163b Advanced Rdbms Qp

Dr. G R DAMODARAN COLLEGE OF SCIENCE, COIMBATORE 641014

School of Information Technology and Computer Science

I M.Sc Information Technology [2010-2012] Batch

SEMESTER-I

Core- ADVANCED RDBMS -163B

Multiple Choice Questions

1.________ run on a single computer system and do not interact with other computer

systems.

1. Single user system

2. Centralized system

3. Multiuser system

4. Parallel system

2. _______ manages access structures, query evaluation and optimization.

1. Back end

2. Front end

3. Package

4. DBMS

3. _______ consist of tools such as forms and reports.

1. Back end

2. Front end

3. Package

4. DBMS

4.______ is a application program interface standard from Microsoft for connecting to

server.

1. RPC

2. JDBC

3. ADO

4. ODBC

5.________servers which is widely used in relational data base systems.

1. Data servers

2. Transaction servers

3. Query servers

4. Client servers

6. The operation of using from finer granularity data to a coarser granularity is called

______

1. drill down.

2. pivoting.

3. roll up.

4. slicing.

7. Moving from coarser granularity data to finer granularity data is called_____

1. drill down.

2. pivoting.

3. roll up.

4. slicing.

8. The OLAP system used multidimensional array in memory to store data cubes are

referred as ______

1. ROLAP.

2. HOLAP.

3. OLAP.

4. MOLAP.

9. OLAP implementation using only relational data base features is called ________

1.HOLAP.

2. LOAP.

3. ROLAP.

4. MOLAP.

10. ______ is a process of analyzing large data base and knowledge discovery.

1. Data warehousing

2. Data mining

3. Data analyzing

4. Data discovery

11.______ storages lose contents when power is switched off.

1. Volatile storage

2. Nonvolatile storage

3. Disk storage

4. Physical storage

12 ________ storages persist contents even power is switched off.

1. Volatile storage

2. Nonvolatile storage

3. Disk storage

4. Physical storage

13. The most costly form of storage is ______

1. main memory.

2. buffer.

3. floppy.

4. cache.

14. In magnetic disk the surface of the platter is divided into_____________

1. sectors.

2. cylinders.

3. tracks.

4. blocks.

15. Each track is divided into_____________

1. sectors.

2. cylinders.

3. tracks.

4. blocks.

16. ____________ key is used to look up the records in file.

1. Primary key

2. Foreign key

3. Search key

4. Composite key

17. In_____________ index record apperas for every search key value in the file.

1. primary index

2. dense index

3. sparse index

4. secondary index

18. In PL/SQL, which port contains the condition section?

1. Executable commands.

2. Exception handling.

3. Declaration.

4. Result part.

19. _____________ attribute is used to find the cursor has been opened.

1. %FOUND

2. % NOTFOUND

3. %ISOPEN

4. %ROWCOUNT

20. How many types are there in triggers?

1. 3.

2. 4.

3. 5.

4. 6.

21. _____________ property will check whether all the operation of a transaction

completed or none.

1. Atomicity

2. Consistency

3. Isolation

4. Durability

22. In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement has been executed?

1. Active.

2. Failed.

3. Aborted.

4. Partially committed.

23. In shadow database, which will help to point out the current consistent copy of the

database?

1. Printer.

2. db-pointer.

3. dp-pointer.

4. bd-pointer.

24. For the relation which is not fit in memory_____________ is a good choice.

1. heapsort

2. mergesort

3. external sort-merge

4. internal merge sort

25. How many steps involved in query processing?

1. 1.

2. 2.

3. 3.

4. 4.

26. _____________ blocks are the blocks residing temporarily in main memory.

1. Record

2. File

3. Cache

4. Buffer

27. In log based recovery, the log is sequence of _____________

1. filter.

2. records.

3. blocks.

4. numbers.

28. The _____________ database modification scheme allows database updates of an

uncommitted transaction to be made.

1. immediate

2. deferred

3. frequent

4. sequence

29. _____________ is an alternative of log based recovery

1. Disk recovery

2. Shadow paging

3. Dish shadowing

4. Crash recovery

30. Database maintains an in-memory buffer of data blocks are_____________

1. database maintenance.

2. database management.

3. database buffering.

4. database blocks.

31. In object structure, _____________ is a body of code to implement a message.

1. functions

2. methods

3. blocks

4. records

32. _____________ is used to uniquely identify objects.

1. Object identifier

2. Unique identifier

3. Function identifier

4. Key identifier

33. In object containment ,multiple levels of containment create a _____________

1. composite hierarchy.

2. containment hierarchy.

3. multiple hierarchy.

4. mined hierarchy.

34. _____________ programming languages entered object oriented programming

language to deal with database

1. Common

2. Primary

3. Procedure

4. Persistent

35. In parallel database,queries are expressed _____________ languages

1. low level

2. machine level

3. high level

4. primary level

36. For locating a triple associatively_____________ queries are used.

1. range queries

2. point queries

3. complex queries

4. basic queries

37. Skew in range partitioning can be handled elegantly using_____________

partitioning

1. virtual processor

2. multi processor

3. range processor

4. partitional processor

38. In_____________ distributed database different sites use different schemes and soft

wares

1. primary

2. secondary

3. homogeneous

4. heterogeneous

39. The system maintains multiple copies of data for faster retrieval is called

_____________

1. distribution.

2. fragmentation.

3. replication.

4. repetition.

40. In _____________ Fragmentation the relation is split into several smaller schemas.

1. horizontal

2. vertical

3. sequence

4. distributed

41. _____________ initially developed as multithreaded servers to support large numbers

of terminals from a single process.

1. TP monitors

2. LCD monitors

3. VGA monitors

4. Plasma panel

42. _____________ is an alternative for individual login per terminal.

1. Thread per client model

2. Multi processor

3. Multi threaded

4. Process per client model

43. In _____________ process model all remote terminals connect to a single server

process.

1. multi

2. single

3. parallel

4. distributed

44. ATP monitor treats each subsystem as a _____________ that provides transactional

access to some set of resources.

1. database manager

2. file manager

3. record manager

4. resource manager

45. In _____________ states every execution of a workflow will terminate in a state that

satisfies the failure-atomicity requirements defined by the designer.

1. acceptable termination

2. termination

3. acceptable

4. transaction

46. _____________ control the execution of a task by a processing entity.

1. Control agents

2. Task agents

3. Event agents

4. Procedure agents

47. _____________ has one scheduler for each workflow.

1. Partially distributed

2. Fully distributed

3. Partially committed

4. Fully committed

48. _____________ has no scheduler.

1. Partially distributed

2. Fully distributed

3. Partially committed

4. Fully committed

49. The task has zero value if it completed after the deadline is defined as

_____________

1. soft deadline.

2. hard Deadline.

3. firm deadline.

4. time deadline.

50. The task has diminishing value if it is completed after the deadline is defined as

__________

1. soft deadline.

2. hard Deadline.

3. firm deadline.

4. time deadline.

51. SELECT address1||','||address2||','||address2 "Address" FROM employee;

1. 1.

2. 2.

3. 3.

4. 4.

52. Which Oracle access method is the fastest way for Oracle to retrieve a single row?

1. Primary key access.

2. Access via unique index.

3. Table access by ROWID.

4. Full table scan.

53. Which of the following can be a valid column name?

1. Column.

2. 1966_Invoices.

3. Catch_#22.

4. #Invoices.

54. Which command will delete all data from a table and will not write to the rollback

segment?

1. DROP.

2. DELETE.

3. CASCADE.

4. TRUNCATE.

55. Which character function can be used to return a specified portion of a character

string?

1. INSTR.

2. SUBSTRING.

3. SUBSTR.

4. POS.

56. The primary key on table EMP is the EMPNO column. Which of the following

statements will not use the associated index on EMPNO?

1. select * from EMP where nvl(EMPNO, '00000') = '59384';

2. select * from EMP where EMPNO = '59384';

3. select EMPNO, LASTNAME from EMP where EMPNO = '59384';

4. select 1 from EMP where EMPNO = '59834';

57.When a user creates an object without a TABLESPACE clause, where will Oracle

store the segment?

1. System tablespace.

2. Users tablespace.

3. Default tablespace for the user.

4. Oracle will give an error.

58.Which character is used to continue a statement in SQL*Plus?

1. *

2. /

3. -

4. @

59.Assuming today is Monday, 10 July 2000, what is returned by this statement:

SELECT to_char(NEXT_DAY(sysdate, 'MONDAY'), 'DD-MON-RR') FROM dual;

1. 03-JUL-00.

2. 10-JUL-00.

3. 12-JUL-00.

4. 11-JUL-00.

60. To produce a meaningful result set without any cartesian products, what is the

minimum number of conditions that should appear in the WHERE clause of a four-table

join?

1. 2.

2. 3.

3. 4.

4. 5.

61.Which of the following SQL functions can operate on any data type?

1. LPAD.

2. MAX.

3. CEIL.

4. LOWER.

62. SNAPSHOT is used for [DBA]_________

1. synonym.

2. dynamic data replication.

3. system server.

4. table space.

63. We can create SNAPSHOTLOG for[DBA]______________

1. simple snapshots.

2. complex snapshots.

3. simple and Complex snapshots.

4. simple or Complex snapshots.

64. Transactions per rollback segment is derived from[DBA]_________

1. Db_Block_Buffers.

2. processes.

3. shared_Pool_Size.

4. buffers.

65. ENQUEUE resources parameter information is derived from[DBA]________

1. processes or DDL_LOCKS and DML_LOCKS.

2. LOG_BUFFER.

3. DB__BLOCK_SIZE.

4. processes or LOG_BUFFER and DB_BLOCK_SIZE.

66. LGWR process writes information into___________

1. database files.

2. control files.

3. redolog files.

4. undolog files.

67. Databases overall structure is maintained in a file called______________

1. redolog file.

2. data file.

3. control file.

4. undolog file.

68. What is difference between a DIALOG WINDOW and a DOCUMENT WINDOW

regarding moving the window with respect to the application window?

1. Both windows behave the same way as far as moving the window is concerned.

2. A document window can be moved outside the application window while a

dialog window cannot be moved.

3. Both windows behave in a different way as far as moving the window.

4. A dialog window can be moved outside the application window while a

document window cannot be moved.

69. What is the difference between a MESSAGEBOX and an ALERT?

1. A messagebox can be used only by the system and cannot be used in user

application while an alert can be used in user application also.

2. A alert can be used only by the system and cannot be use din user application

while an messagebox can be used in user application also.

3. An alert requires an response from the userwhile a messagebox just flashes a

message and only requires an acknowledment from the user.

4. An message box requires an response from the userwhile a alert just flashes a

message an only requires an acknowledment from the user.

70. What is the difference between a LIST BOX and a COMBO BOX ?

1. In the list box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in a

combo box the user can type in value which is not in the list.

2. A list box is a data entry area while a combo box can be used only for control

purposes.

3. In a combo box, the user is restricted to selecting a value from a list but in a list

box the user can type in a value which is not in the list.

4. control box is data entry area and list box can be used only for control

purposes.

71. Why is it better to use an INTEGRITY CONSTRAINT to validate data in a table than

to use a STORED PROCEDURE ?

1. Because an integrity constraint is automatically checked while data is inserted

into or updated in a table while a stored procedure has to be specifically invoked.

2. Because the stored procedure occupies more space in the database than a

integrity constraint definition.

3. Because a stored procedure creates more network traffic than a integrity

constraint definition.

4. Because a stored procedure creates more redundancy than a integrity constraint

definition.

72. Which of the following is not an advantage of a client/server model?

1. A client/server model allows centralised control of data and centralised

implementation of business rules.

2. A client/server model increases developer;s productivity.

3. A client/server model is suitable for all applications.

4. A client/server model is suitable only for reference tables.

73. What does DLL stands for ?

1. Dynamic Language Library.

2. Dynamic Link Library.

3. Dynamic Load Library.

4. Dynamic Load Language.

74. POST-BLOCK trigger is a________

1. navigational trigger.

2. key trigger.

3. transactional trigger.

4. statement level triggers.

75. The system variable that records the select statement that SQL * FORMS most

recently used to populate a block is_________________

1. SYSTEM.LAST_RECORD.

2. SYSTEM.CURSOR_RECORD.

3. SYSTEM.CURSOR_FIELD.

4. SYSTEM.LAST_QUERY.

76. What is the maximum size of the page ?

1. Characters wide & 1265 characters length.



4. Characters wide & 40 charecters length.

77. A FORM is madeup of which of the following objects?

1. block, fields only.

2. blocks, fields, pages only.

3. blocks, fields, pages, triggers and form level procedures.

4. Only blocks.

78. The packaged procedure that makes data in form permanent in the Database

is_______

1. post.

2. post form.

3. commit form.

4. uncommit form.

79. Which of the following is TRUE for the SYSTEM VARIABLE $$date$$?

1. Can be assigned to a global variable.

2. Can be assigned to any field only during design time.

3. Can be assigned to any variable or field during run time.

4. Can be assigned to a local variable.

80. Which of the following packaged procedure is UNRESTRICTED?

1. CALL_INPUT.

2. CLEAR_BLOCK.

3. EXECUTE_QUERY.

4. USER_EXIT.

81. Identify the RESTRICTED packaged procedure from the following:-

1. USER_EXIT.

2. MESSAGE.

3. BREAK.

4. EXIT_FORM.

82. What is SQL*FORMS?

1. SQL*FORMS is a 4GL tool for developing & executing Oracle based

interactive applications.

2. SQL*FORMS is a 3GL tool for connecting to the Database.

3. SQL*FORMS is a reporting tool.

4. SQL*FORMS is a package.

83. Name the two files that are created when you generate a form using Forms 3.0?

1. FMB & FMX.

2. FMR & FDX.

3. INP & FRM.

4. INP & FMR.

84. Size of Tablespace can be increased by__________

1. increasing the size of one of the Datafiles.

2. adding one or more Datafiles.

3. cannot be increased.

4. cannot add the datafiles.

85. A set of Dictionary tables are created_____________

1. once for the Entire Database.

2. every time a user is created.

3. every time a Tablespace is created.

4. every time a duplicate is created.

86. What is a DATABLOCK?

1. Set of Extents.

2. Set of Segments.

3. Smallest Database storage unit.

4. Set of blocks.

87. A Transaction ends ____________

1. only when it is Committed.

2. only when it is Rolledback.

3. when it is Committed or Rolledback.

4. only when it is initialized.

88. A Database Procedure is stored in the Database__________

1. in compiled form.

2.as source code.

3.piled form and source code.

4.stored.

89. Database trigger does not apply to data loaded before the ___________of the trigger

1. definition

2. declaration

3. transaction

4. process

90. Dedicated server configuration is________________

1. one server process – Many user processes.

2. many server processes – One user process.

3. one server process – One user process.

4. many server processes – Many user processes.

91. Which of the following does not affect the size of the SGA?

1. Database buffer.

2. Redolog buffer.

3. Stored procedure.

4. Shared pool.

92. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL?

1. Bool boolean;

2. NUM1, NUM2 number;

3. Deptname dept.dname%type;

4. date1 date := sysdate

93. Declare

fvar number := null; svar number := 5

Begin

goto <<>>

if fvar is null then

<<>>

svar := svar + 5

end if;

End;

What will be the value of svar after the execution ?

1. Error.

2. 10.

3. 5.

4. 15.

94. Which of the following is not correct about an Exception ?

1. Raised automatically / Explicitly in response to an ORACLE_ERROR.

2. An exception will be raised when an error occurs in that block.

3. Process terminates after completion of error sequence.

4. A Procedure or Sequence of statements may be processed.

95. Which of the following is not correct about User_Defined Exceptions ?

1. Must be declared.

2. Must be raised explicitly.

3. Raised automatically in response to an Oracle error.

4. Must be copied.

96. PL/SQL supports which datatype?

1. Scalar datatype.

2. Composite datatype.

3. Scalar and Composite datatype.

4. Compound datatype.

97. Find the ODD datatype out?

1. VARCHAR2.

2. RECORD.

3. BOOLEAN.

4. RAW.

98. Which of the following is not correct about the “TABLE” datatype ?

1. Can contain any number of columns.

2. Simulates a One-dimensional array of unlimited size.

3. Column datatype of any Scalar type.

4. Composite datatype of any Scalar type.

99. Find the ODD one out of the following?

1. OPEN.

2. CLOSE.

3. INSERT.

4. FETCH.

100. Which of the following is not correct about Cursor ?

1. Cursor is a named Private SQL area.

2. Cursor holds temporary results.

3. Cursor is used for retrieving multiple rows.

4. SQL uses implicit Cursors to retrieve rows.

101. Which of the following is NOT VALID in PL/SQL ?

1. Select … into.

2. Update.

3. Create.

4. Delete.

102. What is the Result of the following ‘VIK’NULL’RAM’ ?

1. Error.

2. VIK RAM.

3. VIKRAM.

4. NULL.

103. Declare

a number := 5; b number := null; c number := 10;

Begin

if a > b AND a <> ( Select count(*) from Emp E2 where E1.SAL > E2.SAL ) will

retrieve

1. 3500,5000,2500.

2. 5000,2850.

3. 2850,5750.

4. 5000,5750.

104. Which of the following is not correct about a View ?

1. To protect some of the columns of a table from other users.

2. Ocuupies data storage space.

3. To hide complexity of a query.

4. To hide complexity of a calculations.

105. Which is not part of the Data Definition Language ?

1. CREATE.

2. ALTER.

3. ALTER SESSION.

4. CREATE SESSION.

106. EMPNO ENAME SAL

A822 RAMASWAMY 3500

A812 NARAYAN 5000

A973 UMESH

A500 BALAJI 5750

Using the above data

Select count(sal) from Emp will retrieve

1. 1.

2. 0.

3. 3.

4. 6.

107. What are the different events in Triggers ?

1. Define, Create.

2. Drop, Comment.

3. Insert, Update, Delete.

4. Select, Commit.

108. What built-in subprogram is used to manipulate images in image items ?

1. Zoom_out.

2. Zoom_in’.

3. Zoom_image.

4. Image_zoom.

109. SHOW_ALERT function returns_____________

1. boolean.

2. number.

3. character.

4. fraction.

110. What SYSTEM VARIABLE is used to refer DATABASE TIME ?

1. $$dbtime$$.

2. $$time$$.

3. $$datetime$$.

4. $$datatime$$.

111. SYSTEM.EFFECTIVE.DATE varaible is__________

1. read only.

2. read & write.

3. write only.

4. repeat only.

112. How can you CALL Reports from Forms4.0 ?

1. Run_Report built_in.

2. Call_Report built_in.

3. Run_Product built_in.

4. Call_Product built_in.

113. When do you get a .PLL extension ?

1. Save Library file..

2. Generate Library file.

3. Run Library file.

4. Delete Library file.

114. What do you mean by CHECK BOX ?

1. Two state control.

2. One state control.

3. Three state control.

4. Four state control.

115. List of Values (LOV) supports____________

1. single column.

2. multi column.

3. single or Multi column.

4. alternate column.

116. What is Library in Forms 4.0 ?

1. Collection of External field.

2. Collection of built_in packages.

3. Collection of PL/SQl functions, procedures and packages.

4. Collection of PL/SQL procedures & triggers.

117. What type of file is used for porting Forms 4.5 applications to various platforms ?

1. FMB file.

2. FMX file.

3. EXE file.

4. FMT file.

118. What built_in procedure is used to get IMAGES in Forms 4.5 ?

1. READ_IMAGE_FILE.

2. GET_IMAGE_FILE.

3. READ_FILE.

4. GET_FILE.

119. How do you pass values from one form to another form ?

1. LOV.

2. Parameters.

3. Local variables.

4. Values.

120. When is a .FMB file extension is created in Forms 4.5 ?

1. Generating form.

2. Executing form.

3. Save form.

4. Run form.

121. Identify the Odd one of the following statements?

1. Poplist.

2. Tlist.

3. List of values.

4. Combo box.

122. What is an ALERT ?

1. Modeless window.

2. Modal window.

3. Common window.

4. Command window.

123. What is TERM ?

1. TERM is the terminal definition file that describes the terminal from which you

are using R20RUN ( Reports run time ).

2. TERM is the terminal definition file that describes the terminal from which you

are using R20DES ( Reports designer ).

3. There is no Parameter called TERM in Reports 2.0.

4. There is no Methods called TERM in Reports 2.0.

124. If the maximum records retrieved property of a query is set to 10, then a summary

value will be calculated___________

1. only for 20 records.

2. for all the records retrieved.

3. for all therecords in the referenced table.

4. only for 10 records.

125. With which function of a summary item in the COMPUTE AT optio required ?

1. Sum.

2. Standard deviation.

3. Variance.

4. % of Total function.

126. What are the different file extensions that are created by Oracle Reports ?

1. RDF file & .RPX file.

2. RDX file & .RDF file.

3. REP file & .RDF file.

4. RDX file & .REP file.

127.What are the SQL clauses supported in the link property sheet ?

1. WHERE & START WITH.

2. WHERE & HAVING.

3. START WITH & HAVING.

4. WHERE, START WITH & HAVING.

128. What are the types of Calculated columns available ?

1. Procedure, Formula & Place holder columns.

2. Summary, Formula & Place holder columns.

3. Summary, Place holder & Procedure column.

4. Summary, Procedure & Formula columns.

129. If two groups are not linked in the data model editor, what is the hierarchy between

them?

1. There is no hierarchy between unlinked groups.

2. The group that is right ranks higher than the group that is to the left.

3. The group that is above or leftmost ranks higher than the group that is to right

or below it.

4. The group that is left ranks higher than the group that is to the right.

130. Sequence of events takes place while starting a Database is _______________

1. database opened, File mounted, Instance started.

2. instance started, Database mounted & Database opened.

3. database opened, Instance started & file mounted.

4. files mounted, Instance started & Database opened.

131. ENQUEUE_RESOURCES parameter information is derived from__________

1. PROCESS or DDL_LOCKS & DML_LOCKS.

2. LOG BUFFER.

3. DB_BLOCK_SIZE.

4. DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS.

132. EXP command is used ________________

1. to take Backup of the Oracle Database.

2. to import data from the exported dump file.

3. to create Rollback segments.

4. to create Schedule.

133. The status of the Rollback segment can be viewed through _____________

1. DBA_SEGMENTS.

2. DBA_ROLES.

3. DBA_FREE_SPACES.

4. DBA_ROLLBACK_SEG.

134. What file is read by ODBC to load drivers ?

1. ODBC.INI.

2. ODBC.DLL.

3. ODBCDRV.INI.

4. ODBC.AOD.

135. Tables derived from the ERD____________

1. Are totally unnormalised.

2. Are always in 1NF.

3. Can be further denormalised.

4. May have multi-valued attributes.

136. A B C is a set of attributes. The functional dependency is as follows

AB -> B

AC -> C

C -> B

1. is in 1NF.

2. is in 2NF.

3. is in 3NF.

4. is in BCNF.

137. In mapping of ERD to DFD _________________

1. entities in ERD should correspond to an existing entity/store in DFD.

2. entity in DFD is converted to attributes of an entity in ERD.

3. relations in ERD has 1 to 1 correspondence to processes in DFD.

4. relationships in ERD has 1 to 1 correspondence to flows in DFD.

138. A dominant entity is the entity_______________

1. on the N side in a 1 : N relationship.

2. on the 1 side in a 1 : N relationship.

3. on either side in a 1 : 1 relationship.

4. nothing to do with 1 : 1 or 1 : N relationship.

139. Select ‘NORTH’, CUSTOMER From CUST_DTLS Where REGION = ‘N’ Order

By CUSTOMER Union Select ‘EAST’, CUSTOMER From CUST_DTLS Where

REGION = ‘E’ Order By CUSTOMER

The above is_________________

1. Not an error.

2. Error – the string in single quotes ‘NORTH’ and ‘SOUTH’.

3. Error – the string should be in double quotes.

4. Error – ORDER BY clause.

140. ________________ is a program module that provides the interface between the

low-level data stored in database, application programs and queries submitted to the

system.

1. Storage manager

2. Buffer manager

3. Transaction manager

4. File manager

141. ___________________ is a program module, which is responsible for fetching data

from disk storage into main memory and deciding what data to be cache in memory.

1. Storage manager

2. Buffer manager


4. File manager

142.________________ is a program module, which ensures that database, remains in a

consistent state despite system failures and concurrent transaction execution proceeds

without conflicting.

1. Storage manager

2. Buffer manager


4. File manager

143. _______________ is a program module, which manages the allocation of space on

disk storage and data structure used to represent information stored on a disk.

1. Storage manager

2. Buffer manager


4. File manager

144. Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database

structures, including tables?

1. Data Definition Language.

2. Data Manipulation Language.

3. Data Described Language.

4. Data Retrieval Language.

145. What operator performs pattern matching?

1. IS NULL operator.

2. ASSIGNMENT operator.

3. LIKE operator.

4. NOT operator.

146. What operator tests column for the absence of data?

1. IS NULL operator.

2. ASSIGNMENT operator.

3. LIKE operator.

4. NOT operator.

147. Which command executes the contents of a specified file?

1. &

2. @

3. $

4. %

148. What is the parameter substitution symbol used with INSERT INTO command?

1. &

2. @

3. $

4. %

149. Which command displays the SQL command in the SQL buffer, and then executes

it?

1. CMD.

2. OPEN.

3. EXECUTE.

4. RUN.

150. What command is used to get back the privileges offered by the GRANT command?

1. GRANT.

2. REVOKE.

3. EXECUTE.

4. RUN.

151. Which system table contains information on constraints on all the tables created?

1. USER_CONSTRAINTS.

2. CLIENT_CONSTRAINTS.

3. DOMAIN_CONSTRAINTS.

4. KEY_CONSTRAINTS.

152. Which date function is used to find the difference between two dates?

1. DATES_BETWEEN.

2. WEEKS_BETWEEN.

3. MONTHS_BETWEEN.

4. DAYS_BETWEEN.

153. Which function is used to find the largest integer less than or equal to a specific

value?

1. LARGE.

2. FLOOR.

3. GREAT.

4. DIFFERENCE.

154. Which normal form is considered adequate for relational database design?

1. 2 NF.

2. 3 NF.

3. 4 NF.

4. BCNF.

155. The concept of locking can be used to solve the problem of ___________

1. transaction.

2. uncommitted dependency.

3. sechedule.

4. deadlock.

156. A functional dependency of the form X-> Y is trivial if____________

1. Y X.

2. Y X.

3. X Y.

4. X Y and Y X.

157. If every non_key attribute is functionally dependent on the primary key, then the

relation will be in ____________

1. first normal form.

2. second normal form.

3. third normal form.

4. fourth normal form.

158. The column of a table is referred to as the _____________

1. tuple.

2. attribute.

3. entity.

4. degree.

159. The data flow model of an application mainly shows___________

1. the underlying data and the relationships among them.

2. processing requirements and the flow of data.

3. decision and control information.

4. communication network structure.

160. In airline reservation system the entities are date, flight number, place of departure,

destination, type of plane and seats available. The primary key is____________

1. flight number.

2. flight number + place of departure.

3. flight number + date.

4. flight number + destination.

161. What does the /command do?

1. Does nothing.

2. Prints the character.

3. Re-executes the non SQL *Plus command that was most recently executed.

4. Re-executes the most recently executed command.

162. What command should you try if DBMS_OUTPUT.PUT_LINE is not doing what it

is supposed to do?

1. SET ECHO ON.

2. SET TERMOUT ON.

3. SET DISPLAY ON.

4. SET SERVEROUTPUT ON.

163. To change the format of the date returned by SYSDATE, use the command_______

1. ALTER SESSION RESET DATE.

2. ALTER SESSION CHANGE DATE.

3. ALTER SESSION SET SYSDATE.

4. ALTER SESSION SET NLS_DATE_FORMAT.

164. The DUAL table has_____________

1. one row with many columns.

2. one column with many rows.

3. one row and one column.

4. many rows and many columns.

165. A PL/SQL block can return data to SQL*Plus through______________

1. bind variables.

2. substitution variables.

3. local variables.

4. global variables.

166. Which of the following is not a type of data dictionary view?

1. USER.

2. ALL.

3. DBA.

4. SYS.

167. The owner of the DUAL table is__________

1. SYS.

2. SUPERUSER.

3. SCOTT.

4. MANAGER.

168. Which of the following data dictionary view is used by the DESCRIBE command to

extract information about the columns?

1. ALL_TABLES.

2. ALL_COLUMNS.

3. ALL_COLS.

4. ALL_TAB_COLUMNS.

169. SGA stands for__________________

1. Show Global Area.

2. Start Global Area.

3. System Global Area.

4. Shut Global Area.

170. You are executing a SELECT statement, In the display, each row that is displayed

spans more than a line and you see a line after a set of 5 records. You can fix this

problem by using the___________

1. SET LINESIZE command.

2. SET PAGESIZE command.

3. SET LINESIZE and SET PAGESIZE commands.

4. SET SCREENWIDTH command.

171. Which command is used to get input from the user?

1. GET.

2. ACCEPT.

3. READ.

4. CIN.

172. To interactively assign a value to a variable, precede the variable name with____

1. :

2. –

3. getVal

4. &

173. Which of the following SQL*Plus commands can be used to see compilation errors

in a PL/SQL code?

1. TRACE.

2. SHOW ERRORS.

3. PROFILE.

4. DEBUG.

174. NOT BETWEEN 10 AND 20 __________

1. displays NULL values.

2. does not display NULL values.

3. may display NULL values.

4. display values.

175. The SQL statement

SELECT SUBSTR(‘123456789’, INSTR(‘abcabcabc’,’b’),4) FROM DUAL:

Prints

1. 6789.

2. 2345.

3. 1234.

4. 456789.

176. The SELECT statement

SELECT ‘Hi’ FROM DUAL WHERE 1=NULL;

Outputs

1. Hi.

2. FALSE.

3. TRUE.

4. nothing.

177. Table Employee has 10 records. It has a non-NULL SALARY column which is also

UNIQUE

The SQL statement

SELECT COUNT(*) FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY > ANY (SELECT

SALARY FROM EMPLOYEE);

Prints

1. gh.

2. 23.

3. bc.

4. ab.

178. The SQL statements

SELECT ROUND(45.926, -1) FROM DUAL;

1. is illegal.

2. prints garbage.

3. prints 045.926.

4. prints 50.

179. Which of the following must be enclosed in double quotes?

1. Dates.

2. Column Alias.

3. Strings.

4. Variables.

180. In SQL, 10/NULL will evaluate to___________

1. FALSE.

2. -1.

3. NULL.

4. 10.

181. Almost all the DATE functions return a value of data type DATE, except_________

1. MONTHS_BETWEEN.

2. ROUND.

3. NEXT_DAY.

4. TRUNC.


SELECT TRUNC(45.926, -1) FROM DUAL;

1. is illegal.

2. 5.

3. prints 45.9.

4. prints 40.

183. The SELECT statement

SELECT ‘Hi’ FROM DUAL WHERE NULL = NULL;

Outputs

1. Hi.

2. FALSE.

3. TRUE.

4. nothing.

184. When a SELECT statement displays data_____________

1. dates and strings will be justified to the left by default.

2. numbers will not be justified to the right by default.

3. dates and strings will be justified to the right by default.

4. numbers will be justified to the left by default.

185. Choose the correct statements:-

1. ORDER BY NAME ASC, displays NULLs last.

2. ORDER BY NAME DESC, displays NULLs first.

3. ORDER BY NAME ASC, displays NULLs first.

4. ORDER BY NAME DESC, displays NULLs last.


SELECTLENGTH(‘’) FROM DUAL; --‘’ Iis two single quotes

Prints,

1. 0.

2. a garbage value.

3. NULL.

4. 1.


SELECT INSTR(‘abcdecfg’, ‘c’) FROM DUAL;

Prints,

1. 2.

2. 3.

3. 5.

4. 6.


SELECT LPAD(‘abcd’,10,’*’) FROM DUAL;

Prints,

1. abcd******

2. ******abcd

3. ***abcd***

4. **********


SELECT (NVL(NVL(NULL, 3),4)) FOM DUAL;

1. prints 3.

2. prints 4.

3. PRINTS NULL.

4. is illegal.


SELECT ‘Hi’ FROM DUAL WHERE 1!= NULL;

Outputs

1. Hi.

2. FALSE.

3. TRUE.

4. nothing.

191. Which of the following SQL commands can be used to add data to a database table?

1. ADD.

2. UPDATE.

3. APPEND.

4. INSERT.


SELECT DECODE(2,2, DECODE(3,3,2)) FROM DUAL;

1. is illegal.

2. prints garbage.

3. 3.

4. 2.


SELECT SUBSTR(‘abcdefghij’, INSTR(‘123321234’, ‘2’,3,2),2) FROM DUAL;

Prints

1. gh.

2. 23.

3. bc.

4. ab.


SELECT LPAD(‘abcd’,10,’went’) FROM DUAL;

Prints

1. wertweabed.

2. abcdwertwer.

3. wertwertab.

4. abwertwert.


SELECT ROUND(45.926,-2) FROM DUAL;

1. is illigel.

2. prints garbage.

3. prints 45.92.

4. prints 0.

196. Table Employee has 10 records. It has a non-NULL SALARY column which is also

UNIQUE.

The SQL statement

SELECT COUNT(SALARY) FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY NOT IN

(NULL);

Prints,

1. 10.

2. 9.

3. 5.

4. 0.

197. Which of the following SQL command can be used to modify existing data in a

database table?

1. MODIFY.

2. UPDATE.

3. CHANGE.

4. NEW.


SELECT ‘Hi’ FROM DUAL WHERE NULL IN (NULL);

Outputs,

1. TRUE.

2. FALSE.

3. ‘Hi’.

4. nothing.

199. The design of PL/SQL language has a lot of similarities with the design of

1. COBOL.

2. ORACLE.

3. ADA.

4. LISP.

200. Which of the following can be used to print the description about an error in a

PL/SQL program?

1. SQLERRM.

2. ERR_MESG.

3. CURR_ERROR.

4. DISP_ERR.

201. Which of the following types of triggers can be fired on DDL operations?

1. Instead-Of Trigger.

2. DML Trigger.

3. system Trigger.

4. DDL trigger.

202. To have a variable in global scope, declare it inside a __________

1. function.

2. procedure.

3. package.

4. methods.

203. Which of the following keywords is used in the declaration of a PL/SQL function

but not a procedure?

1. RETURN.

2. BEGIN.

3. END.

4. EXCEPTION.

204. Which of the following list items is a good choice to implement lists that are long?

1. Combo Box.

2. Poplist.

3. Tlist.

4. Llist.

205. A compiled form module has the extension_______

1. fmb.

2. fmx.

3. exe.

4. obj.

206. The attributes of a Form object can be found in the___________

1. layout editor.

2. program editor.

3. property navigator.

4. property palette.

207. A canvas is displayed in ___________

1. an enclosing canvas.

2. a tabbed page.

3. a dialog box.

4. a window.

208. Trigger code is written in_____

1. SQL.

2. PL/SQL.

3. JAVA.

4. Machine language.

209. The items of a data block can be grouped within a___________

1. record group.

2. program unit.

3. frame.

4. data store.

210. A set of properties can be collectively assigned to an object by using_______

1. record group.

2. object group.

3. array.

4. property class.

211. You can not navigate to a data item if it is a ____________

1. button.

2. display item.

3. text item.

4. check box.

212. Which of the following is a collection of Form components?

1. Record Group.

2. Record Set.

3. Data store.

4. Object Group.

213. To debug a PL/SQL code that is within a Form, appropriate messages can be

displayed at different points in the execution flow using the built-in____________

1. print.

2. display.

3. show.

4. message.

214. A _____ is a collection of logical information.

1. record.

2. field.

3. file.

4. Data.

215. Field is otherwise called as __________ of the record.

1. data item.

2. Data type.

3. value.

4. variable.

216. A______________ may contain one or more records.

1. File.

2. Database.

3. Transaction.

4. Fields.

217. ____________ does not change with time.

1. transaction data.

2. computer data.

3. master data.

4. electronic data.

218. A field used to identify a record is called as a ____________.

1. key.

2. column.

3. pointer.

4. index.

219. A field that can identify a record uniquely is called as _________ of the record.

1. foreign key.

2. super key.

3. primary key.

4. candidate key.

220. A file is called as a ______________ when it contains records arranged in sequential

fashion.

1. sequential file.

2. random file.

3. direct file.

4. index file.

221. Difficulty in searching is one of the problem in ____.

1. random file organization.

2. direct file organization.

3. indexed file organization.

4. sequential file organization.

222. A __________ acts as the interface between data stored on the disk and its users.

1. data.

2. database.

3. database management systems.

4. transaction.

223. ______________ means multiple copies of the same data items.

1. data reduction.

2. data integrity.

3. data consistency.

4. data redundancy.

224. Different values for the same data item is referred to as ____________.


2. data inconsistency.

3. data integrity.

4. data duplication.

225. _____________ suffers from the possibility of lack of data consistency.

1. file management system.

2. database management systems.

3. relational database management systems.

4. object oriented relational database management systems.

226. A scheme of grouping set of integrates data files together is called as

_______________.

1. database

2. table.

3. schema.

4. information.

227. _____________ solves the problem of the possibility of lack of data consistency by

using the concept of transaction.

1. FMS.

2. DBMS.

3. EMS.

4. TMS

228. In file based approach, the application programs are ______________ with each

other.

1. tightly coupled.

2. coupled.

3. loosely coupled.

4. not coupled.

229. The most important change brought about by DBMS is that the ___________.

1. programs interact with the data files directly.

2. programs no longer interact with the data files directly.

3. programs interact with the data files indirectly.

4. program interact with the master files.

230. __________ knows the details of the data storage.

1. decision support system analyst.

2. database administrator.

3. database manger.

4. transaction manger.

231. _____________ is the language for working with RDBMS.

1. embedded SQL.

2. dynamic SQL.

3.SQL.

4. static SQL.

232. ___________ is a logical unit of work.

1. query,

2. transaction.

3. database.

4. statement.

233. In _____________, one or more users/programs attempt to access the same data at

the same time.

1. concurrency.

2. transaction control.

3. locking.

4. two phase locking.

234. _______________ employs parent-child relationships as well as child parent

relationships.

1. hierarchical databases.

2. network databases.

3. relation databases.

4. databases.

235. Relational databases relate data items purely based on their _________.

1. key.

2. values.

3. constraints.

4. concurrency.

236. The file in DBMS is called as _________ in RDBMS.

1. console.

2. schema.

3. table.

4. objects.

237. ______________ is used for creating and destroying tables, indexes and other forms

of structures.

1. data manipulation language.

2. data control language.

3. transaction control language.

4. data definition language.

238. _______________ controls the access to various tables, indexes and other structures.

1. data control language.

2. locking.

3. two phase locking.

4. transaction control language.

239. ___________ can be used to retrieve data from multiple tables.

1. embedded SQL.

2. dynamic SQL.

3. joins.

4. views.

240. _____________ programming facilitates the use of SQL with 3GLs such as C and

COBOL.

1. dynamic SQL.

2. joins.

3. embedded SQL.

4. PL/SQL.

241. ___________ provides option for entering SQL queries at execution time, rather

than at the development stage.

1. Pl/SQL

2. SQL * Plus.

3. SQL.

4. dynamic SQL.

242. _____________ of a database presents the view that the end users have.

1. conceptual view.

2. external view.

3. internal view.

4. non conceptual view.

243. Internal view provides information regarding the _______________.

1. database.

2. organization of the database.

3. data without technology.

4. data with integrity.

244. ______________ describes the data without stress on any technology or

programming language.

1. external view.

2. internal view.

3. conceptual view.

4. view.

245. A__________ is a three dimensional view of data.

1. form.

2. database.

3. table.

4. query.

246. A __________ is a set of operations that must be performed completely or not at all.

1. query.

2. command.

3. data sharing.

4. transaction.

247. Commit and rollback are related to ______________.

1. data integrity.


3. data sharing.

4. data security.

248. Data is processed using _____________.

1. data definition language.2. data manipulation language.3. data control language.4. transaction control language.

249. When SQL statements are embedded inside 3GL, we call such a program as

________________.

1. nested query.

2. nested programming.3. distinct query.4. embedded SQL.

250. ___________ translates the SQL statements inside a 3GL programs into appropriate

3GL statements.

1. compiler.2. linker.3. loader.4. pre-compiler.

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163b Advanced Rdbms Qp