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Exam : Mechanical Engineering

Q1: A coarse grained steel is

⚪  a)   less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment ⚪  b)   more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment ⚪  c)   less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment

⚪  d)   more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment

Q2: The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some directions but not in others, is called

⚪  a)   Amorphous material ⚪  b)   Mesomorphous material

⚪  c)   Crystalline material ⚪  d)   Metamorphous material

Q3: Which of the following is the hardest constituent of steel?

⚪  a)   Ludeburite ⚪  b)   Austenite

⚪  c)   Bainite ⚪  d)   Martensite

Q4: The electric process of steel making is especially adopted to

⚪  a)   Alloy and carbon tool steel ⚪  b)   Magnet steel

⚪  c)   High speed tool steel ⚪  d)   All of these

Q5: Iron ore is, usually, found in the form of

⚪  a)   Oxides ⚪  b)   Carbonates

⚪  c)   Sulphides ⚪  d)   All of these

Q6: Internal Gears can be made by

⚪  a)   Hobbing ⚪  b)   Shaping with pinion cutter

⚪  c)   Shaping with rack cutter ⚪  d)    Milling

Q7: The quality of the final product of casting is not dependent on _______________

⚪  a)   Method of withdrawal of pattern ⚪  b)   Allowance provided to the pattern

⚪  c)   The complexity of the casting ⚪  d)   The metal used in Casting

Q8: Cast iron during machining produces

⚪  a)   Continuous chips

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⚪  b)   Discontinuous chips ⚪  c)   Continuous chips with built up edge

⚪  d)   Both a & c

Q9: Coordination number of body centered cubic unit cell is equal to

⚪  a)   4 ⚪  b)   6 ⚪  c)   8 ⚪  d)   2

Q10: Which of the following metal forming processes performs squeezing out of material through a hole?

⚪  a)   Forging ⚪  b)   Rolling ⚪  c)   Drawing ⚪  d)   Extrusion

Q11: Which of the following is a standard pressure angle in degrees?

⚪  a)   20 ⚪  b)   21 ⚪  c)   13.5

⚪  d)   19

Q12: Which of the following forming processes is suitable for making utensils and cup shaped objects?

⚪  a)   Forging ⚪  b)   Rolling ⚪  c)   Deep drawing

⚪  d)   Wire drawing

Q13: What is the shape of the billet used in extrusion process?

⚪  a)   Cubical ⚪  b)   Spherical

⚪  c)   Cylindrical ⚪  d)   Pyramidal

Q14: At what temperature does the high carbon steel get forged?

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)    ⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q15: Which of the following is not included in weldability?

⚪  a)   Ability of mechanical soundness ⚪  b)   Serviceability of joint

⚪  c)   Strain relieving brittleness ⚪  d)   Metallurgical compatibility of metal

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Q16: With an increase in the heat input of arc welding method, how does it affect the required current?

⚪  a)   Increases ⚪  b)   Decreases ⚪  c)   Remains same

⚪  d)   First increases and then saturates

Q17: Which of the following is not a type of arc welding?

⚪  a)   Plasma ⚪  b)   Electro-slag

⚪  c)   Submerged ⚪  d)   Oxy-acetylene

Q18: In a centrifugal casting method

⚪  a)   Core is made of sand ⚪  b)   Core is made of ferrous metal

⚪  c)   Core is made of non-ferrous metal ⚪  d)   no core is used

Q19: Which of the following non-destructive testings is used to detect change in composition of any material?

⚪  a)   Liquid penetration test ⚪  b)   Ultrasonic test

⚪  c)   Eddy current test ⚪  d)   Radiography

Q20: What is the minimum frequency used in ultrasonic welding?

⚪  a)   10,000 Hz ⚪  b)   20,000 Hz ⚪  c)   30,000 Hz ⚪  d)   40,000 Hz

Q21: The flow through a nozzle is regarded as

⚪  a)   Constant volume flow ⚪  b)   Constant pressure flow ⚪  c)   Isothermal flow

⚪  d)   Isentropic flow

Q22: In a hot chamber die casting machine

⚪  a)   Ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted ⚪  b)   Ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted ⚪  c)   Non Ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted

⚪  d)   Non Ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted

Q23: Which of the following is also known as Universal chuck?

⚪  a)   Four jaw chuck ⚪  b)   Two jaw chuck

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⚪  c)   Three jaw chuck ⚪  d)   Both three jaw chuck & four jaw chuck

Q24: The blanking and piercing operations can be performed simultaneously in a

⚪  a)   Simple die ⚪  b)   Progressive die

⚪  c)   Compound Die ⚪  d)   Combination die

Q25: The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered surface on a work piece is

⚪  a)   internal cylindrical grinding ⚪  b)   form grinding

⚪  c)   external cylindrical grinding ⚪  d)   surface grinding

Q26: What is the maximum permissible error for class I micrometers?

⚪  a)   0.002 mm ⚪  b)   0.004 mm ⚪  c)   0.008 mm ⚪  d)   0.016 mm

Q27: 'Go limit' is applied to which limit condition?

⚪  a)   Maximum material limit ⚪  b)   Minimum material limit ⚪  c)   Lower limit of shaft and upper limit of hole

⚪  d)   Moderate material limit

Q28: Which of the following machine is used for rolling tests?

⚪  a)   Parkson gear tester ⚪  b)   Tooth caliper

⚪  c)   Base pitch measuring instrument ⚪  d)   Involute profile testing machine

Q29: Which of the following represents the quality of straightness in precision engineering?

⚪  a)   Spirit level ⚪  b)   Straight edge

⚪  c)   Autocollimator ⚪  d)   Dial indicator

Q30: During groove cutting in a lathe, by using a parting tool, which of the following forces are encountered?

⚪  a)   Tangential only ⚪  b)   Radial only

⚪  c)   Tangential, Radial & Axial ⚪  d)   Tangential & Radial only

Q31: In a CNC program block, N002 GO2 G91 X40 Z40.....,GO2 and G91 refer to

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⚪  a)   Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and incremental dimension ⚪  b)   Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute dimension

⚪  c)   Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension ⚪  d)   Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension

Q32: The following type of robot is most suitable for pick and place operations

⚪  a)   Rectangular ⚪  b)   Cylindrical

⚪  c)   Spherical ⚪  d)   Jointed arm type

Q33: Sustainable manufacturing is required for

⚪  a)   Conserving resources ⚪  b)   Proper maintenance

⚪  c)   Reuse ⚪  d)   all of these

Q34: The correct sequence of operations in production planning and control is

⚪  a)   Routing-Scheduling-Dispatching-Follow up ⚪  b)   Scheduling-Routing- Dispatching-Follow up ⚪  c)   Dispatching-Routing-Scheduling- Follow up ⚪  d)   Routing-Scheduling-Follow up-Dispatching

Q35: Loading may be defined as

⚪  a)   Sending the raw material to the machine ⚪  b)   Sending the finished material to the store ⚪  c)   Assign the work to the facilities

⚪  d)   Uploading a software in machine control panel

Q36: The transit time consist of

⚪  a)   Time taken by raw material from machine to machine ⚪  b)   Time consumed in moving the work between various departments

⚪  c)   Time taken by a worker to machine a component ⚪  d)   Both (a) and (c)

Q37: Which of the following chart is drawn between Machine vs. time?

⚪  a)   Man machine chart ⚪  b)   The load chart

⚪  c)   The progress chart ⚪  d)   Curve chart

Q38: The following classes of costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except

⚪  a)   Cost of ordering ⚪  b)   Carrying cost

⚪  c)   Cost of shortages ⚪  d)   Machining cost

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Q39: The cost of insurance and taxes are included in

⚪  a)   Cost of ordering ⚪  b)   Set up cost

⚪  c)   Inventory carrying cost ⚪  d)   Cost of shortages

Q40: 'Buffer stock' is the level of stock

⚪  a)   Which is half of the actual stock ⚪  b)   At which the ordering process should start

⚪  c)   Which is minimum stock level below which actual stock should not fall ⚪  d)   Which is maximum stock in inventory

Q41: The time period between placing an order to its receipt in stock is known as

⚪  a)   Lead time ⚪  b)   Carrying time

⚪  c)   Shortage time ⚪  d)   Over time

Q42: The order cost per order of an inventory is Rs. 400 with an annual carrying cost of Rs. 10 per unit. TheEconomic Order Quantity (EOQ) for an annual demand of 2000 units is

⚪  a)   400

⚪  b)   440 ⚪  c)   480 ⚪  d)   500

Q43: For a linear programming equations, convex set of equations is included in region of

⚪  a)   Feasible solutions ⚪  b)   Disposed solutions ⚪  c)   Profit solutions

⚪  d)   Loss solutions

Q44: In graphical solutions of linear inequalities, solution can be divided into

⚪  a)   One subset ⚪  b)   Two subsets

⚪  c)   Three subsets ⚪  d)   Four subsets

Q45: The purpose of the transportation approach for locational analysis is to minimize

⚪  a)   Total costs ⚪  b)   Total shipping costs

⚪  c)   Total variable costs ⚪  d)   Total fixed costs

Q46: Coefficient of friction depends upon

⚪  a)   Area of contact only ⚪  b)   Nature of surface only

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⚪  c)   Both (a) and (b) ⚪  d)   Relative speed of surfaces in contact

Q47:

⚪  a)   0.5 F

⚪  b)   0.63 F ⚪  c)   0.73 F ⚪  d)   0.87 F

Q48:

⚪  a)   0

⚪  b)   0.8 N ⚪  c)   0.98 N ⚪  d)   1.2 N

Q49: The loss of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two bodies depends on

⚪  a)   The mass of two bodies ⚪  b)   The initial velocities of two bodies

⚪  c)   The final velocities of two bodies ⚪  d)   Mass & initial velocities of two bodies

Q50: Lami's theorem states that

⚪  a)   Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium ⚪  b)   Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to force

⚪  c)   If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of atriangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium

⚪  d)   If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the anglebetween the other two

Q51: A circular hole of radius (r) is cut out from a circular disc of radius (2r) in such a way that the diagonal ofthe hole is the radius of the disc. The centre of gravity of the section lies at

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⚪  a)   Centre of a disc ⚪  b)   Centre of the hole

⚪  c)   Somewhere in the disc ⚪  d)   Somewhere in the hole

Q52: When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of its periodic time and frequency is equalto

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q53: The surface finish factor for a mirror polished material is

⚪  a)   0.45 ⚪  b)   0.65 ⚪  c)   0.85 ⚪  d)   1

Q54: The transverse fillet welded joints are designed for

⚪  a)   Tensile Strength ⚪  b)   Compressive Strength

⚪  c)   Bending Strength ⚪  d)   Shear strength

Q55: A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by keeping the

⚪  a)   core diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of the bolt ⚪  b)   core diameter of threads smaller than the diameter of unthreaded portion of the bolt

⚪  c)   nominal diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded portion of bolt ⚪  d)   core diameter of threads greater than the diameter of unthreaded portion of the bolt

Q56: The taper on a rectangular sunk key is

⚪  a)   1 in 16 ⚪  b)   1 in 32 ⚪  c)   1 in 48 ⚪  d)   1 in 100

Q57:

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

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⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q58: The piston pin bearings in heavy duty diesel engines are

⚪  a)   Needle roller bearings ⚪  b)   Tapered roller bearings ⚪  c)   Spherical roller bearings

⚪  d)   Cylindrical roller bearings

Q59: The power transmitted by means of a belt depends upon

⚪  a)   Velocity of the belt ⚪  b)   Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulleys

⚪  c)   Arc of contact between the belt and the smaller pulley ⚪  d)   All of the these

Q60: Which of these is an inversion of a single crank chain?

⚪  a)   Coupling rod of a locomotive ⚪  b)   Beam engine

⚪  c)   Watt's indicator mechanism ⚪  d)   Pendulum pump

Q61: Law of gearing is satisfied if

⚪  a)   Two surfaces slide smoothly ⚪  b)   Common normal at the point of contact passes through the pitch point on the line joining the centres of

rotation ⚪  c)   Number of teeth = P.C.D. / module

⚪  d)   Addendum is greater than dedendum

Q62: The Ackerman steering gear mechanism is preferred to the Davis steering gear mechanism, because

⚪  a)   Whole of the mechanism in the Ackerman steering gear is on the back of the front wheels. ⚪  b)   The Ackerman steering gear consists of turning pairs

⚪  c)   The Ackerman steering gear is most economical ⚪  d)   Both (a) and (b)

Q63: The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft.This arrangement is called

⚪  a)   Spur gearing

⚪  b)   Helical gearing ⚪  c)   Bevel gearing

⚪  d)   Spiral gearing

Q64: In a gear train, when the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted, move relative to a fixedaxis, is called

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⚪  a)   Simple gear train ⚪  b)   Compound gear train

⚪  c)   Reverted gear train ⚪  d)   Epicyclic gear train

Q65: The design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on

⚪  a)   Guest's theory ⚪  b)   Rankine's theory

⚪  c)   St. Venant's theory ⚪  d)   Von Mises Theory

Q66: Slenderness ratio is the ratio of

⚪  a)   Maximum size of a column to minimum size of column ⚪  b)   Width of column to depth of column

⚪  c)   Effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column ⚪  d)   Effective length of column to width of column.

Q67: A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600 MPa ona plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. Themaximum normal stress will be

⚪  a)   400 MPa

⚪  b)   500 MPa ⚪  c)   900 MPa ⚪  d)   1400 MPa

Q68: A long thin walled cylindrical shell, closed at both the ends, is subjected to an internal pressure. The ratioof the hoop stress (circumferential stress) to longitudinal stress developed in the shell is

⚪  a)   0.5

⚪  b)   1.0 ⚪  c)   2.0 ⚪  d)   4.0

Q69: The beams, one having square cross section and another circular cross-section, are subjected to the sameamount of bending moment. If the cross-sectional area as well as the material of both the beams are same then

⚪  a)   Maximum bending stress developed in both the beams is same

⚪  b)   The circular beam experience more bending stress than the square one ⚪  c)   The square beam experience more bending stress than the circular one ⚪  d)   As the material is same, both the beams will experience same deformation.

Q70:

⚪  a)   

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⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q71: The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is

⚪  a)   Diameter of the disc ⚪  b)   Span of the shaft

⚪  c)   Eccentricity ⚪  d)   All of these

Q72: The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the static force, isknown as

⚪  a)   Damping factor

⚪  b)   Damping coefficient ⚪  c)   Logarithmic decrement

⚪  d)   Magnification factor

Q73:

⚪  a)   0.5

⚪  b)   1.0 ⚪  c)   5.0 ⚪  d)   10.0

Q74: There are four samples P, Q, R and S, with natural frequencies 64, 96, 128 and 256 Hz, respectively. Theyare mounted on test setups for conducting vibration experiments. If a loud pure note of frequency 144 Hz isproduced by some instrument, which of the samples will show the most perceptible induced vibration?

⚪  a)   P

⚪  b)   Q ⚪  c)   R ⚪  d)   S

Q75: Seismometer can be used to measure acceleration of any instrument only if

⚪  a)   it's natural frequency is high ⚪  b)   it generates output signal which is proportional to relative acceleration of the vibrating object

⚪  c)   both (a) and (b) ⚪  d)   Its wavelength is high

Q76: A vibrating machine is isolated from the floor using springs. If the ratio of excitation frequency ofvibration of machine to the natural frequency of the isolation system is equal to 0.5, then transmissibility ratioof isolation is

⚪  a)   1/2

⚪  b)   3/4

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⚪  c)   4/3 ⚪  d)   2

Q77: When a body floating in a liquid and is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating about apoint known as

⚪  a)   Centre of gravity ⚪  b)   Centre of pressure ⚪  c)   Metacentre

⚪  d)   Centre of buoyancy

Q78: Within a boundary layer for a steady incompressible flow, the Bernoulli equation

⚪  a)   Holds because the flow is steady ⚪  b)   Holds because the flow is incompressible

⚪  c)   Holds because the flow is transitional ⚪  d)   Does not hold because the flow is frictional

Q79: Navier Stoke's equation represents the conservation of

⚪  a)   Energy ⚪  b)   Mass

⚪  c)   Pressure ⚪  d)   Momentum

Q80: For the Real gases the ratio of specific heats are unity at

⚪  a)   Critical temperature ⚪  b)   Triple point

⚪  c)   Low temperatures ⚪  d)   Absolute zero temperature

Q81: The transformation of vapour to solid directly is called

⚪  a)   Sublimation ⚪  b)   Vaporization

⚪  c)   Ablimation ⚪  d)   Condensation

Q82: Which of the following MAXWELL relation is true

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q83: Consider two heat engines operating between the same two energy reservoirs and both receive the same

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QH. One engine is reversible and other is not. What can you say about QL?

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q84: The heat transfer in a thermodynamics cycle of a system consisting of four process are successively 0,8,6and -4 units, the net change in internal energy

⚪  a)   -8

⚪  b)   0 ⚪  c)   10 ⚪  d)   -10

Q85: When the system is in equilibrium any conceivable changes in entropy would be

⚪  a)   Positive ⚪  b)   Zero

⚪  c)   Negative ⚪  d)   No relation

Q86:

⚪  a)   50 J/S

⚪  b)   25000 J/S ⚪  c)   20000 J/S ⚪  d)   30 J/S

Q87: A satellite in space exchange heat with surroundings essentially by

⚪  a)   Conduction ⚪  b)   Radiation

⚪  c)   Convection ⚪  d)   Both conduction and convection

Q88: Which of the following has more predominant role in the calculation of heat transfer coefficient in forcedconvection?

⚪  a)   Prandtl number

⚪  b)   Reynolds number ⚪  c)   Stanton number

⚪  d)   Grashoff number

Q89: Total incident radiation on a surface from all directions per unit time and unit surface area is called

⚪  a)   Radiosity ⚪  b)   Emissitivity

⚪  c)   Transmittivity ⚪  d)   Irradiation

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Q90: Which one of the following configuration has the highest effectiveness?

⚪  a)   Thin, closely spaced fins ⚪  b)   Thin, widely spaced fins ⚪  c)   Thick, widely spaced fins

⚪  d)   Thick, closely spaced fins

Q91:

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q92: For a glass plate transitivity and reflectivity are specified as 0.86 and 0.08 respectively the absorptivity ofthe glass plate is

⚪  a)   0.86

⚪  b)   0.06 ⚪  c)   1.00 ⚪  d)   -0.06

Q93: Diesel engine is not employed in which of the following?

⚪  a)   Pumping sets ⚪  b)   Air compressors

⚪  c)   Tractors ⚪  d)   Motorcycles

Q94: The ratio of internal conductive resistance to external convective resistance is called

⚪  a)   Fourier number ⚪  b)   Thermal diffusivity

⚪  c)   Biot number ⚪  d)   Thermal Conductivity

Q95: Efficiency of gas turbine lies between

⚪  a)   85 to 95% ⚪  b)   50 to 60% ⚪  c)   30 to 50% ⚪  d)   15 to 18%

Q96: Among the following which turbine has least efficiency?

⚪  a)   Pelton turbine ⚪  b)   Kaplan turbine

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⚪  c)   Francis turbine ⚪  d)   Propeller turbine

Q97: The head of Kaplan ranges from

⚪  a)   100 m to 200 m ⚪  b)   250 m to 300 m ⚪  c)   10 m to 70 m

⚪  d)   0 m to 5 m

Q98: Which of the following is most appropriate for vapour power cycle?

⚪  a)   In Carnot cycle expansion vapour occurs without change in entropy ⚪  b)   In Rankine cycle transformation of liquid water in steam generator occurs at constant temperature

⚪  c)   In Carnot cycle heating of vapour occurs at constant volume ⚪  d)   In Rankine cycle entropy of vapour increases during its expansion in steam turbine

Q99: If a four cylinder engine has of capacity 2.4 litres, then swept volume of one cylinder is

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q100: In regenerative Rankine cycle

⚪  a)   Dryness fraction at exhaust increases ⚪  b)   Turbine output increases

⚪  c)   Specific steam consumption increases ⚪  d)   Condenser load increases

Q101: Compressor discharge temperature in Vapour Compression Refrigeration system is high for

⚪  a)    ⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q102: Mobility of a statistically indeterminate structure is

⚪  a)    ⚪  b)   

⚪  c)    ⚪  d)   

Q103: The ductility of a material with work hardening

⚪  a)   Remains same

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⚪  b)   Increases ⚪  c)   Decreases ⚪  d)   Cannot be predicted

Q104:

⚪  a)   P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-2

⚪  b)   P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 ⚪  c)   P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4 ⚪  d)   P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

Q105: The material property which depends only on the basic crystal structure is

⚪  a)   Fatigue strength ⚪  b)   Elastic constant ⚪  c)   Work hardening ⚪  d)   Fracture strength

Q106:

⚪  a)   P-2 Q-5 R-1 S-3

⚪  b)   P-6 Q-3 R-4 S-4 ⚪  c)   P-4 Q-1 R-6 S-2 ⚪  d)   P-5 Q-4 R-2 S-6

Q107: In oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner core of the flame is around

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)    ⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

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Q108:

⚪  a)   16 P

⚪  b)   8 P ⚪  c)   4 P ⚪  d)   2 P

Q109:

⚪  a)   Biot number

⚪  b)   Nusselt number ⚪  c)   Lewis number

⚪  d)   Prandtl number

Q110: Which of the following statements is correct about the balancing of a mechanical system?

⚪  a)   If it is under static balance, then there will be dynamic balance also ⚪  b)   If it is under dynamic balance, then there will be static balance also ⚪  c)   Both static as well as dynamic balance have to be achieved separately

⚪  d)   Neither static nor dynamic balance have to be achieved separately

Q111: A streamline and an equi-potential line in a flow field

⚪  a)   Are identical ⚪  b)   Are parallel to each other

⚪  c)   Intersect at an acute angle ⚪  d)   Are perpendicular to each other

Q112:

⚪  a)   Both I and II

⚪  b)   Both II and III ⚪  c)   Both I and III

⚪  d)   Only III

Q113: The torque available at the contact between road and driving wheel is called

⚪  a)   Brake power ⚪  b)   Friction power

⚪  c)   Tractive effort ⚪  d)   Engine torque

Q114: The maximum theoretical work obtainable, when a system interacts to equilibrium with a referenceenvironment, is called

⚪  a)   Entropy

⚪  b)   Exergy

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⚪  c)   Enthalpy ⚪  d)   Rothalpy

Q115: Which one of the following is NOT a rotating machine?

⚪  a)   Jet pump ⚪  b)   Gear pump

⚪  c)   Vane pump ⚪  d)   Centrifugal pump

Q116:

⚪  a)   14

⚪  b)   18 ⚪  c)   12 ⚪  d)   32

Q117:

⚪  a)   

⚪  b)   

⚪  c)   

⚪  d)   

Q118: The function of an alternator in an automobile is to

⚪  a)   Supply electric power ⚪  b)   Convert mechanical energy into electrical energy

⚪  c)   Continually recharge the battery ⚪  d)   Partly convert engine power into electric power

Q119: The vehicle ride will be comfortable if

⚪  a)   Un-sprung mass is kept minimum ⚪  b)   Sprung mass is kept minimum

⚪  c)   Vehicle mass is kept minimum ⚪  d)   All of these

Q120: In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the

⚪  a)   Beginning of suction stroke ⚪  b)   End of suction stroke

⚪  c)   Beginning of exhaust stroke ⚪  d)   End of exhaust stroke