c) P will be credited by Rs. 36.000
d) P will be credited by Rs. 36,000
Q. 19Which statement is true with respect to AS-26?
a) Purchased goodwill can be shown in the Balance Sheet
b) Revalued goodwill can be shown in the Balance Sheet
c) Both purchased goodwill and revalued can be shown in the Balance Sheet
Q. 20Premium brought by newly admitted partner should be:
a) Credited to sacrificing partners
b) Credited to all partners in the new profit sharing ratio
c) Credited to old partners in the old profit sharing ratio
d) Credited to only gaining partners
Q. 21Sacrificing ratio is calculated because:
a) Profit shown by Revaluation Account can be credited to sacrificing partners
b) Goodwill brought in by the incoming partner can be credited to the new partner
c) Goodwill brought in by the incoming partner can be credited to the sacrificing partners
d) Both a and c
Q. 22Aryaman and Bholu are partners sharing profit and losses in ratio of 5:3. Chirag is admitted
for 1/4 th
share. On the date of reconstitution, the debtors stood at Rs 40,000, bill receivable
stood at Rs. 10,000 and the provision for doubtful debts appeared at Rs. 4000. A bill
receivable, of Rs 10,000 which was discounted from the bank, earlier has been reported to
be dishonored. The firm has sold, the debtor so arising to a debt collection agency at a loss
of 40%. If bad debts now have arisen for Rs 6,000 and firm decides to maintain provisions
at same rate as before then amount of Provision to be debited to Revaluation Account
would be:
Q. 23 Revaluation Account is a ------------ Account.
a) Real
b) Nominal
c) Personal
d) Liability
i. Sacrificing Ratio A Nominal Account
ii. Gaining Ratio B Reconstitution of Partnership
iii. Revaluation Account C New Ratio – Old Ratio
iv. Admission of a Partner D Old Ratio – New Ratio
a) i- B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
b) i- D, ii-B, iii-A, iv-C
c) i- D, ii-C, iii-A, iv-B
d) i- D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A
Q. 25Match the following with respect to journal entries for treatment of goodwill.
i. Incoming partner brings his share of
goodwill
of goodwill
To Sacrificing Partners Capital A/c
iii. Incoming partner pays his share of
goodwill privately
iv. Incoming partner brings only a part of his
share of goodwill
a) i- B, ii-C, iii-A, iv-D
b) i- C, ii-D, iii-A, iv-B
c) i- D, ii-C, iii-A, iv-B
d) i- D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A
Answers
August Assignment
a. Form different groups depending upon their relative distance
b. Form one linkage group
c. Will not from any linkage groups
d. Form interactive groups that affect the phenotype
2. Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 and 2n ± 2 are called:
a. Aneuploidy
b. Polyploidy
c. Allopolyploidy
d. Monosomy
3. Distance between the genes and percentage of recombination shows:
a. a direct relationship
b. an inverse relationship
c. a parallel relationship
d. no relationship
4. If a genetic disease is transferred from a phenotypically normal but carrier female to
only some of the male progeny, the disease is:
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. Sex-linked dominant
d. Sex-linked recessive
5. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine. Which one of the following
triplets codes for valine?
a. G G G
b. A A G
c. G A A
d. G U G
6. Person having genotype IA IB would show the blood group as AB. This is because of:
a. Pleiotropy
b. Co-dominance
c. Segregation
d. Incomplete dominance
7. Z Z / ZW type of sex determination is seen in:
a. Platypus
b. Snails
c. Cockroach
d. Peacock
8. A Across between two tall plants resulted in offspring having few dwarf plants. What
would be the genotypes of both the parents?
a. TT and Tt
b. Tt and Tt
c. TT and TT
d. Tt and tt
9. In a dihybrid cross, if you get 9:3:3:1 ratio it denotes that:
a. The alleles of two genes are interacting with each other
b. It is a multigenic inheritance
c. It is a case of multiple allelism
d. The alleles of two genes are segregating independently.
10. Which of the following will not result in variations among siblings?
a. Independent assortment of genes
b. Crossing over
c. Linkage
d. Mutation
11. Mendel’s Law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the:
a. non-homologous chromosomes
b. homologous chromosomes
d. same chromosome
12. Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is
called:
b. mosaicism
c. pleiotropy
d. polygeny
13. In a certain taxon of insects some have 17 chromosomes and the others have 18
chromosomes. The 17 and 18 chromosome-bearing organisms are:
a. males and females, respectively
b. females and males, respectively
c. all males
d. all females
14. The inheritance pattern of a gene over generations among humans is studied by the
pedigree analysis. Character studied in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to:
a. quantitative trait
b. Mendelian trait
c. polygenic trait
d. maternal trait
15. It is said that Mendel proposed that the factor controlling any character is discrete
and independent. This proposition was based on the:
a. results of Fs generation of a cross.
b. observations that the offspring of a cross made between the plants having
two contrasting characters shows only one character without any blending.
c. self pollination of F1 offsprings
d. cross pollination of parental generations
16. Two genes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are linked. In a dihybrid cross involving these two genes, the F1
heterozygote is crossed with homozygous recessive parental type (aa bb). What
would be the ratio of offspring in the next generation?
a. 1 : 1 : 1: 1
b. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
c. 3 : 1
d. 1 : 1
17. In the F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross the number of phenotypes and
genotypes are:
a. phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 16
b. phenotypes – 9; genotypes – 4
c. phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 8
d. phenotypes – 4; genotypes – 9
18. Mother and father of a person with ‘O’ blood group have ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group
respectively. What would be the genotype of both mother and father?
a. Mother is homozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is heterozygous for ‘B’
b. Mother is heterozygous for ‘A’ blood group and father is homozygous for ‘B’
c. Both mother and father are heterozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
respectively
d. Both mother and father are homozygous for ‘A’ and ‘B’ blood group,
respectively
CH 4 PLANNING
A MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS AND ASSERTION AND REASONING QUESTIONS
1. “Planning is deciding in advance what to do, when to do it, and who is to do it. This has
been described by
(b) Haimann
(c) Allen
(d) Terry
2. The government of India faced problem of spreading the coronavirus. The government
had two options, either to strengthen MSME or to ask the public to use ordinary clothes
surrounding the neck to cover the face. The public decided to use second alternative.
Which function of the management has been used here in the above case?
(a) Planning
(b) Organizing
(c) Staffing
(d) directing
(a) Manager
(b) accountant
(c) organisation
5. Planning as a function of management is performed by
(a) Top level management
(b) Middle level management
(c) Lower level management
.
(a) confusion
(d) all of these
8. Planning is required at all levels of management and in all departments of the
organisation. This fact illustrates which feature of planning?
(a) Planning is continuous
(b) Planning is futuristic
(c) Planning is pervasive
ASSIGMENT FOR AUGUST
PLANNING -CHAPTER 4
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9. Which one of the following is not a feature of planning?
(a) Planning focuses on achieving objectives
(b) Planning is a continuous process
(c) Planning leads to rigidity
(d) Planning involves decision making
10. „Planning ensures that the goals or objectives are clearly stated so that they act as a guide
for deciding what action should be taken and in which direction. From the above
statement, which merit of planning is reflected here?
(a) Planning reduces the risk of uncertainty
(b) Planning reduces overlapping and wasteful activities
(c) Planning provides directions
(d) Planning facilitates decision making
11. Sun Pharmacy planned to sell 1 crore „Covicare tablets in a year. The company received
good response from the market and sold 1.5 crores tablets in a year. Seeing the progress,
the company decided to increase sales target to 2 crores tablets in a year. Which major
benefit of planning has the company achieved?
(a) Planning provides directions
(c) Planning reduces the risk of uncertainty
(d) Planning establishes standards for controlling
12. Reliable Communication Limited scans the business environment and adapts itself to the
changes in the environment, yet it becomes difficult to foresee the future trends.
Which limitation of planning is related to the above statement?
(a) Planning may not work in the dynamic environment
(b) Planning reduces creativity
(d) Planning does not guarantee success
13. Sales executive of a „Swatch Jal Water Purifiers suggested the marketing manager to sell
the products with the help of artificial intelligence. He suggested a pre-recorded message
may be sent to the prospective buyers and it will help save time, cost and energy for both
ends. The marketing manager liked the idea but suggested him to continue with the
strategy the company was already adopting. Which limitation of planning is reflected in
the above case?
(c) Planning reduces creativity
(d) Planning does not guarantee success
14. Which combination of the following plans is neither standing nor single use?
(a) Objective and strategy
(b) Strategy and policy
(c) Budget and objective
(d) Objective and policy
15. Mr Kapil, an educationist found that the teachers have to travel long to attend the
workshops and they lose the opportunity to gain the knowledge on updates. He listed
various alternatives and finally developed an app which could work on mobiles and
laptops to launch online sessions. Suggest which next step should he follow?
PLANNING -CHAPTER 4
(a) Developing premises
(c) Implementation of plan
(d) Follow up action
16. A sales manager was required to make a forecast of sales post Covid 19 impact for Q4,
2020. He considered the sales of Q1 and Q3 of current year and previous year. Which
step of planning process he followed?
(a) setting objectives
(c) follow up action
(d) developing premises
17. Certain steps in the process of planning are listed below:
(1) Developing premises
(2) Identifying alternatives
(3) Setting objectives
(a) 3, 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4, 2
(d) 4, 2, 3, 1
18. The Chinese companies launched „Vivo and „Oppo phones in the Indian market with
high end features to tap low segment population of India. It remained successful but later
the Indiansin order to show patriotism, decided to boycott Chinese products. dWhich step
of planning process Chinese firms could notperform properly while launching their
products?
(e) Implementing the plans
19. In „Shoolini School whenever a new teacher is appointed, the old teacher of the same
subject acts as a mentor and takes the new teacher to her classes to train her. Identify the
type of plan mentioned here.
(a) Procedure
(b) Policy
(c) Method
(d) Rule
Explanation: For imparting training to employees at various levels, different methods can be
adopted.
20. Determining long term objectives, adopting a particular course of action and allocating
resources necessary to achieve the objectives are part of __________
(a) Policy
(b) Programme
(c) Budget
(d) Strategy
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21. A company plans to help government to immunise children against polio. Which type of
plan is it?
(a) Objective
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Policy
22. “Atamnirbhar Bharat” started by government of India is an example of which type of
plan.
(a) Policy
(b) Procedure
(c) Strategy
(d) Programme
(a) Objective
(b) Policy
(c) Program
(d) Budget
25. Method is a
(a) prescribed way or manner in which a task has to be performed
(b) routine step in a chronological order
(c) detailed statement about a course of action
(d) specific statements of a certain action
26. To meet the increased demand of internet due to online classes all over the world, the
Indian internet companies decided to upgrade their plants to 5G networks. This is an
example of which type of plan?
(a) Policy
(b) Strategy
(c) Programme
(d) Objective
27. On monitoring, the employees of a company found involved in the misuse of internet
facility by watching videos. The company decides to penalise such employees, the type
of plan applicable to the above situation is
(a) Procedure
(b) Strategy
(c) Policy
(d) Rule
28. Match the column I with column II in the following information:
Column I Column II
1. Comprehensive plan to
3. Provides basis for interpreting C. Procedure
PLANNING -CHAPTER 4
strategies
to be performed
Find the correct option:
29. Match the key words with the related plan
Key words Respective plan
2. Base to interpret strategy B. Method
3. Dos and Donts C. Objectives
4. One step of a procedure D. Rules
(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3D , 4- B
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C-B
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
30. Which of the following plans is considered most rigid?
(a) Objectives
(b) Procedure
(c) Rules
(d) Strategy
1. _____ is closely connected with creativity and innovation. Planning
2. Planning seeks to _____ the gap between where we are and where we want to go. bridge
3. ______ means the assumptions, basis or ideas about the future. Developing premises
4. Planning requires ______ and ______ thinking rather than guess work. systematic/
logical
5. Planning requires taking ______ since it involves making a choice from options.
Decision
6. Planning means setting ______ and to formulate course of action. Objectives
7. People dont plan to fail but they fail to _______. plan
8. By stating in advance how the work is to be done. planning provides _________ for
action. Direction
9. If there is no planning, employees would be working in different_________. Directions
10. Planning as an activity enables a manager to look ahead and anticipate _______. Changes
11. With the help of planning function of management, new _______ can take shape of
concrete plans. ideas
12. Under planning function, the manager has to evaluate each __________ and select the
most viable proposition. Alternative
13. The business environment is ________ in nature, so planning may not work in such an
environment. Dynamic
14. The positive and negative aspects of each proposal need to be _____ in the light of the
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objective to be achieved. Evaluated
15. To see whether plans are being implemented and activities are performed according to
schedule is known as _____. Follow up
16. A __________ plan is developed for a one-time event or project. Single-use
17. A __________ is used for activities that occur regularly over a period of time. Standing
plan
18. Efficiency in routine decisions can be enhanced by __________. standing plans
19. A series of steps followed to achieve a particular course of action is called ________.
procedure
20. __________ and __________ are the plans which neither come under single use plans
nor understanding plans. Objective/strategy
21. The simplest type of plan is _____. rule
22. The social, legal, economic and technological environment will effect an organisations
_______. strategy
23. Strategy includes determining long term objectives, adopting a particular course of action
and allocating _________. Necessary resources
24. __________ are the collective ends towards which organisation direct to their energies
and activities. Goals
25. __________ can be said to be the desired future position that the management would like
to reach. Objectives
26. __________ is a comprehensive plan for accomplishing organisation objectives. Strategy
27. A __________ provides a basis for interpreting strategy which is usually stated in general
terms. policy
28. __________ suggests the sequence of steps or actions to be taken to enforce a policy.
Procedure
29. Specific statements that inform what is to be done and not to be done are called _______.
rules
30. __________ deals with a task comprising one step of a procedure and specifies how this
step is to be performed. Method
31. __________ are the simplest type of plans because there is no compromise or change
unless a policy decision is taken. Rule
32. A __________ includes the entire gamut of activities as well as the organisation's policy
and how it will contribute to the overall business plan. programme
33. Projects are similar to ______ but differ in scope and complexity. Programs
34. A __________ is a control device through which deviations can be taken care of. budget
1.
1. Rewrite the following statement after correcting
General goals are set up in the plans along with the activities to be undertaken to
achieve the goals.
Answer: Specific goals are set up in the plans along with the activities to be undertaken to
achieve the goals.
2. Rewrite the following statement after correcting.
Top management undertakes planning for the organization as a whole, middle
management does day to day operational planning and lower level does the
PLANNING -CHAPTER 4
departmental planning.
Answer: Top management undertakes planning for the organization as a whole, lower
management does day to day operational planning and middle level does the departmental
planning.
Planning, being a mental exerciseinvolves foresight and intelligent imagination; hence
leads to guess work and wishful thinking.
Answer: Planning, being a mental exercise involves foresight and intelligent imagination;
hence leads to logical and systematic thinking.
Planning guarantees success as it is based on previously tried and tested successful
plans.
Answer: Planning does not guarantee success as previously tried and tested successful plans
may not work again because of unknown factors.
There should be total agreement on premises or assumptions; however, they may not be
same for all.
Answer: There should be total agreement on premises or assumptions and they must be
same for all.
The manager will have to apply permutation and combination to evaluate the different
types of plans.
Answer: The manager will have to apply permutation and combination to select among the
different types of plans.
A programme may also be prepared to show the number of workers required in the
factory at peak production times.
Answer: A budget may also be prepared to show the number of workers required in the
factory at peak production times.
A manager may use his/ her discretion while deciding strategy of an organization.
Answer: A manager may use his/ her discretion while implementing policies of an
organization.
Policies and procedures are interlinked with each other and policies are framed within a
broad framework framed by procedure.
Answer: Policies and procedures are interlinked with each other and procedures are framed
within a broad framework framed by policy.
A strategy is a general response to a particular problem or situation.
PLANNING -CHAPTER 4
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Answer: A policy is a general response to a particular problem or situation.
Policy detail the exact manner in which any work is to be performed.
Answer: Procedure detail the exact manner in which any work is to be performed.
QUESTIONS BASED ON REASON AND ASSERTION
1. Assertion (A): Through planning, the uncertain events or changes can be anticipated and
eliminated.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
2. Assertion (A): Managers need to be given some flexibility to be able to cope with the
changed circumstances.
3. Assertion (A): The various functions of management are interrelated and equally
important. However, planning provides the basis for all other functions.
Reason (R): Planning is a continuous activity
4. Assertion (A): Planning is the most challenging activity for the management as it guides
all future actions leading to growth and prosperity of the business
Reason (R): Planning promotes innovative ideas.
5. Assertion (A): Sales forecasting is the basis on which a business firm prepares its annual
plan for production and sales.
Reason (R): Planning is a primary function of management.
PLANNING -CHAPTER 4
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6. Assertion (A): A plan is framed; it is implemented and is followed by another plan, and
so on.
7. Assertion (A): Middle management of Soni Ltd. and other decision makers are neither
allowed to deviate from plans not they are permitted to act on their own.
Reason (R): Planning leads to rigidity.
8. Assertion (A): False sense of security and complacency lead to failure of planning
instead of success.
9. Assertion (A): Competition in the market can upset financial plans.
Reason (R): Planning leads to rigidity.
10. Assertion (A): Managers need to be given some flexibility to be able to cope with the
changed circumstances.
11. Assertion (A): the nature of corrective action required depends upon the extent of
deviation from the standards.
Reason (R): Controlling is a prerequisite for planning.
Assignment For August 2021-22
Computer Science -083
1. Do the textbook questions of Chapter 4 Data File Handling.
2. For Practical File
CSV File read and write..
Read , write ,append and Search on text files
Binary file write ,append ,read and search.
Develop the case based python interface program on data files.(Refer to the
page number 4.63 and 4.64 of the textbook)
CLASS XII (ECONOMICS)
AUGUST 2021
1. Complete the notes provided to you on School ERP in your register. Part A: Introductory Macro Economics,
2. Unit 2: Money and Banking 3. Unit 4: Government Budget and Economy 4. Unit 5: Balance of Payments 5. Revise and learn the topics done during online classes. 6. Practice all the MCQ given in your textbook.
In case of any query contact on my mail ID: [email protected] Or WhatsApp group created for Economics.
CLASS 12
1. On the outline map of India locate & label the following & paste in your Geography
register.
*State with highest & lowest growth rate of population.
*State with highest & lowest sex ratio.
*State with maximum numbers of emigrants & immigrants.
[Note : Make separate map for each ]
2. Make a quiz with 10 multiple choice questions from chapter 1 & 2
[INDIA: People & Economy ]
12
…… 1. A4 2.
.1 50 ? .2 ?
Assignment For August 2021-22
2. For Practical File
Create a python case based interface to implement CSV File read and write.
Develop the case based python interface program on Pandas Group By
,Sorting and Statics Functions .(Refer to the page number 2.57of the
textbook)
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS : Complete the assignment in your notebook.
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are, correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is, correct but Reason is incorrect. (d) If both the Assertion and Reason
are incorrect.
Q.1. Assertion: Electron move away from a region of lower potential to a region of higher
potential.
Reason: An electron has a negative charge.
Q.2. Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an
electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
Q.3. Assertion : Electric lines of force never cross each other.
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field.
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Q.4. Assertion :The Coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.
Reason :The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
Q.5. Assertion : In a cavity within a conductor, the electric field is zero.
Reason : Charges in a conductor reside only at its surface.
Q.6. Assertion : When bodies are charged through friction, there is a transfer of electric
charge from one body to another, but no creation or destruction of charge.
Reason :This follows from conservation of electric charge.
Q.7. Assertion :The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason :If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on conductor will
flow to ground.
Q.8. Assertion : Some charge is put at the centre of a conducting sphere. It will move to the
surface of the sphere.
Reason : Conducting sphere has no free electrons at the centre.
Q.9. Assertion : Coulomb force and gravitational force follow the same inverse-square law.
Reason :Both laws are same in all aspects.
Q.10. Assertion : The coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.
Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
Q.11. Assertion : If there exists coulomb attraction between two bodies, both of them may
not be charged.
Reason : In coulomb attraction two bodies are oppositely charged.
Q.12. Assertion : A deuteron and an -particle are placed in an electric field. If F1 and F2 be
the forces acting on them and a1 and a2 be their accelerations respectively then, a1 = a2.
Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
Q.13. Assertion :The property that the force with which two charges attract or repel each
other are not affected by the presence of a third charge.
Reason : Force on any charge due to a number of other charge is the vector sum of all the
forces on that charge due to other charges, taken one at a time.
Q.14. Assertion :A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric
field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every poi
Q.15. Assertion : A point charge is brought in an electric field, the field at a nearby point
will increase or decrease, depending on the nature of charge.
Reason :The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
Q.16. Assertion :Consider two identical charges placed distance 2d apart, along x-axis.
The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed at the point O midway between them is stable
for displacements along the x-axis.
Reason: Force on test charge is zero.
Q.17. Assertion : When a conductor is placed in an external electrostatic field, the net
electric field inside the conductor becomes zero after a small instant of time.
Reason : It is not possible to set up an electric field inside a conductor.
Q.18. Assertion : A uniformly charged disc has a pin hole at its centre. The electric field at
the centre of the disc is zero.
Reason :Disc can be supposed to be made up of many rings. Also electric field at the centre
of uniformly charged ring is zero.
.
Q.19. Assertion :Electric lines of field cross each other.
Reason :Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field.
Q.20. Assertion :On bringing a positively charged rod near the uncharged conductor, the
conductor gets attracted towards the rod.
Reason :The electric field lines of the charged rod are perpendicular to the surface of
conductor.
Q.21. Assertion :Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as shown in figure. The flux over
the shown Gaussian surface depends only on charges q1 and q2.
Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface depends only on charges q1 and q2.
Q.22. Assertion :On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric field, it
returns back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable equilibrium.
Q.23. Assertion : On going away from a point charge or a small electric dipole, electric field
decreases at the same rate in both the cases.
Reason : Electric field is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge or an
electric dipole.
Q.24. Assertion :The electric flux of the electric field E.dA is zero. The electric field is zero
everywhere on the surface.
Reason :The charge inside the surface is zero.
Q.25. Assertion : On moving a distance two times the initial distance away from an infinitely
long straight uniformly charged wire the electric field reduces to one third of the initial value.
Reason :The electric field is inversely proportional to the distance from an infinitely long
straight uniformly charged wire
Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Q.1. Assertion : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and
dielectric constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.
Q.2. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key.
A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The
energy which is stored becomes K times.
Reason :The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.
Q.3. Assertion :The total charge stored in a capacitor is zero.
Reason :The field just outside the capacitor is σ/ε0 . (σ is the charge density).
Q.4. Assertion :The electrostatic force between the plates of a charged isolated
capacitor decreases when dielectric fills whole space between plates.
Reason :The electric field between the plates of a charged isolated capacitance increases
when dielectric fills whole space between plates.
Q.5. Assertion :Two concentric charged shells are given. The potential difference
between the shells depends on charge of inner shell.
Reason :Potential due to charge of outer shell remains same at every point inside the sphere.
Q.6. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each othe
Reason :Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q.7. Assertion: The potential difference between any two points in an electric field
depends only on initial and final position.
Reason: Electric field is a conservative field so the work done per unit positive charge does
not depend on path followed.
Q.8. Assertion :Electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Reason: The potential at all the points inside a conductor is same.
Q.9. Assertion :Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a spherical
charged shell.
Reason :Electric potential is continuous across the surface of a spherical charged shell.
Q.10. Assertion :Work done in moving a charge between any two points in an
electric field is independent of the path followed by the charge, between these
points.
Q.11. Assertion :Two adjacent conductors of unequal dimensions, carrying the same
positive charge have a potential difference between them.
Reason :The potential of a conductor depends upon the charge given to it.
Q.12. Assertion :Electric potential and electric potential energy are different
quantities.
Reason :For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential
energy = electric potential.
Q.13. Assertion :For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net charge is zero, the
electric field at any point on axis of the ring is zero.
Reason :For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net charge zero, the electric
potential at each point on axis of the ring is zero.
Q.14. Assertion :For a charged particle moving from point P to point Q, the net work
done by an electrostatic field on the particle is independent of the path
connecting point P to point Q.
Reason :The net work done by a conservative force on an object moving along a closed loop
is zero.
Q.15. Assertion :Polar molecules have permanent dipole moment.
Reason :In polar molecules, the centres of positive and negative charges coincide even when
there is no external field.
Q.16. Assertion :Dielectric polarisation means formation of positive and negative
charges inside the dielectric.
Reason: Free electrons are formed in this process.
Q.17. Assertion :In the absence of an external electric field, the dipole moment per
unit volume of a polar dielectric is zero.
Reason : The dipoles of a polar dielectric are randomly oriented.
Q.18. Assertion :For a point charge, concentric spheres centered at a location of the
charge are equipotential surfaces.
Reason :An equipotential surface is a surface over which potential has zero value.
Q.19. Assertion :Electric energy resides out of the spherical isolated conductor.
Reason :The electric field at any point inside the conductor is zero.
Q.20. Assertion :Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
Reason :Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q.21. Assertion: Two equipotential surfaces can be orthogonal.
Reason: Electric field lines are normal to the equipotential surface.
Q.22. Assertion: The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential surface. Reason:
The electric potential at any point on equatorial plane is zero.
Q.23. Assertion: The electric potential at any point on the equatorial plane of a dipole
is zero.
Reason: The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in
equatorial plane is equal for the two charges of the dipole.
Q.24. Assertion :A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key.
A dielectric slab of dielectric constant k is introduced between the plates. The
energy stored becomes k times.
Reason :The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant.
Q.25. Assertion :Two metal plates having charges Q, –Q face each other at some
separation and are dipped into an oil tank. If the oil is pumped out, the electric
field between the plates increases.
Reason :Electric field between the plates, Emed = Eair/K
Q.26. Assertion :When a dielectric slab is gradually inserted between the plates of an
isolated parallel-plate capacitor, the energy of the system decreases.
Reason :The force between the plates decreases.
Q.27. Assertion :A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a battery connected
capacitor. The energy of the capacitor increases.
Reason :Energy of the capacitor, U=CV 2 /2
6/8/2021 AXP Internal 1
Do the following in your Political Science notebook.
1. If you are asked to take decision regarding India’s foreign policy, identify any two aspects of
India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and two that you would like to change. Give
reasons in support of your answer.
2. India’s foreign policy was built around the principle of peace and cooperation but India fought 3
wars in space of 10 years between 1962 and 1972. Would you say that this was a failure of the
foreign policy? Or would you say that this was a result of international situation? Give reasons to
support your answer.
3. ‘The conduct of foreign affair is an outcome of a 2 way interaction between domestic
compulsions and prevailing international climate.’ Take one example from India’s external
relations in the 1960s to substantiate your answer.
4. How should a political party resolve its internal differences? Here are some suggestions, think of
each and list out there advantages and short comings.
a. Follow the footsteps of the party president.
b. Listen to the majority group.
c. Secret ballot voting on every issue.
d. Consult the senior and experienced leaders of the party.
AUGUST ASSIGNMENT
CLASS XII
Make a presentation on any one of the disorders you have studied about in
chapter no.4 ( PSYCHOLOGICAL DISORDERS) with all needed information about it.
Refer to the examples given below:
https://youtu.be/64pctR2COmY

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ACCOUNTANCY AUGUST ASSIGNMENT CLASS XII CH 5: Multiple