521 Earth Science, First Semester - Louisiana High School ...lhscc.org/files/521/Course Study Guide.pdf · 521 Earth Science, First Semester Textbook Francisco Barrero, PhD, ... Meteorology

1 L.H.S.C.C. • P. O. Box 2751 • Baton Rouge, LA 70821-2751 • www.LHSCC.org

Earth Science, First Semester 521

521 Earth Science, First Semester

Textbook Francisco Barrero, PhD, Frances Scelsi, PhD, Chia Hui Hsu, PhD, Joseph F. Gerhard Kunze, PhD,

Stephen A. Leslie, PhD, Stephen Letro, Michael Manga, PhD, Len Sharp, Theodore Snow, PhD, Dinah Zike, National Geographic. Earth Science: Geology, the Environment, and the Universe. Glencoe: McGraw-Hill, 2008. ISBN: 978-0-07

The textbook was carefully selected to provide you with a comprehensive course in Earth Science. Because you are taking Earth Science by correspondence, you will have to read the book independently. In order to become familiar with the book, you will be asked to complete lesson assignments, and submit them to LHSCC for a grade. Keep in mind that reading your text carefully is essential for success in a correspondence course. Other Materials Required You will need a notebook for notes you may want to take, vocabulary review, or key concepts to remember. This notebook will not be turned in, but it is for your personal use as a study aid for lessons and examinations. You will need an inexpensive scientific calculator for problem solving. The calculator may be used for examinations Nature and Purpose of the Course Welcome to, Earth Science, 521. This is a ½ credit course for the first semester of high school earth science. During this course, you will learn about the structure of Earth and the geologic changes that are occurring. You will also increase your understanding of glaciers, volcanoes and earthquakes, and the role of wind and water in bringing about these geologic changes. You will study the oceans and the atmosphere, the motion of the earth in the solar system and the galaxy, and how Earth’s history can be read from the rock formations. Preparation of Lesson Assignments It is important that you use a basic scientific calculator when working your lesson assignments and become proficient in using a calculator. Calculators are allowed on both the midcourse exam and final exam. (Any calculator is acceptable except those with a complete alphabet keyboard.) Also, it is strongly recommended that you make a copy of each lesson assignment before it is submitted.

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Each lesson must be done in its entirety. Incomplete lessons will be graded deducting points for missing problems. You will not be able to take the final exam if all lessons have not been submitted. Lesson Assignment Submission: Lesson Assignments

Lesson assignment sheets have been provided for you in a PDF format. You can type your answers directly onto the lesson assignment sheet and email it back.

Follow the directions below:

1. Open the file

2. Fill in your name in the blank at the top of the answer sheet marked: Name. Fill in the lesson number in the blank marked: Lesson Number

3. Fill in your answers for each of the blanks. Be sure that you are marking your answers in the correct blank.

4. After you have entered all of the answers, save or print a copy. You will give each lesson a different name (Lesson 1, Lesson 2, etc.)

5. After you have saved each lesson, attach it to an email and send it to us or print a copy and send it by U. S. mail.

You are allowed to submit two lessons per week per course. Your lessons must be submitted in

sequential order.

If you are unable to send your answers back via email, simply print the lesson assignment sheet and mail it to:

LHSCC P. O. Box 2751 Baton Rouge, LA 70821-2751

Midcourse Exam Once you have completed lessons 1 – 6 and your lessons have been returned to you graded, it is time to request your midcourse exam. You may do so by emailing [email protected]. Please include your full name, enrollment number, and course name and number of the exam you are requesting.


mailto:[email protected]�



Your exams will be computer generated from your lesson assignments. The midcourse exam will be on the material you learned in lessons 1-6. Final Exam Once you have completed lessons 7 – 11. Please follow the same directions mentioned above. Remember, you must pass the final exam in order to pass the course. Examinations and Grading Policy: If you pass the final exam, your final grade will be determined by the following method:

40% Average of Lesson Assignments 20% Mid-course Exam 40% Final Exam

Grading scale for all lessons and exams:

90-100 A 80-89 B 70-79 C 60-69 D 59 or below F

Grade Calculation Example: Lesson quality points / total number of lessons = lesson average (rounded to nearest tenth) Lesson Average 27 points / 13 lessons = 2.0769 ≈ 2.1 2.1 * .4 = .84 Mid - Course Exam B = 3 3 * .2 = .60 Final Exam A = 4 4 * .4 = 1.60 -------- 3.04 = B

Your exams will be sent to your high school principal or guidance counselor. If you have changed schools, be sure to email your new school information to: [email protected]

You enrolled in an Independent Study course; therefore, you do not have an instructor. It is up to you to read through the policies and procedures on our website, www.LHSCC.org, as well as read this course study guide. In order to successfully complete this course and receive the credit you need you must follow all instructions. Let’s get started!





Unit One: The Nature of Science Chapter 1 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Compare the areas of study within Earth science. Identify Earth’s system. Explain the relationships among Earth’s systems. Explain why technology is important. Compare and contrast independent and dependent variables. Compare and contrast experimentation and investigation. Identify the differences between mass and weight. Explain what scientific notation is and how it is used. Explain why precise communication is crucial in science. Compare and contrast scientific theories and scientific laws. Identify when it is appropriate to use a graph or a model.

Lesson Assignment 1: Read Chapter 1 and answer the questions below

Lesson Assignment 1 Chapter 1: The Nature of Science

True/False: Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. Meteorology is the branch of Earth science that deals with the blanket of air that surrounds Earth.

____ 2. The application of scientific discoveries is called tectonics.

____ 3. In scientific notation, a number is expressed as a value between 10 and 100 multiplied by a power of 10.

____ 4. The branch of Earth science that studies the blanket of air that surrounds Earth is tectonics.

____ 5. Most scientific studies use a standard system of units called SI, which is a modern version of the metric system.

____ 6. Identifying rocks, studying glacial movements, and interpreting clues to Earth’s history are all topics studied in geology.

____ 7. An experiment is a suggested explanation for an observation.

____ 8. The study of objects beyond Earth’s atmosphere is ecology.

____ 9. The water in Earth’s oceans, seas, lakes, rivers, glaciers, and in Earth’s atmosphere makes up the hydrosphere.

____ 10. Researchers use a constant in an experiment to show that the results of the experiment are actually due to the condition being tested.




____ 11. Astronomers study Earth, its neighbors, and other matter in the universe.

____ 12. Earth’s four main systems are independent of one another.

____ 13. Meteorology is the study of materials that make up Earth and the processes that form and change these materials.

____ 14. Scientific methods are planned and organized, but are not rigid, step-by-step outlines to solve problems.

____ 15. Earth’s atmosphere contains about 78 percent carbon dioxide.

____ 16. Oceanographers study creatures that inhabit salty water, measure physical and chemical properties of the oceans, and examine the effects of human activities on the oceans.

____ 17. The biosphere includes all organisms that live within a few meters of Earth’s surface, at the bottom of oceans, and on the tops of mountains.

____ 18. About 97 percent of Earth’s water is salt water.

Multiple Choice: Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the table below to answer questions 19 – 22.

Plants under a grow lamp

Week 1 Week 2 Week 3

A-no water 0in 0in 0in B-water once a day 0in 3in 5in C-water three times a day

0in 2in 4in

D-water five times a day 0in 2in 0in

____ 19. What is the control in this experiment?

a. water c. week b. grow lamp d. plant

____ 20. What is the independent and dependent variable in this experiment?

a. water amount, plant height c. grow lamp, water amount b. number of weeks, plant height d. grow lamp, plant height

____ 21. If another person wanted to repeat this experiment, which of the following would they NOT need to

know? a. The amount of water given at each

watering time. c. The type of plant used.

b. The intensity of the grow lamp. d. The day of the week the plants were measured.




____ 22. If the original hypothesis stated that the plant watered three times a day would grow the most, what should the scientist do? a. Throw out the experiment since it

didn’t match the hypothesis. c. Modify the hypothesis to fit with the

new findings, and repeat the experiment.

b. Retry the experiment until it matches the hypothesis.

d. Create two hypotheses and repeat the experiment so that both are correct.

Use the graph below to answer questions 23 – 25.

____ 23. What can be inferred about speed and breaking distance from the above graph? a. As speed decreases, breaking distance

increases. c. As speed increases, breaking distance

increases. b. As speed increases, breaking distance

decreases. d. The is no direct correlation between

speed and breaking distance.

____ 24. According to the trend of the line graph, if a car was traveling at a speed of 120 km/h how much

breaking distance would it need? a. 30m c. 25m b. 35m d. 120m

____ 25. Suppose this experiment was retested on an icy road. How might the data change?

a. This breaking distance for speed would increase.

c. There would be no change in the breaking distance for speed.

b. The breaking distance for speed would decrease.

d. The braking distance could not be calculated due to the sliding of the car.

____ 26. Which of the following is NOT an activity usually performed by oceanographers? a. studying the creatures that inhabit salty water b. measuring physical and chemical properties of the oceans c. studying the processes that cause the atmosphere to produce weather d. examining the effects of human activities on Earth's saltwater bodies




____ 27. Which of these steps would be the first step in a scientific method? a. Analyze the data and draw a conclusion. b. Make a hypothesis. c. Test the hypothesis by doing an experiment. d. Identify the problem and determine what you want to know.

____ 28. What is the SI unit of mass?

a. kilogram c. newton b. kilometer d. gram per cubic centimeter

Matching: Match each question to the field of science it describes.

a. astronomy d. oceanography b. meteorology e. environmental science c. geology

____ 29. The field of science which looks at the atmosphere on the planets.

____ 30. A person interested in life on Mars would study which field of science?

____ 31. The impact humans have on the atmosphere is studied under which field of science?

____ 32. A person interested in dinosaurs would study which branch of science?

____ 33. The field of science which studies what nearly three-fourths of Earth is covered by.

Match each letter to the system it represents. a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 34. hydrosphere

____ 35. atmosphere

____ 36. geosphere

____ 37. biosphere




Match each item with the correct statement below. a. geosphere d. hydrosphere b. atmosphere e. lithosphere c. biosphere

____ 38. All organisms on Earth and the environments in which they live

____ 39. Contains about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen

____ 40. The water in Earth's oceans, seas, lakes, rivers, and glaciers

____ 41. The area from the surface of Earth down to its center

____ 42. The blanket of gases that surround Earth

Match each item with its corresponding unit of measurement below. a. gram per milliliter e. meter b. Kelvin f. newton c. kilogram g. second d. liter h. square centimeter

____ 43. area

____ 44. density

____ 45. length

____ 46. mass

____ 47. temperature

____ 48. time

____ 49. liquid equivalent

____ 50. weight


Earth Science 521, First Semester

9 Louisiana High School Correspondence Courses Earth Science 521, 1st Semester

Match each number with its correct scientific notation below. a. 1 000 000 d. 0.029 b. 0.000001 e. 3356 c. 40 000 000 f. 118.722

____ 51. 4 × 107

____ 52. 1.18722 × 102

____ 53. 10-6

____ 54. 3.356 × 103

____ 55. 106

____ 56. 2.9 × 10-2

At this time, log onto your account on our website, open the “Lesson Assignment 1” answer sheet file located in your course materials You can type your answers directly on to the answer sheet and email your completed answer sheet to [email protected]. If you prefer, you may print out a copy and send it by U. S. mail to L.H.S.C.C. Please submit Lesson 1.




Unit One: Mapping Our World

Chapter 2 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to:

Describe the difference between latitude and longitude. Explain why it is important to give a city’s complete coordinates when describing its

location. Explain why there are different time zones from one geographical area to the next. Compare and contrast different types of remote sensing. Discuss how satellites and sonar are used to map Earth’s surface and its oceans Describe the Global Positioning System and how it works.


Lesson Assignment 2 Chapter 2: Mapping Our World


____ 1. When placing coordinates in order east to west, you must look at longitude coordinates.

____ 2. The equator represents 0º longitude.

Use the time zone map of the United States to answer questions 3 – 5.

____ 3. If it is 3:30pm in Central Standard Time, then it is 1:30 in Pacific Standard Time.

____ 4. It is earlier in the west than in the east because the earth rotates in a clockwise direction.

____ 5. There are 4 time zones in the United States.



____ 6. By using 4 satellites rather than 3, GPS would provide a much more accurate location.

____ 7. Lines of latitude are parallel.

____ 8. The Topex/Poseidon satellite allows its users to determine their exact position on Earth.

____ 9. The science of mapmaking is called cartography.

____ 10. The prime meridian represents 0° longitude.

____ 11. The International Date Line is another name for the equator.

____ 12. A Mercator projection distorts areas near the poles.

____ 13. A contour line on a world map connects points of equal elevation.

____ 14. A map legend explains what the symbols on a map represent.

____ 15. Satellites in the Global Positioning System help users determine their exact weight.


Use the table to answer questions 16 – 17.

City Latitude Longitude

A 39º96'N 82º99'W B 39º77'N 86º16'W C 27º34'N 82º53'W D 40º06'N 80º72'W

____ 16. Order the following states from North to South.

a. D, A, B, C c. A, C, D, B b. B, A, C, D d. D, C, A, B

____ 17. If the coordinate points for State A represent Columbus, Ohio, what can be assumed about the location of the states? a. They are all in the western half of the

United States. c. They are all in the eastern half of the

United States. b. They are all in the southern half of the

United States. d. They are all in the northern half of the

United States.



Use the map to answer questions18 – 19.

____ 18. This map is an example of what type of map? a. Conic projection c. Gnomonic projection b. Mercator projection d. Topographic

____ 19. What is the limitation of using this type of map? a. the distance between landmasses is

lengthened c. the distance between landmasses is

shortened b. the shapes of the landmasses are

incorrect d. the areas of the landmasses are

distorted

Use the topographic map to answer questions 20 – 22.

____ 20. Which represents the greater rise in elevation, point C to point A or point B to point A?

a. point C to point A c. both represent the same rise in elevation

b. point B to point A d. neither because both are a drop in elevation.



____ 21. How much of a rise in elevation exists from point D to point B? a. 50 c. 100 b. 150 d. 350

____ 22. Which would be the easiest route for a casual climb and why? a. point D to point A because it is the

shortest route c. Point D to point A because it is the

most gradual rise in elevation. b. Point E to point A because it is the

most gradual rise in elevation. d. Point E to point A because it is the

shortest route.

____ 23. How much does each section of this graphic scale represent?

a. 50 mi c. 41.67 mi b. 500 mi d. 1250 mi

Use the map below to answer questions 24 - 26 .

____ 24. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the map? a. All of the national parks are located

less than 100 miles from one of the listed interstates.

c. The mountains in the two western states are part of the same mountain range.

b. There are no parks in the north western state.

d. All of the capital cities are located less than 100 miles from one of the listed interstates.



____ 25. Who would benefit most by using this map?

a. A person who wanted to know the best way to get across the south eastern state.

c. A person interested in going climbing in the mountains of the south western state.

b. A person interested in planning the best way to get to the two National Parks in the south western state.

d. A person who wants to go shopping in the capital city of the north eastern state.

____ 26. If the east/west interstate measures 9 in on the map, how far is it across the three states? a. 13.89 miles c. 112.5 miles b. 1125 miles d. 11250 miles

____ 27. Which of the following is a satellite used to map the ocean floor? a. GPS c. Landsat Satellite b. Sea Beam d. TOPEX/Poseidon Satellite

____ 28. What is the longitude of the prime meridian? a. 0° c. 90° west b. 90° east d. 180°

____ 29. Which of the following is used by navigators to plot great-circle routes? a. Mercator projection c. gnomonic projection b. conic projection d. topographic map

____ 30. Which of the following is used extensively for navigation by airplanes and ships? a. depression contour line c. Topex/Poseidon satellite b. Landsat satellite d. Global Positioning System

____ 31. What is the latitude of the north pole? a. 0° north c. 180° north b. 90° north d. 360° north

____ 32. Each degree of latitude or longitude is divided into 60 smaller units called ____. a. meridians c. seconds b. grids d. Minutes

____ 33. Which statement about lines of longitude is true? a. They converge at the equator. b. They converge at the poles. c. They are parallel. d. They locate positions in north and south directions.



____ 34. Into how many time zones is Earth divided? a. 12 c. 24 b. 15 d. 360

____ 35. All flat maps distort either the shapes or the areas of landmasses because ____. a. the boundaries of landmasses are not known with certainty b. such large structures cannot be drawn accurately c. lines of latitude are not perfectly parallel d. Earth is a curved, three-dimensional object

____ 36. On a topographic map, the difference in elevation between two side-by-side contour lines is called the ____. a. contour interval c. depression contour b. index contour d. Hachure

____ 37. What is a graphic scale? a. a statement that expresses distance, such as one centimeter equals one kilometer b. a ratio that expresses distance, such as 1:50 000 c. a line broken into sections that represent units with each section representing a

distance on Earth’s surface d. a diagram that shows the elevation of the hills and valleys of an area

____ 38. GPS satellites can relay information about all of the following except ____. a. position c. direction b. elevation d. weather



Matching

a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 39. 0º latitude, splits the Earth in half

____ 40. falls between 0º and 180º longitude

____ 41. runs through Greenwich, England

____ 42. runs parallel to the equator

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. cartography d. map scale b. contour line e. remote sensing c. map legend f. topographic map

____ 43. The process of collecting data about Earth from far above Earth's surface

____ 44. Explains what the symbols on a map represent

____ 45. The science of mapmaking

____ 46. Connects points of equal elevation on a map

____ 47. Type of map that shows changes in elevation of Earth's surface

____ 48. The ratio between distances on a map and actual distances on the surface of Earth



Look at the map of Australia. The table below lists the longitude and latitude for several locations in Australia. Complete by using the map to fill in the missing coordinates.

Choose from the following for #49 – 52. A. 25°S b. 30°S C. 20°S D. 34°N E. 34°S F. 115°S G. 115°E H. 140°E I. 155°E J. 145°E K. 24°N


LATITUDE LONGITUDE LOCATION

49. ______ 131°E Ayers Rock

38°S 50. ______ Melbourne

32°S 51. ______ Perth

52. ______ 151°E Sydney




Unit Two: Composition of Earth

Chapter 3 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Describe an atom and its components. Relate energy levels of atoms to the chemical properties of elements. Define the concept of isotopes. Describe the chemical bonds that unite atoms to form compounds. Relate the nature of chemical bonds that hold compounds together to the physical structures of

compounds. Distinguish the states of matter on Earth. Explain the reasons that matter exists on these states. Relate the role of thermal energy to changes in state of matter.



____ 1. 4Fe + 6O2 2Fe2O3 is a balanced equation.

____ 2. A tomato with a pH of 4 is more acidic than milk with a pH of 6.

____ 3. The plasma state is only present on earth in the form of lightning.

____ 4. If the ion Mg+2 gains an electron the ion would now be Mg+3

____ 5. The combined number of protons and neutrons is the mass number.

____ 6. A(n) energy level represents the area in the atom where an electron is most likely to be found.

____ 7. A covalent bond is the attraction of two atoms for a shared pair of electrons that hold the atom

together.

____ 8. An atom that gains or loses an electron is a charged particle called a(n) isotope.

____ 9. A(n) element is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances.

____ 10. A tiny particle that has mass and a positive electrical charge is a(n) neutron.



____ 11. Bases are solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH-).

____ 12. The process of changing from a liquid into a gas is called sublimation.

____ 13. Electrons tend to occupy the highest available energy level.

____ 14. During radioactive decay, a nucleus can gain or lose protons and neutrons.

____ 15. Most compounds have the same properties as the elements in them.

____ 16. In a water molecule, electrons spend more time near the hydrogen atom.


____ 17. All matter is made of substances called ____.

a. atoms c. molecules b. elements d. compounds

____ 18. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____. a. electrons and neutrons c. protons and electrons b. protons, neutrons, and electrons d. protons and neutrons

____ 19. All elements are mixtures of ____. a. solids c. molecules b. isotopes d. valence electrons

____ 20. The chemical behavior of different elements is determined by the number of electrons in the ____. a. innermost energy level c. third energy level b. second energy level d. outermost energy level

____ 21. Solutions characterized by the formation of hydroxide ions (OH-) are ____. a. bases c. elements b. solids d. acids

____ 22. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____. a. mixture c. acid b. compound d. base

____ 23. Densely packed, ever-changing arrangements of atoms and molecules are ____. a. solids c. gases b. liquids d. plasma



____ 24. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy? a. melting c. condensation b. sublimation d. evaporation

____ 25. What type of bonding takes places when Na+ and Cl- combine to form NaCl? a. ionic c. covalent b. hydrogen d. metallic

____ 26. Glass is an example of ____. a. a solid c. a gas b. a liquid d. both a and b

____ 27. A molecule of chlorine gas is made up of pairs of chlorine atoms in which each atom shares one of its seven electrons to form a(n) ____. a. covalent bond c. metallic bond b. ionic bond d. solution

____ 28. In how many physical states is matter found on Earth? a. two c. four b. three d. five

____ 29. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the following ions? a. positive ions c. both positive and negative ions b. negative ions d. neither positive nor negative ions

____ 30. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____. a. acidic c. neutral b. basic d. both a and b

____ 31. The basic building blocks of matter are ____. a. atoms c. molecules b. elements d. compounds

____ 32. The nucleus of an atom is made up of ____. a. electrons and neutrons c. protons and electrons b. protons, neutrons, and electrons d. protons and neutrons

____ 33. Many elements are mixtures of ____. a. solids c. molecules b. isotopes d. valence electrons



____ 34. Chemical behavior is determined by the number of electrons located in the ____. a. innermost energy level c. third energy level b. second energy level d. outermost energy level

____ 35. Solutions containing a substance that produces hydrogen ions (H+) in water are ____. a. bases c. elements b. solids d. acids

____ 36. A combination of two or more components that retain their identity is a(n) ____. a. mixture c. acid b. solution d. base

____ 37. Densely packed arrangements of particles that take the shape of their containers are ____. a. solids c. gases b. liquids d. plasmas

____ 38. Which of the following changes of state releases thermal energy? a. melting c. condensation b. sublimation d. evaporation

____ 39. What type of bonding takes place when Na+ and Cl– combine to form NaCl? a. ionic c. covalent b. hydrogen d. metallic

____ 40. In how many physical states does matter exist in the universe? a. two c. four b. three d. five

____ 41. An atom in which the outermost energy level is more than half full tends to form which of the following ions? a. positive ions c. both positive and negative ions b. negative ions d. neither positive nor negative ions

____ 42. Tomatoes have a pH of 4. They are considered to be ____. a. acidic c. neutral b. basic d. both acidic and basic



Element Protons Neutrons Electrons A 44 57 44 B 110 171 110 C 52 75 52 D 111 161 111

Use the above table to answer questions 43 - 44.

____ 43. Organize the following elements from least to greatest according to their mass number.

a. A, C, B, D c. C, A, D, B b. A, C, D, B d. C, D, B, A

____ 44. What is the mass number of element C? a. 127 c. 52 b. 128 d. 75

Use the periodic table block for cobalt to answer the questions.

____ 45. What two pieces of information does the number identified as “A” provide?

a. the atomic number and number of neutrons

c. the number of electrons and neutrons

b. the number of protons and neutrons d. the atomic number and number of electrons

____ 46. At room temperature, in what state of matter would you find cobalt? a. solid c. gas b. liquid d. plasma



Use the diagram to answer questions 47 - 48.

____ 47. According to the diagram above what would be the symbols for the aluminum ion and oxygen ion?

a. AL2- and O2+ c. AL- and O+ b. AL+ and O- d. AL2+ and O2-

____ 48. Why is the aluminum atom likely to lose two of its valence electrons? a. Its outer energy level is less than half

full with electrons. c. It contains more electrons than its

energy levels can hold. b. Its outer energy level is more than half

full with electrons. d. The oxygen atom needs to fill its

energy levels and takes electrons from the aluminum atom.

____ 49. What is the charge on the atom shown in the image?

a. neutral c. +2 b. -2 d. 2



Use the figure to answer questions 50 - 51.

____ 50. What is the correct name for the ionic compound shown above?

a. NaONa c. Na2O b. NaO d. ONa2

____ 51. Why are the two Na ions slightly smaller than the O ion? a. The O ion is negatively charged and

the Na ions are positively charged. c. The Na ions have to be smaller

because there are more of them. b. The O ion is positively charged and the

Na ions are negatively charged. d. The O ion gains the electrons thus it

takes up more space.

Substance pH Level A 8.1 B 5.3 C 2.7 D 7.0

Use the above table to answer questions 52 - 54.

____ 52. Organize the following substances from most basic to most acidic.

a. C, B, D, A c. D, A, B, C b. A, D, B, C d. A, D, C, B

____ 53. Which substance is most likely rain water? a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 54. If substance C was mixed with substance D what would most likely happen? a. Substance C would become neutral. c. Substance C would become less acidic. b. Substance C would become less basic. d. Substance C would not change.

____ 55. Which of the following chemical equations violates the law of conservation of energy? a. 2H2+2O 2H2O c. H2+Cl 2HCl b. Zn + 2HCl ZnCl2+H2 d. H2+Cl2 2HCl



Use the diagrams to answer questions 56 - 57.

____ 56. Which of the following is NOT a property of both molecules above?

a. They both have a slightly positive and slightly negative end.

c. They are both polar molecules.

b. They both have no overall electric charge.

d.

They both formed by ionic bonds.

____ 57. What would be the correct chemical symbol for each molecule? a. HCl and H2S c. HCl and 2HS b. ClH and SH2 d. HCl and HSH

Matching:

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. atom d. nucleus b. electron e. radioactivity c. mixture f. valence electrons

____ 58. The outermost electrons of an element

____ 59. The center of an atom

____ 60. The smallest particle of an element that has all of the characteristics of that element

____ 61. A tiny particle that has little mass and a negative electrical charge

____ 62. Spontaneous process through which unstable nuclei emit radiation

____ 63. A combination of two or more compounds that retain their identity



Match each item with the correct statement. a. atomic mass d. ionic bond b. chemical reaction e. plasma c. condensation f. solution

____ 64. Hot, highly ionized, electrically conducting gas

____ 65. The change from a gas to a liquid

____ 66. The change of one or more substances into other substances

____ 67. A homogeneous mixture

____ 68. The attractive force between two ions of opposite charge

____ 69. The average of the mass numbers of an element’s isotopes





Unit Two: Minerals

Chapter 4 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Define a mineral. Describe how minerals form. Classify minerals according to their physical and chemical properties. Identify different groups of minerals. Illustrate the silica tetrahedron. Discuss how minerals are used.


Lesson Assignment 4


Mineral Luster Hardness Streak calcite (CaCO3) nonmetallic less than 2.5 white

Use the above properties of calcite to answer the questions

____ 1. Calcite can be scratched by a fingernail.

____ 2. Because calcite is nonmetallic, luster cannot be determined.

____ 3. If one oxygen element were removed, the resulting mineral would still be calcite.

____ 4. Because calcite leaves a white streak, it is a white mineral.



____ 5. This sheet tetrahedron represents the structure of mica.

____ 6. Due to its intricate network, sheet tetrahedron minerals do not separate easily.

____ 7. Although a few minerals are composed of single elements, most are made from compounds.

____ 8. Minerals can form when differences in density force magma upward into warmer layers of Earth’s

interior.

____ 9. Mineral crystals may begin to precipitate out of a solution that has become saturated.

____ 10. The most common minerals, feldspar and quartz, are carbonates.

____ 11. Gems are prized for their great availability and beauty.

____ 12. There are at least 3000 known minerals in Earth’s crust.

____ 13. Minerals form from cooled magma and from elements in gases.

____ 14. Minerals can be identified based on their physical and chemical properties.

____ 15. The most reliable way to identify a mineral is by using a combination of several tests.

____ 16. The classification of a mineral as an ore does not change once it has been mined.

____ 17. Trace elements in a mineral do not affect the color or the value of mineral.




Four of the Most Common Rock Forming Minerals

Chemical Formula

Quartz SiO2 Pyroxene* MgSiO3

Olivine (Mg,Fe)2SiO4 Calcite CaCO3

*One of several compositions Use the above table to answer the questions.

____ 18. What element is common to all four of these minerals?

a. Silicon c. Magnesium b. Oxygen d. Carbon

____ 19. Which element used above is not considered one of the eight most common elements found in the Earth’s crust? a. iron c. aluminum b. calcium d. carbon

____ 20. What is true about minerals? a. They are naturally occurring and

inorganic. c. They are organic and inorganic.

b. They can be synthetically produced. d. They are occasionally found in a liquid state.

____ 21. Which of the following is NOT a test used to identify minerals? a. luster c. magnetism b. cleavage d. streak

____ 22. A mineral has a mass of 150 g and a volume of 25 cm3. What is its density? a. 6 g/cm3 c. 175 g/cm3 b. 3750 g/cm3 d. 125 g/cm3

____ 23. A mineral’s density if 4.5 g/cm3. If it has a volume of 30 cm3, what is its mass? a. 34.5g c. 125g b. 6.67g d. 135g

____ 24. 96% of the minerals present in Earth’s crust are in which mineral group? a. carbonates c. oxides b. silicates d. sulfates



Ore Mineral Use Ilmenite Titanium artificial limbs, paint pigment Hematite Iron steel beams, automobile parts Bauxite Aluminum food packaging, automobile

parts Chromite Chrome auto accessories, plumbing

fixtures Use the above table to answer questions 25 - 27.

____ 25. Which ore would a car manufacturer be least interested in?

a. Ilmenite c. Bauxite b. Hematite d. Chromite

____ 26. Which mineral would be most useful to a chef? a. bauxite c. ilmenite b. aluminum d. titanium

____ 27. If chromite was no longer an available ore, which mineral would be the best replacement for its uses? a. titanium c. aluminum b. iron d. chrome

____ 28. Minerals always exist in a(n) ____ form. a. liquid c. solid b. gaseous d. organic

____ 29. The most abundant elements in Earth’s crust are ____. a. aluminum and potassium c. oxides and carbonates b. halite and coal d. oxygen and silicon

____ 30. Silver, gold, and copper have shiny surfaces and thus are said to have ____. a. dull luster c. waxy luster b. metallic luster d. nonmetallic luster

____ 31. Ores near Earth’s surface generally are obtained from ____. a. waste-removal facilities b. underground mines c. open-pit mines d. bodies of water with high concentrations of dissolved minerals



Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. cleavage d. luster b. fracture e. specific gravity c. hardness f. streak

____ 32. Ratio of the weight of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of water

____ 33. Property of splitting along one or more flat planes evenly and easily

____ 34. Property of breaking with rough or jagged edges

____ 35. Measure of how easily a mineral can be scratched

____ 36. Color of a mineral when it is broken up and powdered

____ 37. The way a mineral reflects light from its surface

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. crystal d. mineral b. gem e. ore c. magma f. silicate

____ 38. Naturally occurring, inorganic solid with specific chemical composition and crystalline structure

____ 39. Solid in which the atoms are arranged in repeating patterns

____ 40. Molten material found beneath Earth’s crust

____ 41. Mineral that contains silicon and oxygen

____ 42. Mineral that contains a useful substance that can be mined for profit

____ 43. Valuable mineral prized for its rarity and beauty



Problem

Your task is to determine the relative hardness on the Mohs’ scale of two everyday objects—a penny

and a steel pocketknife. You also have samples of gypsum, fluorite, and quartz. By experimentation, you determine the following: The penny scratches gypsum, but it doesn’t scratch quartz, fluorite, or the knife blade. The knife scratches gypsum, fluorite, and the penny, but it doesn’t scratch quartz.

Mohs Harness Scale Hardness Hardness of

Common Objects

Talc 1 (softest)

Gypsum 2 fingernail (2.5)

Calcite 3 piece of copper (3.5)

Fluorite 4 iron nail (4.5)

Apatite 5 glass (5.5)

Feldspar 6 steel file (6.5)

Quartz 7 streak plate (7)

Topaz 8 scratches quartz

Corundum 9 scratches topaz

Diamond 10 (hardest) scratches all common materials

44. What is the hardness of the penny? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 45. What range of Moh’s values can the knife blade have? a. 1 – 2 b. 3 – 4 c. 5 – 6 d. 6 – 7



Three pairs of mineral samples are brought to you for testing. Both samples in one pair look like gold, but one is pyrite, or fool’s gold. Both samples in the second pair look like emeralds, but one is nonprecious apatite. Both samples in the third pair look like rubies, but one is a less valuable garnet. Use the information in the table to complete the dichotomous key to identify each mineral. Mineral Color Hardness

Gold Metallic gold 2.5–3

Apatite Blue, green 5

Pyrite Metallic pale brass, gold 6–6.5

Garnet Red, deep red, brown 6.5–7.5

Beryl Bluish green, green 7.5–8

Corundum Red, deep red 9

46. Which mineral can scratch neither green stone? a. gold b. apatite

c. pyrite d. garnet

47. Which mineral can scratch neither red stone? a. apatite b. pyrite

d. beryl e. gold

48. Which mineral can scratch only one of the green stones? a. pyrite b. garnet

c. beryl d. corundum

49. Which mineral can scratch both green stones? a. corundum b. beryl

c. garnet d. gold

At this time, log onto your account on our website, open the “Lesson Assignment 4” answer sheet file located in your course materials. You can type your answers directly on to the answer sheet and email your completed answer sheet to [email protected]. If you prefer, you may print out a copy and send it by U. S. mail to L.H.S.C.C. Please submit Lesson 4.




Unit Two: Igneous Rock

Chapter 5 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Summarize igneous rock formation. Describe the composition of magma. Identify the factors that affect how rocks melt and crystallize. Classify different types and textures of igneous rocks. Recognize the effects of cooling rates on the grain sizes of igneous rocks. Describe some uses of igneous rocks.


Lesson Assignment 5

Modified True/False: Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 1. Magma is a slushy mix of molten rock, gases, and mineral crystals.

____ 2. Porphyritic textures indicate that magma has cooled very slowly throughout crystallization.

____ 3. Sandstone, with abundant quartz and orthoclase feldspar, is among the most durable of igneous

rocks.

____ 4. Valuable ore deposits are often associated with igneous extrusions.

____ 5. Different minerals melt and crystallize at different temperatures.

____ 6. Igneous rocks can be identified by their physical properties of crystal size and texture.

____ 7. Igneous rocks are rarely used as building materials because of their strength, durability, and beauty.

____ 8. Diamonds are sometimes found in igneous intrusions known as kimberlites.



Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

Use the graph to answer the questions.

____ 9. According to the graph, what is the temperature of lava?

a. 1000°C c. 1250°C b. 250°C d. 500°C

____ 10. What would be the temperature at a depth of 2500km? a. 3600°C c. 1200°C b. 3000°C d. 1000°C

____ 11. How far into the Earth must you travel to reach a temperature of 3000°C? a. 1000km c. 1700km b. 2000km d. 3900km

____ 12. According to the graph, what is the range in depth when iron core melts and solidifies? a. 3900km-4300km c. 4000km-4500km b. 3000km-5000km d. 2900km-5100km



Depth into Earth From Original Depth

Temperature Increase From Original Temperature

100m 3°C 200m 6°C 300m 9°C

Use the table to answer the questions.

____ 13. After 450m the temperature will have increased by how much?

a. 12.5°C c. 13.5°C b. 135°C d. 10.5°C

____ 14. If the temperature is 24°C warmer than the original temperature, by how much has the depth increased? a. 800m c. 2400m b. 80m d. 72m

____ 15. Which statement best summarizes the table? a. For every 100m increased in depth, the

temperature triples. c. Four every 3°C increase, the depth is

doubled. b. For every 100m increased in depth, the

temperature increases 3°C. d. For every 3°C increase, the depth is

tripled.

____ 16. Which of the following is NOT a factor in magma formation? a. temperature c. pressure b. time d. water content

Use the chart to answer questions 17 - 18.

____ 17. Why does the spectrum go from light to dark?

a. The rock colors go from light granitic to dark ultrabasic.

c. As more minerals are introduced into the rocks they become darker.

b. The rock weights go from light granitic to heavy ultrabasic.

d. Each group joins together to form the next group making the rocks denser.

____ 18. Under what category would a rock which contains quartz, iron and magnesium be found? a. granitic c. basaltic b. intermediate d. ultrabasic



Use the diagram to answer questions 19 – 20 .

____ 19. In what type of mineral does this phenomena occur?

a. olivine c. quartz b. feldspar d. biotite mica

____ 20. How does this phenomena occur? a. When magma cools slowly. c. When sodium reacts with magma. b. When calcium reacts with magma. d. When magma cools rapidly.

____ 21. As the water content of rock increases, the melting point ____. a. first increases, then decreases c. decreases b. remains the same d. increases

____ 22. A model that illustrates the predictable patterns of mineral formation from cooling magma is ____. a. Bowen's reaction series c. layered intrusion formation b. crystal separation d. mineral composition

____ 23. Intrusive igneous rocks form ____. a. fine-grained rocks b. when a molten mass of rocks cools quickly c. on Earth's surface d. coarse-grained rocks

____ 24. Rocks are formed when magma ____. a. erodes c. crystallizes b. undergoes radioactive decay d. weathers

____ 25. Igneous rocks that cool slowly beneath Earth’s crust are ____. a. extrusive c. sedimentary b. intrusive d. always magnetic



____ 26. Igneous rocks that cool quickly on Earth’s surface are ____. a. extrusive c. metamorphic b. intrusive d. always magnetic

____ 27. Extrusive rocks, which cool more rapidly than intrusive rocks, are generally more ____. a. coarsely grained c. radioactive b. finely grained d. magnetic

____ 28. Factors that affect a rock’s melting point include ____. a. pressure and water content c. rarity b. value as a gem d. usefulness as a building material

____ 29. Valuable ore deposits and gem crystals are often associated with ____. a. oceans c. thin crustal areas b. oil deposits d. igneous intrusions

Matching:

Match the question with the correct veins a. pegmatites b. kimberlites

____ 30. ultrabasic rocks

____ 31. rock source for Mount Rushmore

____ 32. where diamonds are found

____ 33. actively mined in Colorado

____ 34. produces crystals



Match each item with the correct statement below. a. felsic e. pegmatite b. kimberlite f. porphyritic c. lava g. ultramafic d. mafic

____ 35. Magma that flows out onto Earth's surface

____ 36. Light-colored rock such as granite that has high silica content

____ 37. Dark-colored rock such as gabbro that is rich in iron and magnesium

____ 38. Rock that is very high in iron and magnesium

____ 39. Texture characterized by large, well-formed crystals surrounded by finer-grained crystals of the

same mineral

____ 40. Vein of extremely large-grained minerals

____ 41. Ultramafic rock that can contains diamonds

At this time, log onto your account on our website, open the “Lesson Assignment 5” answer sheet file located in your course materials You can type your answers directly on to the answer sheet and email your completed answer sheet to [email protected]. If you prefer, you may print out a copy and send it by U. S. mail to L.H.S.C.C. Please submit Lesson 5




Unit Two: Sedimentary and Metamorphic Rocks Chapter 6 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Sequence the formation of sedimentary rocks. Explain the process of lithification. Describe features of sedimentary rocks. Describe the types of clastic sedimentary rocks. Explain how chemical sedimentary rocks form. Describe biochemical sedimentary rocks. Compare and contrast the different types and causes of metamorphism. Distinguish among metamorphic textures. Explain how mineral and compositional changes occur during metamorphism. Apply the rock cycle to explain how rocks are classified.


Lesson Assignment 6


Use the rock samples to answer the questions 1 - 3.

____ 1. Rock A is a sedimentary rock.

____ 2. According to the rock cycle, Rock A can develop directly into Rock B, but Rock B cannot develop directly into Rock A.

____ 3. Rock B is a rock that underwent hydrothermal metamorphism.



____ 4. The continuous changing and reforming of rocks is called graded bedding.

____ 5. During physical weathering, minerals remain chemically unchanged.

____ 6. During sedimentary rock formation, cementation occurs before weathering.

____ 7. Because of its large mass, coarse-grained clastics such as gravel tend to be transported by low-

energy flows of water.

____ 8. The characteristic textures and features of metamorphic rocks provide a geologic “snapshot” of

surface conditions in Earth’s past.

____ 9. Regional metamorphism is divided into low grade, intermediate grade, and high grade

metamorphism.

____ 10. The porosity of sandstone allows it to hold oil, gas, and water.

____ 11. Eroded materials are almost always carried uphill.

____ 12. When the concentration of minerals dissolved in water reaches saturation, crystals precipitate out of

solution.

____ 13. Sedimentary rocks form from rock and mineral fragments, and metamorphic rocks form from

existing rock.



Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.


____ 14. Organize the above four diagrams to correctly show the formation of sedimentary rock.

a. A, D, C, B c. C, D, A, B b. B, A, D, C d. C, A, D, B

____ 15. What is diagram A depicting? a. cementation c. deposition b. compaction d. erosion

____ 16. Which diagram is modeling the process of deposition? a. A c. C b. B d. D



Rock Classification Composition A Clastic large rounded rock

fragments B Clastic quartz and small

rock fragments C Clastic large angular rock

fragments D Clastic clay

Use the table to answer questions 17 - 19.

____ 17. Which rock could be labeled as Breccia?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 18. How did Rock A most likely get the rounded rock fragments? a. The rock fragments did not travel far

from their source. c. The rock fragments were smoothed

while being carried by wind. b. The rock fragments banged into each

other during travel in water. d. The weight of the layers they were

buried in smoothed the rock fragments.

____ 19. How do Rock B and Rock D differ in their grain size? a. Rock B is medium-grained and rock D

is fine-grained. c. Rock B contains sediments while rock

D contains no sediments. b. Rock B is fine-grained and rock D is

medium-grained. d. Rock B contains no sediments while

rock D contains sediments.

Use the graph to answer questions 20 – 21.



____ 20. At a temperature of 400ºC, at what point does intermediate metamorphic grade switch to high

metamorphic grade? a. 775 MPa c. 625 MPa b. 475 MPa d. 225 MPa

____ 21. What is occurring at 100ºC with 200 MPa of pressure? a. low grade metamorphism c. partial melting of granites b. lithification d. intermediate grade metamorphism

____ 22. What type of sediment particles have worn surfaces and rounded corners? a. sorted c. clastic b. unsorted d. dissolved

____ 23. What type of bedding has the heaviest and coarsest material is on the bottom? a. graded c. cementation b. clastic d. metamorphic

____ 24. What type of sedimentary rock is coarse-grained with angular fragments? a. foliates c. conglomerates b. nonfoliates d. breccias

____ 25. What results when rocks come in contact with molten rocks such as those in an igneous intrusion? a. precipitation c. contact metamorphism b. regional d. hydrothermal metamorphism

____ 26. The metamorphism of limestone results in the formation of ____. a. quartzite c. gneiss b. marble d. silver



Matching

Match each description with the correct sediment shown. a. Sediment A b. Sediment B

____ 27. sediment that has traveled farther

____ 28. made of harder minerals

____ 29. carbonate sand

____ 30. quartz sand

____ 31. forms first when rocks break apart

____ 32. made of seashells and calcite



Match each item with the correct statement below. a. cross bedding e. limestone b. evaporite f. nonfoliated metamorphic rock c. foliated metamorphic rock g. porphyroblasts d. hydrothermal fluid

____ 33. Layers of chemical sedimentary rocks that form from precipitated minerals

____ 34. Composed of minerals with crystals that have their long axes perpendicular to pressure

____ 35. Composed of minerals that form blocky crystal shapes

____ 36. Organic sedimentary rock

____ 37. Large metamorphic crystals

____ 38. Reacts with rock to change its mineralogy, texture, and chemistry

____ 39. Inclined sediment layers that migrate forward across a horizontal surface

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. clastic e. regional metamorphism b. deposition f. rock cycle c. lithification g. sediment d. porosity

____ 40. Physical and chemical processes that compact and transform sediments into sedimentary rocks

____ 41. Percentage of open spaces between grains in a rock

____ 42. Continuous changing and remaking of rocks

____ 43. Process of sediments being laid down on the ground or sinking to the bottom of water

____ 44. Pieces of solid material deposited on Earth’s surface

____ 45. Produced when high temperature and pressure affect large areas of Earth’s crust

____ 46. Type of sediment made up of rock and mineral fragments produced by weathering



Match each item with the correct process below. a. Asymmetrical ripple marks f. Graded bedding b. Cross bedding g. Sorted deposition c. Deposition of only fine sands h. Symmetrical ripple marks d. Deposition of marine fossils i. Unsorted deposition e. Deposition of four-footed animal

fossils j. Unsorted deposition

____ 47. Marine landslide

____ 48. Landslide

____ 49. Presence of dry land

____ 50. One-way wave action of wind or water

____ 51. Glacier

____ 52. Wind or water action

____ 53. Presence of a sea

____ 54. Wind or water action

____ 55. Wind action

____ 56. Back-and-forth wave action





It is time to request your midcourse exam: Please email us at [email protected]. We will prepare your exam and send it to your school. Please let your school official know that your exam has been requested and to be expecting it by U.S Mail. Review Lessons 1 – 6 paying close attention to anything you answered incorrectly. Your exam will come from the material you learned in those lessons and will be similar to your lesson assignments. Good Luck!




Unit Three: Weathering, Erosion, and Soils Chapter 7 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Distinguish between mechanical and chemical weathering. Describe the different factors that affect mechanical and chemical weathering. Identify variables that affect the rate of weathering. Describe the relationship of gravity to all agents of erosion. Contrast the features left from different types of erosion. Analyze the impact of living and nonliving things on the processes of weathering and erosion. Describe how soil forms. Recognize soil horizons in a soil profile. Differentiate among the factors of soil formation.


Lesson Assignment 7


____ 1. Frost wedging is an example of erosion.

____ 2. Water, carbon dioxide, and acids are significant agents of physical weathering.

____ 3. To some extent, the density of rocks determines the effects that chemical weathering will have on them.

____ 4. Without gravity, glaciers would not move downslope and streams would not flow.

____ 5. The parent bedrock determines what kinds of minerals a soil will contain.


____ 6. Which is NOT an agent of chemical weathering?

a. water c. oxygen b. temperature d. carbon dioxide

____ 7. If it takes 2000 years to weather 1 cm of limestone, how long will it take to weather 5 cm of limestone? a. 400 years c. 7000 years b. 5000 years d. 10000 years




____ 8. Which step in the diagram depicts erosion?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 9. What is the process that is occurring from step C to step D? a. Deposition c. Lithification b. Erosion d. Weathering

____ 10. If a windbreak can reduce the speed of wind for distances up to 30 times the height of the trees, how far would these trees reduce the wind speed?

a. 47 m c. 470 m b. 51 m d. 510 m

____ 11. Which type of erosion is least noticeable? a. water erosion c. glacial erosion b. wind erosion d. animal erosion

Use the above diagram of soil layers to answer questions 12 - 13.

____ 12. Which layer would be best to plant seeds? a. O c. B b. A d. C



____ 13. In which layer might hardpan develop? a. O c. B b. A d. C

____ 14. What does the O-horizon consist of? a. humus and leaf-litter c. clay b. weathered rock and organic material d. broken down bedrock

____ 15. If a sample of soil is retrieved from a poorly drained area where there are environmental problems, what color would you expect the soil to be? a. yellow c. gray b. red d. blue

____ 16. What might cause an area of soil to have a bluish color? a. humus c. constant wetness b. oxidation of iron minerals d. blue parent material

Use the classification triangle to answer questions 17 – 19.



____ 17. If a sample of soils has a clay loam texture with 40 percent clay and 60 percent silt, what possible range of percent of sand would the soil have? a. 40-65 percent c. 60-70 percent b. 25-40 percent d. 30-55 percent

____ 18. What would be the texture of a sample of soil that has 15 percent clay, 25 percent sand, and 90 percent silt? a. clay c. sand b. silty loam d. loam

____ 19. At what percentage of clay does the amount of sand and silt in the soil no longer change the texture from clay? a. 40 percent clay c. 55 percent clay b. 50 percent clay d. 60 percent clay

____ 20. Most of the weathering of Cleopatra’s Needle is caused by ____. a. hydrolysis c. oxidation b. chemical weathering d. frost wedging

____ 21. In which of the following climates would chemical weathering most readily occur? a. wet and warm c. wet and cool b. dry and warm d. dry and cool

____ 22. Barrier islands are formed when ____. a. the ocean floor is uplifted b. the wind continuously blows sand out to sea c. sand is repeatedly picked up, moved, and deposited by ocean currents d. sand bars are worn away

____ 23. Which of the following has the potential for the most erosion? a. water flowing across a flatland b. wind blowing materials in the air, against the force of gravity c. wind blowing materials down a slope d. water flowing down a steep slope



____ 24. Of the three soil samples shown below, Sample 1, the darkest and richest, would be found in ____ of a typical soil profile.

a. horizon A c. horizon C b. horizon B d. the hardpan

____ 25. Which of the following characteristics of water can be responsible for mechanical weathering? a. Water flows downstream under gravity. b. Water expands when it freezes. c. Water combines with atmospheric gases to form acid rain. d. Water reacts with and can dissolve many kinds of minerals.

____ 26. In which of the following areas is wind a major erosional agent? a. grasslands c. deserts b. temperate forests d. tropical rain forests

____ 27. Which of the following could increase the rate of chemical weathering of a rock? a. moving it to a location with few plants and animals b. moving it to a drier climate c. increasing its total surface area d. moving it to a colder climate

____ 28. Which of the following happens when a river enters a large body of water? a. The river water slows down and deposits large amounts of sediments. b. The river water increases its speed and carries out gully erosion. c. The river water flows over the delta, causing exfoliation. d. The river water erodes the shoreline and deposits barrier islands.

____ 29. The color of a soil ____. a. is a reliable indicator of its fertility b. is always dark brown or black c. is not dependent on the amount of humus d. is determined by its composition and climate

____ 30. There can be no stream erosion or glacial erosion without ____. a. gravity c. wind b. hydrolysis d. deposition



Matching

Chemical

Weathering Causes

A creates limestone caverns B endangers plant and

animal populations C reacts with irons in rocks

and minerals D breaks large molecules of

minerals down into smaller molecules

Match each description with its correct type of chemical weathering. a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 31. water

____ 32. oxygen

____ 33. carbon dioxide

____ 34. acid precipitation



Match each item with the correct definition below. a. residual soil f. soil b. transported soil g. soil profile c. exfoliation h. chemical weathering d. oxidation i. frost wedging e. hydrolysis

____ 35. The loose covering of broken rock particles and decaying organic matter overlying the bedrock of

Earth’s surface

____ 36. The repeated thawing and freezing of water in the cracks of rocks

____ 37. A vertical sequence of soil layers

____ 38. The process by which rocks and minerals undergo changes in their composition as the result of

chemical reactions

____ 39. The chemical reaction of oxygen with other substances

____ 40. Soil that has been moved to a location away from its parent bedrock

____ 41. The reaction of water with other substances

____ 42. Soil located above its parent material

____ 43. The process by which outer layers of a rock are stripped away





Unit Three: Mass Movements, Wind and Glaciers

Chapter 8 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Analyze the relationship between gravity and mass movements. Identify factors that affect mass movements. Distinguish between types of mass movements. Relate how mass movements affect people. Describe conditions that contribute to the likelihood that an area will experience wind erosion. Identify wind-formed landscape features. Describe how dunes form and migrate. Explain how glaciers form. Compare and contrast the conditions that produce valley glaciers with those that produce

continental glaciers. Describe how glaciers modify landscapes. Recognize glacial features.


Lesson Assignment 8


____ 1. After weathering processes take place, mass movements may occur.

____ 2. A landslide in which layers of snow slide down a mountainside at speeds of up to 300km/hr is a(n) rockslide.

____ 3. Because a heavy saturation of water greatly increases the weight of soils, the force of friction is more likely to pull the material downhill.

____ 4. The best way to reduce the number of disasters related to mass movements is to relocate people.

____ 5. A method of transport by which strong winds cause particles to stay airborne for long distances is called saltation.

____ 6. The structure shown in the illustration below is shaped by wind-blown sediments and is called a(n) ventifact.



____ 7. Many parts of Earth’s surface are covered by thick layers of windblown silt that are called loess.


____ 8. Which is NOT a factor that influences mass movements?

a. water c. soil type b. weight d. time

____ 9. A once straight fencepost is now tilted slightly. What type of mass movement is this demonstrating? a. creep c. slide b. flow d. fall

____ 10. At which location would a catastrophic mass-movement be most common? a. On a slope of 15° in an area of 120 cm

of annual rainfall. c. On a slope of 30° in an area of 110 cm

of annual rainfall. b. On a slope of 35° in an area of 72 cm

of annual rainfall. d. On a slope of 18° in an area of 88 cm

of annual rainfall.




____ 11. What type of dune is shown above? a. Barchan c. Parabolic b. Transverse d. Longitudinal

____ 12. Where would this dune most likely occur? a. in humid areas c. in areas of abundant sand b. in flat areas d. in areas of constant wind

____ 13. Where is wind erosion least likely to take place? a. deserts c. seashores b. prairies d. lakeshores

Use the picture to answer questions 14 - 15.

____ 14. What type of wind erosion would cause this type of rock erosion?

a. deflation c. abrasion b. saltation d. loess

____ 15. This rock that has been shaped by wind-blown sediments is known as? a. a ventifact c. barchan b. desert pavement d. loess



____ 16. What is formed when two cirques on opposite sides of a valley meet? a. hanging valley c. horn b. arete d. U-shaped valley

____ 17. What makes a kame different from an esker? a. its layering c. its sediments b. its origins d. its shape

____ 18. Which of the following actions could prevent mass-movement disasters? a. constructing buildings and roads in stream drainage paths b. removing trees from steep slopes c. educating people about the advantages of building on steep slopes d. digging a series of trenches to divert water around a slope

____ 19. Which of the following statements is true about wind transport? a. Wind, like water, can only move materials downhill. b. Wind and water have the same relative ability to erode materials. c. Wind transport and erosion primarily occur in areas with little vegetative cover. d. Generally, wind can carry particles as large as those transported by moving water.

____ 20. Dune formation will take place when ____. a. high winds, sand, and no vegetation are present b. sand, high winds, and vegetation are present c. only with quartz sand, high winds, and vegetation are present d. high winds are available

____ 21. Where there is limited sand available and strong prevailing winds, ____. a. longitudinal dunes are formed c. no dune formation can take place b. parabolic dunes form d. transverse dunes are formed

____ 22. Which of the following statements is NOT true about valley glaciers? a. Flow rates are the same within the various portions of the glacier. b. The speed of the glacier is affected by the slope of the valley floor. c. They widen V-shaped stream valleys in U-shaped glacial valleys. d. Movement is usually less than a few millimeters a day.

____ 23. A ridge consisting of mixed debris deposited by a glacier is a(n) ____. a. outwash plain c. moraine b. kettle d. esker



____ 24. Slumps are common after a rainfall because the water ____. a. reduces friction between soil grains c. causes snow to melt b. breaks the underlying rock d. washes away the vegetation cover

____ 25. Which of the following causes deflation? a. glacial erosion c. wind deposition b. deposition by meltwaters d. wind erosion

____ 26. Glaciers covered 30 percent of the earth during the last ice age that began about ____. a. 10 000 years ago c. 2000 years ago b. 1.6 million years ago d. 50 million years ago

____ 27. When two cirques on opposite sides of a valley meet, they form a(n) ____. a. arête c. moraine b. drumlin d. avalanche

Matching

Match each situation with the correct type of mass movement. a. creep c. slide b. flow d. fall

____ 28. a swiftly moving mixture of sand and water that occurs after an earthquake

____ 29. a slump formed after a heavy rain

____ 30. solifluction in Antarctica

____ 31. talus results at the base of a mountain



Correctly match each glacial erosion feature with the correct letter.

a. A d. D b. B e. E c. C f. F

____ 32. hanging valley

____ 33. waterfall

____ 34. arete

____ 35. horn

____ 36. U-shaped valley

____ 37. cirque

Match each item with the correct description below. a. slump d. mudflow b. creep e. landslide c. water

____ 38. The slow, steady, downhill flow of loose, weathered earth materials

____ 39. Swiftly moving mixture of mud and water that causes many deaths

____ 40. A rapid, downslope slide of earth materials

____ 41. A landslide in which the material rotates and slides along a curved surface

____ 42. This acts as a lubricant between grains of soils and sediments



Match each item with the correct statement below so that you have arranged the steps of the formation of a glacier in order. a. Step 1 c. Step 3 b. Step 2 d. Step 4

____ 43. The weight of the snow exerts extensive downward pressure.

____ 44. Cold temperatures keep fallen snow from completely melting.

____ 45. The snow recrystallizes to form ice.

____ 46. Snow accumulates in an area called a snowfield.

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. continental glacier f. mass movement b. outwash plain g. loess c. valley glacier h. abrasion d. cirque i. mudflow e. drumlin j. slump

____ 47. A mass of ice that forms in mountainous areas

____ 48. A downslope movement of loose sediment and rock under gravity

____ 49. A broad, continent-sized mass of ice

____ 50. Windblown deposits composed of silt

____ 51. A deep depression carved out by an alpine glacier

____ 52. Occurs when sand particles rub against the surface of rocks

____ 53. Where meltwater flows and deposits

____ 54. Swiftly moving mixture of mud and water sometimes triggered by an earthquake

____ 55. A landslide in which earth material rotates and slides along a curved surface

____ 56. An elongated landform produced when glaciers move over older moraines



Short Answer

Use the diagram to answer the question.

57. If a person needed protection from the wind, on which side of the dune would they want to stand, A

or B? a. A b. B





Unit Three: Surface Water

Chapter 9 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Describe how surface water can move weathered materials. Explain how a stream carries its load. Describe how a floodplain develops. Describe some of the physical features of stream development. Describe the relationship between meanders and stream flow. Explain the process of rejuvenation in the stream development. Explain the formation of freshwater lakes and wetlands. Describe the process of eutrophication. Recognize the effects of human activity on lake development.


Lesson Assignment 9


____ 1. Some runoff initially flows in thin sheets and eventually collects in miniature channels called rills

and brooks.

____ 2. There is a greater potential for erosion on shallow slopes.

____ 3. When water runs through or over rocks containing soluble minerals, it dissolves small amounts of

the minerals and carries them away in solution.

____ 4. Both water velocity and volume increase during times of heavy precipitation.

____ 5. During rejuvenation, the stream actively resumes the process of downcutting toward its bed.

____ 6. Lakes can be common in areas where limestone is the dominant bedrock.

____ 7. When huge numbers of plants and animals decay, a lake’s phosphate supply is depleted.

____ 8. A major source of algae-supporting nutrients that concentrate in lakes is phosphate detergents.



____ 9. In a stream, small particles, such as silt, clay, and sand are carried in solution.

____ 10. Deltas are fan-shaped deposits found on valley floors at the base of mountains.


____ 11. Which location would allow the least amount of water to be absorbed into the ground?

a. a grassy terrain c. a forest b. a sandy beach d. a mountain

Use the picture to answer the questions.

____ 12. The Ohio and Missouri Rivers are both ________ of the Mississippi River.

a. tributaries c. divides b. watersheds d. water systems

____ 13. The land around these rivers is known as the ______. a. tributary c. water system b. divide d. watershed

____ 14. In what area would you most likely find a divide? a. a valley c. a mountain b. a plain d. a hill



____ 15. Which order correctly completes the water cycle shown below?

a. precipitation, evaporation, absorption c. evaporation, precipitation, absorption b. evaporation, absorption, precipitation d. precipitation, absorption, evaporation

____ 16. Suppose a river has an average width of 8m, an average depth of 5 m, and an average velocity of 2 m/s. What is its average discharge? a. 15 m3/s c. 20 m3/s b. 80 m3/s d. 150 m3/s

____ 17. If the Mississippi River is on average 45m deep and 100 m wide, approximately how fast would it have to move in order to have an average discharge of 17,000 m3/s? a. 37 m/s c. 0.37 m/s b. 3.7 m/s d. 370 m/s

____ 18. What is the lowest base level possible for any stream? a. The point where it joins another

stream. c. The point where it enters a broad

valley. b. The point where it reaches sea level. d. The point where it originates in the

mountains.

____ 19. The Grand Canyon is an example of ______. a. rejuvenation c. headward erosion b. deposition of sediment d. stream capture

____ 20. Most lakes in North America were formed in what way? a. cut-off meanders c. stream flows blocked by sediments b. glaciers gouging out depressions in the

earth d. naturally occurring depressions on

Earth’s surface.



____ 21. What is the power behind the water cycle? a. gravity c. evaporation b. the Sun d. condensation

____ 22. The three ways in which a stream carries its load are in solution, suspension, and ____. a. stream velocity c. bed load b. stream channel d. channel capacity

____ 23. Which of the following is the formula for discharge? a. discharge = width × depth × velocity b. discharge = stream load × depth × velocity c. discharge = stream load × friction × velocity d. discharge = width × depth × velocity × friction

____ 24. In order for rejuvenation to take place in a stream, what must occur first? a. Deposition must stop. b. The stream must dry up. c. The land over which the stream flows uplifts. d. The discharge must increase.

____ 25. Which of the following statements is true about the development of a stream? a. A stream’s slope increases as it approaches base level. b. Water along the sides and bottom of the channel flows more rapidly. c. Deposition is greater in the outside curve of a meander. d. The velocity of water is greater along the outside of a meander curve.

____ 26. Potholes form in the stream bottom when ____. a. the water dissolves the bedrock b. turbulence causes pebbles to swirl c. an increase in suspended load occurs d. the stream’s carrying capacity decreases

____ 27. The carrying capacity of a stream is its ____. a. ability to transport sediment c. volume of flow b. rate of runoff entering the channel d. stream bank height

____ 28. V-shaped channels like the Grand Canyon are formed by ____. a. a sudden decrease in stream gradient c. streams overflowing their banks b. stream downcutting d. streams capturing another stream



____ 29. A blocked-off meander eventually becomes ____. a. part of the stream again c. an oxbow lake b. rejuvenated d. an alluvial fan

____ 30. Which of the following statements is NOT true about wetlands? a. Wetlands result from the eutrophication of a lake. b. Lack of oxygen and lack of minerals create an atmosphere that is inhospitable to

many plants. c. Freshwater marshes often form along the stream’s mouth and in areas with deltas. d. Wetlands only exist in freshwater areas.

Matching

Match the points labeled on the diagram with their correct name. a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 31. oxbow

____ 32. delta

____ 33. meander

____ 34. headwaters



Match each item with the correct definition below. a. rejuvenation e. meander b. lake f. delta c. stream banks g. wetland d. flood

____ 35. The ground that borders a stream and holds the water within the confines of the channel

____ 36. A bend or curve in a stream channel

____ 37. A triangular deposit that forms where a stream enters a large body of water

____ 38. A stream resumes the process of downcutting

____ 39. A depression in the land that holds water

____ 40. An area periodically saturated with water

____ 41. Water spills over the sides of a stream’s banks

42. Which type of soil will better absorb water?

A. Soil A B. Soil B



Identify the two stream formations shown below. Compare how each is formed.

43. The stream formation on the left is A. alluvial fan B. stream banks C. delta D. wetlands 44. The stream formation on the right is A. alluvial fan B. stream banks C. delta D. wetlands At this time, log onto your account on our website, open the “Lesson Assignment 9” answer sheet file located in your course materials. You can type your answers directly on to the answer sheet and email your completed answer sheet to [email protected]. If you prefer, you may print out a copy and send it by U. S. mail to L.H.S.C.C. Please submit Lesson 9.




Unit Five: Plate Tectonics

Chapter 17 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Identify the lines of evidence that led Wegener to suggest that Earth’s continents have moved. Discuss how evidence of ancient climates supported continental drift. Explain why continental drift was not accepted when it was first proposed. Summarize the evidence that led to the discovery of seafloor spreading. Explain the significance of magnetic patterns on the seafloor. Explain the process of seafloor spreading. Describe how Earth’s tectonic plates result in many geologic features. Compare and contrast the three types of plate boundaries and the features associated with each. Generalize the processes associated with subduction zones. Explain the process of convection. Summarize how convection in the mantle is related to the movements of tectonic plates. Compare and contrast the processes of ridge push and slab pull.


Lesson Assignment 10


____ 1. Some early mapmakers thought that the coastline of South America matched the coastline of Asia.

____ 2. Scientists at the time rejected Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift because he could not explain

how or why Earth’s continents move.

____ 3. As new seafloor moves away from an ocean ridge, the seafloor cools and becomes less dense than

the material beneath it.

____ 4. According the theory of plate tectonics, plates interact at plate boundaries by deflecting each other,

moving away from each other, or moving horizontally past each other.

____ 5. If two continental plates converge, a subduction zone forms.

____ 6. The transfer of thermal energy by the movement of warmed matter is called convection.



____ 7. The rising part of a convection current causes both upward and lateral forces that lift and split the

lithosphere at a divergent boundary.

____ 8. The weight of a subducting plate helps to pull the lithosphere into a subduction zone in a process

called ridge push.


____ 9. The existence of coal beds in Antarctica indicates that the continent once had ____.

a. been part of Africa c. a cold, dry climate b. a temperate, rainy climate d. been farther from the equator

____ 10. ____ is a fossil fern that helped support Wegener’s hypothesis of continental drift. a. Gondwanaland c. Mesosaurus b. Kannemeyerid d. Glossopteris

____ 11. The youngest part of the ocean floor is found ____. a. along deep sea trenches b. where ocean sediments are thickest c. near ocean ridges d. where Earth’s magnetic field changes polarity

____ 12. At an oceanic-oceanic convergent boundary, ____. a. new crust is created c. old crust is deformed or fractured b. old crust is recycled by subduction d. plates side past one another

____ 13. Convection currents transfer thermal energy ____. a. between continents b. from cooler regions to warmer regions c. from warmer regions to cooler regions d. as a result of buoyancy

____ 14. The downward part of a convection current causes a sinking force that ____. a. pulls tectonic plates toward one another b. moves plates apart from one another c. lifts and splits the lithosphere d. creates a divergent boundary



____ 15. Many early mapmakers thought Earth’s continents had moved based on ____. a. plate boundary locations c. climatic data b. fossil evidence d. matching coastlines

____ 16. Continental drift was not widely accepted when it was first proposed because ____. a. Wegener couldn’t explain why or how the continents moved b. continental landmasses were too big to move slowly over Earth’s surface c. magnetic and sonar data proved that Wegener’s hypothesis was incorrect d. mantle convection currents weren’t in motion at that time

____ 17. Compared to ocean crust near deep-sea trenches, crust near ocean ridges is ____. a. younger c. the same age b. older d. magnetically reversed

____ 18. The magnetic pattern of ocean-floor rocks on one side of an ocean ridge is ____. a. a mirror image of that of the other side b. younger than on the other side c. much different from the magnetic pattern found in rocks on land d. at right angles to the ocean ridge

____ 19. Isochron maps of the seafloor indicate that ocean crust is ____. a. oldest near ocean ridges c. youngest near ocean ridges b. youngest at deep-sea trenches d. thinnest in subduction zones

____ 20. Each cycle of spreading and intrusion of magma during seafloor spreading results in ____. a. magnetic reversals c. subduction b. new ocean crust d. plates colliding

____ 21. Features found at divergent boundaries include ____. a. ocean ridges c. crumpled mountains b. deep-sea trenches d. island arc volcanoes

____ 22. Continental-continental plate collisions produce ____. a. island arcs c. deep-sea trenches b. rift valleys d. very tall mountain ranges

____ 23. Crust is neither destroyed nor formed along which of the following boundaries? a. convergent c. transform b. divergent d. magnetic



____ 24. The driving forces of tectonic plates are related to convection currents in Earth’s ____. a. crust c. inner core b. mantle d. outer core

____ 25. A vast, underwater mountain chain is called a(n) _________. a. deep-sea trench c. ocean ridge b. oceanic crust d. ocean floor sediment

____ 26. A narrow, elongated depression in the seafloor is called a(n) _________. a. deep-sea trench c. ocean ridge b. oceanic crust d. ocean floor sediment

____ 27. _____________ is defined as the study of the history of earth’s magnetic field. a. paleogeology c. paleomagnetism b. ocean topography d. magnetic symmetry

Matching

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. magnetometer e. Gondwanaland b. convection currents f. transform c. rift valley g. deep-sea trench d. plate tectonics h. ridge push

____ 28. A landmass thought to have been comprised of present-day southern continents

____ 29. A device that measures changes in Earth’s magnetic field

____ 30. A narrow, elongated depression in the seafloor

____ 31. A narrow, long depression in continental crust

____ 32. Type of boundary characterized by long faults and shallow earthquakes

____ 33. Theory that states that Earth’s crust and upper mantle are broken into enormous slabs

____ 34. The mechanisms thought to be associated with plate movements

____ 35. The process that helps to move an oceanic plate toward a subduction zone



Match each process of seafloor spreading with its description below.

____ 36. Hot magma fills the gap that forms at the ridge.

____ 37. The magma hardens, to form a small amount of ocean floor.

____ 38. Hot magma is forced toward crust along an ocean ridge.



Match each letter that appears on the diagram with the appropriate feature below.

____ 39. Subduction zone

____ 40. Rift valley

____ 41. Volcanoes

____ 42. Highly-folded mountains





Unit Five: Volcanism

Chapter 18 Lesson Objectives: At the end of this unit, you will be able to: Describe how plate tectonics influences the formation of volcanoes. Locate major zones of volcanism. Identify the parts of a volcano. Differentiate between volcanic landforms. Explain how magma type influences volcanic activity, Describe the role of pressure and dissolved gases in eruptions. Recognize classifications of material ejected by eruptions. Compare and contrast features formed from magma that solidifies near the surface with those

that solidify deep underground. Classify the different types of intrusive rock bodies. Describe how geologic processes result in intrusive rocks that appear at Earth’s surface.


Lesson Assignment 11


____ 1. All volcanoes form at plate boundaries.

____ 2. Cinder cones are usually found at the edges of larger volcanoes.

Use the diagram to answer the questions.

____ 3. The volcano shown with its long, gentle slopes would best be described as a shield volcano.

____ 4. Because of this volcano’s explosive nature, it is potentially dangerous to humans and the environment.

____ 5. A pluton is an intrusive metamorphic rock body formed from magma.

____ 6. Batholiths and stocks are similar types of plutons, but stocks are larger.




____ 7. The pluton shown is called a laccolith.

____ 8. This pluton occurs deep in Earth and does not cause any changes to the surface of Earth .


____ 9. Basalt melts to form basaltic magma, andesite melts to form andesitic magma, and granite melts to

form granitic magma.

____ 10. Igneous extrusive rock bodies are called plutons.

____ 11. Magma erupts through an opening in Earth’s crust called a vent.

____ 12. Seamount chains and flood basalts both form as a result of shield volcanoes.



Use the diagram below to answer the following questions.

____ 13. At any given pressure, wet albite will melt at a lower temperature than dry albite.

____ 14. As pressure increases, the melting point of dry albite decreases.

____ 15. The hotter the magma or lava, the greater is its viscosity.

____ 16. Lava that has low viscosity moves slower than lava with high viscosity.

____ 17. Temperature and pressure decrease with depth beneath Earth’s surface.

____ 18. Rhyolitic magma forms beneath oceanic crust.

____ 19. Cinder-cone volcanoes have steep sides and are generally the smallest volcanoes.

____ 20. Volcanoes associated with convergent plate boundaries form the Circum-Pacific and the

Mediterranean Belts.

____ 21. Dikes are plutons that cause overlying rocks to bow upward.

____ 22. Composite volcanoes are made of basaltic lava.



____ 23. Rhyolitic magma-fueled volcanoes are especially explosive because rhyolitic magma is highly

viscous and contains a large volume of trapped gas.

____ 24. The higher the silica content in lava, the higher the lava’s resistance to flow.

____ 25. Many plutons formed as a result of mountain-building processes that occurred along divergent plate

boundaries.



____ 26. According to the diagram, which Hawaiian Island is the oldest?

a. Loihi c. Kauai b. Hawaii d. Molokai

____ 27. Where would the most active volcano be located on this diagram? a. Maui c. Oahu b. Kauai d. Hawaii

____ 28. What is the next volcano to form? a. Kauai c. Loihi b. Molokai d. Hawaii

____ 29. Crater Lake in southern Oregon is not a crater but actually a ___. a. conduit c. caldera b. vent d. magma chamber



Use the graph to answer the questions.

____ 30. What is the difference in melting points of dry albite and albite with water at a depth of 12 km?

a. 1940°C c. 560°C b. 460°C d. 1200°C

____ 31. How does the melting point of albite with water change as the depth of its burial increases from 0 to 3 km? a. It decreases by 220°C. c. It increases by 20°C. b. It increases by 220°C. d. It decreases by 20°C.

Use the table to answer the questions. Lava from a hot spot flowed out of a fissure at the rate of 0.8 km/h.

Time (hours)

Distance (km)

12 9.6 ___ 24 45 ___

____ 32. How long did it take for the lava to flow 24km?

a. 19.2 hours c. 30 hours b. 2 hours d. 192 hours

____ 33. After 45 hours the lava reached its maximum distance from the fissure and cooled. How many kilometer was the resulting flood basalt? a. 56.25 km c. 56 km b. 36 km d. 5.625 km



____ 34. All of the following affect the temperature at which magma forms EXCEPT ____. a. pressure c. water b. composition of source material d. viscosity

____ 35. Types of plutons include ____. a. shields, cinder-cones, and composites b. vents, craters, and calderas c. dust, ash, lapilli, volcanic blocks, and volcanic bombs d. batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and laccoliths

____ 36. Which of the following are landscape features associated with volcanoes? a. uplift, erosion, weathering, and deposition b. hot spots and flood basalts c. vents, craters, and calderas d. batholiths, stocks, sills, dikes, and laccoliths

Matching: For 37 – 42 use the diagram of the volcano below. Correctly match the parts of a volcano.

a. A d. D b. B e. E c. C f. F

____ 37. crater

____ 38. pyroclastic flow

____ 39. vent



____ 40. conduit

____ 41. magma chamber

____ 42. tephra

Match each item with the correct statement below. a. batholith d. sill b. Mid-Atlantic Ridge e. pyroclastic flow c. Pacific Ocean

____ 43. Largest type of pluton

____ 44. Tabular pluton parallel to the rock it intrudes

____ 45. Rapidly moving volcanic material

____ 46. Location of rift or divergent volcanism

____ 47. Location of volcanoes formed as the result of hot spots

Match each letter that appears on the diagram with the correct feature below.

____ 48. Laccolith

____ 49. Dike

____ 50. Lava flow

____ 51. Sill

____ 52. Volcano



Match each type with the correct statement below. a. basaltic magma b. andesitic magma c. rhyolitic magma

____ 53. Forms in the upper mantle

____ 54. Magma with the lowest viscosity

____ 55. Usually found at continental margins associated with subduction zones

____ 56. Magma with the lowest gas content

____ 57. Most explosive form of magma

Match each type of volcano with the correct illustration or description below. a. shield volcano c. composite volcano b. cinder-cone volcano

____ 58.

____ 59.

____ 60.

____ 61. Broad, gently sloping sides

____ 62. Steep-sided

____ 63. Made of layers of tephra and lava

____ 64. Forms from layers of basaltic lava

____ 65. Forms as tephra ejected high into the air fall back to Earth and pile around the vent

____ 66. Largest of the volcanoes



Match each item with the correct definition below. a. caldera d. pluton b. vent e. tephra c. viscosity f. crater

____ 67. Volcanic fragments thrown into air during a volcanic eruption

____ 68. Internal resistance to flow

____ 69. Intrusive igneous rock body

____ 70. Opening in Earth’s crust through which lava erupts

____ 71. Bowl-shaped depression around a vent at the top of a volcano

____ 72. Depression that forms when the top or side of a volcano collapses into the magma chamber





It is time to request your Final Exam: Send your request to [email protected].

Please check with your school official to see if your exam has arrived. Review lessons 7-11 paying close attention to anything you answered incorrectly. Your exam will come

from the material you learned in those lessons and will be similar to your lesson assignments. Good Luck!

Please remember you must pass the Final Exam in order to pass the course. Study hard. Good luck!


Documents

521 Earth Science, First Semester - Louisiana High School ...lhscc.org/files/521/Course Study Guide.pdf · 521 Earth Science, First Semester Textbook Francisco Barrero, PhD, ... Meteorology