13673 CCNA Crash Quiz

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Question 1TCP is able to buffer the stream of data to prevent overloading. Which features enable it to do this?

a. Flow Control

b. Connectionless

c. Battery

d. Hold Control

Answer: AFlow control is a mechanism of TCP that helps provide error free and reliable transport of communications between devices.

Question 2What is the most prominent protocol suite used on the Internet?

a. TCP/IP

b. Netware

c. Linux

d. Windows

Answer: ATCP/IP has become the most popular protocol suite used on the Internet, and is considered the standard for data transmission.

Question 3Which layer of the OSI model provides error free, reliable transport of information?

a. Network Layer Layer 3

b. Application Layer Layer 7

c. Physical Layer Layer 1

d. Transport Layer Layer 4

Answer: DThe transport layer defines two protocols, TCP and UDP. In order to provide error free and reliable delivery of information, TCP is used to ensure data is received, and if not, it will be resent and error checked.


Question 4What layer of the OSI model is responsible for coding and conversion?

a. Presentation

b. Transport

c. Network

d. Data-Link

Answer: AThe presentation layer is responsible for presenting the material in a manner that is able to be viewed by the user up to Layer 7, or preparing it in a manner to be sent down to Layer 5.

Question 5What type of data transmission allows for a single client to send traffic to a specific group of clients?

a. Manycast

b. Unicast

c. Broadcast

d. Multicast

Answer: DMulticast allows for communications between one device to a specific number of recipients, defined by the sender. This allows for more efficient communications, instead of using a broadcast when trying to send to more than one client.

Question 6True or False - Thicknet and Thinnet are two types of specifications for coax cable deployments.

Answer: TrueWhile not as popular for network connectivity in a building to users and such, coax is still used heavily for television and for an ISP to deliver Internet connectivity to a modem in an establishment.


Question 7What is the division in which frames from one networked device could collide with another device?

a. Collision Domain

b. Broadcast Domain

c. Temporary Domain

d. Apple Domain

Answer: AThe collision domain devices all share bandwidth, and any one device could transmit information that could collide with a transmission from another device.

Question 8True or False - A straight-through cable is used for a connection from a host to a switch.

Answer: TrueA straight-through cables pin configuration allows for data to be sent and received properly through communications.

Question 9Where is the physical port to MAC address mappings stored on a router?

a. Physical table

b. Route table

c. PARP table

d. ARP table

Answer: DThe ARP table maintains a mapping of traffic of all MAC address to port locations when it receives traffic in order to efficiently send out traffic out the next time for that particular location.


Question 10Which device has the ability to separate broadcast domains?

a. Bridge

b. Router

c. Switch

d. Hub

Answer: BThe router has the ability to separate the broadcast domain and route traffic between them if necessary.

Question 11What aspect of a spanning-tree is used to optimize access ports to immediately bring them into a forwarding state?

a. Fastport

b. FastP

c. Portfast

d. PortsFaster

Answer: CPortfast enables the port to bypass the listening and learning states of a spanning-tree instance, immediately putting it into a forwarding state. This is only recommended on an access port.

Question 12What is the normal range of VLANs?

a. 1-1000

b. 2-1005

c. 1-1005

d. 1-1006

Answer: CVLANs in the normal range are used in any mode of VTP and kept in the VLAN database. However, extended range VLANs, 1006-4094, are not kept in the VLAN database, and the switch must be in VTP Transparent mode.


Question 13What trunking method is IEEE defined and supports a native VLAN?

a. ISL

b. 802.1q

c. 802.1x

d. 802.3

Answer: B802.1q offers the native VLAN as a VLAN that is not tagged on a trunk end to end.

Question 14If one side of a trunk was configured as switchport mode dynamic auto, what must the other side not be?

a. Switchport dynamic auto

b. Switchport mode dynamic desirable

c. Switchport mode on

d. Switchport mode dynamic auto

Answer: DIn dynamic auto mode, the trunk will do trunking negotiation, but only if it hears someone trying to negotiate. If the other side is set to auto, neither side will initiate the trunk.

Question 15What are the two types of Etherchannel?

a. PAgP

b. PAP

c. CHAP

d. LACP

Answer: A and DPAgP, which is port aggregation control protocol, is a Cisco Etherchannel standard.

LACP, which is link aggregation control protocol, is an Etherchannel standard created by IEEE.


Question 16If one end of a trunked link is configured with switchport nonegotiate command, the other end must be configured as what?

a. Switchport mode trunk

b. Switchport trunk

c. Switchport mode

d. Switchport trunk desirable

Answer: ASince negotiation has been disabled on the trunk link, DTP packets will not be sent. Therefore, switchport mode trunk must be configured to turn on trunking, not needing negotiation.

Question 17What uses MAC address as a reference to decide where to forward traffic when incoming frames reach a device?

a. The Route Table

b. The CAM Table

c. The MAC Table

d. The IP Table

Answer: B and CThe CAM table, also known as the MAC table, holds for a specific period of time a reference as to where MAC addresses are located in order to send traffic more efficiently when it hits the device.

Question 18What is the IEEE standard for Ethernet?

a. 802.11

b. 802.1

c. 802.3

d. 802.2

Answer: CIEEE has defined the Ethernet standard to be 802.3.


Question 19What type of Ethernet is being used when the endpoint must wait for an idle period before transmitting a frame?

a. Full-Duplex

b. Half-Duplex

c. Semi-Duplex

d. Auto-Duplex

Answer: BIn a half-duplex scenario, collisions occur because senders must wait to send data before transmission. Sometimes, two or more senders will be waiting and sending at the same time, which can cause a collision.

Question 20True or False - A broadcast domain is the logical separation of networked devices that can be reached via a unicast or broadcast message on the data link layer.

Answer: TrueThe broadcast domain can be broken up by a router, and network devices can then communicate across broadcast domains via the router routing this traffic.

Question 21What provides a dedicated and continuously open line for transmission, even if communication is not flowing through it?

a. Atom Switching

b. Null Switching

c. Packet Switching

d. Circuit Switching

Answer: DDuring this time, the line will remain open for communications to be made across from end to end, regardless of whether or not it is actively sending.


Question 22True or False The protocol data units at the layer 2 level are called frames.

Answer: TrueThe protocol data units at the layer 2 level are called frames. Packets at layer 3 and layer 4 are called segments.

Question 23What is the appropriate way to properly set a switchport into access mode?

a. Switchport

b. Switchport access mode

c. Switchport mode access

d. Switchport access

Answer: CTo make a switchport a specific access port, and to not negotiate its role, the command switchport mode access is used.

Question 24What does the VLAN Trunking Protocol enable a switch to do?

a. Allow spanning-tree port blocking over trunks.

b. Dynamically learn, distribute or ignore VLAN updates between

switches that are in the same VTP domain.

c. Ignore VLAN updates between devices.

d. Create new instances of OSPF.

Answer: BIn a switch environment, a switch can be configured in one of three modes to either create VLANs, delete VLANs, learn VLANs, or ignore VLAN updates dynamically from a main switch so that all switches would have the proper VLAN information.


Question 25True or False - The three modes of VTP are Server, User, and Transparent.

Answer: FalseThe three modes are VTP Server, which can create, modify and delete VLANs; VTP client, which can only receive VLAN updates from the server; and VTP Transparent which can create, modify and delete VLANs, and ignore updates from the VTP Server.

Question 26True or False - When a switch receives a configuration change from another switch with a lower revision number, it believes that configuration is superior to its own.

Answer: FalseIn this case, the switch would ignore the update because it would not see it as the most recent information. If the configuration revision was higher, it would see the information as up to date.

Question 27To look up the domain name and operating mode of VTP, what show command would be used?

a. Show status VTP

b. Show status

c. Show VTP status

d. Show VTP

Answer: CShow VTP status will give all pertinent information of the VTP setup, including domain name and mode, but not the password.


Question 28What are the three port states in a rapid spanning-tree topology?

a. Discarding

b. Listening

c. Learning

d. Forwarding

Answer: A, C and DDiscarding is where no user data is sent.

Learning is where the port is not forwarding, but is populating the MAC table.

Forwarding is fully operational.

Question 29True or False - The root bridge default bridge ID is 33768.

Answer: FalseThe root bridge default bridge ID for a spanning-tree instance is 32768.

Question 30True or False RSTP is not backward compatible with STP.

Answer: FalseRSTP is backward compatible with STP and will revert to STP if an interface detects STP BPDU. This makes RSTP easier to implement within a network using STP.


Question 31What is the convergence time for an STP instance?

a. 10 seconds

b. 50 minutes

c. 50 seconds

d. 30 seconds

Answer: CTo go from disabled, to listening, to learning and then to the forwarding state takes 50 seconds to converge. RSTP helps streamline this process more by improving convergence time.

Question 32True or False A BPDU is a bridge protocol data unit used in STP.

Answer: TrueBPDUs are used between switches to determine the root bridges in an STP instance. Devices still monitor BPDUs to see if there is a need to go back into a blocking state or to transfer into a listening state for convergence.

Question 33Which side of a serial connection handles clocking signals?

a. DTE

b. DCE

c. DEA

d. DCC

Answer: BThe DCE is in charge of providing clock signals to the other end of the serial connection, the DTE.


Question 34A WAN interconnects one or more of what together?

a. DAN

b. IAN

c. LAN

d. YAN

Answer: CThe WAN interconnects multiple LANs together, in order for these networks to communicate over long distances. This is mostly seen in companies that have offices all over the country, and use a WAN to communicate with each of them.

Question 35What WAN technology uses labels instead of network addresses for communications?

a. VSAT

b. MPLS

c. E1

d. T1

Answer: BMPLS works on both layer 2 and layer 3, and is heavily used across the country to streamline communications for companies. It does so by using labels instead of network addresses in order to make the communications more efficient.

Question 36True or False An E1 is a North American standard that carries a data rate of 1.544 megabits per second.

Answer: FalseAn E1 is the European standard that carries 32 digital channels and has a data rate of 2.048. T1 is the North American standard that carries a data rate of 1.544 megabits per second.


Question 37True or False Cellular 3G and 4G is provided by your cellular carrier that only provides voice communications.

Answer: FalseCellular 3G and 4G are becoming increasingly popular and used by many, not just for voice, but for data as well. Data access on a cell phone is a mainstay now with consumers and 3G and 4G provide a large role in that ability, along with wireless antennae on phones.

Question 38What are the two types of authentication tools available in a serial PPP connection?

a. CHAP

b. PPP

c. PAP

d. CAP

Answer: A and CCHAP, or Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol, is a three-way handshake authentication protocol, in which one side of the CHAP process sends a challenge to the other router.

PAP, or Password Authentication Protocol, is an authentication protocol that is a two way process between the devices. It sends usernames and passwords between the devices to establish a link between the two.


Question 39What authentication protocol uses a handshake, sending a challenge to the other device in order to have the other device send its username and password?

a. PAP

b. PPP

c. CHAP

d. SAP

Answer: CCHAP is a three-way handshake authentication protocol, with one side sending a challenge, the receiver sending a username and password, while the initial router verifies the credentials to allow access.

Question 40True or False The default encapsulation on a serial interface is frame-relay.

Answer: FalseThe correct answer is HDLC. Frame-relay and PPP are two other encapsulation methods available to be configured between serial devices. HDLC is configured by default on the interface.

Question 41What is the amount of bits used for the network and host field respectively for a Class C network?

a. 24-bit network, 24-bit host

b. 24-bit network, 8-bit host

c. 16-bit network, 16-bit host

d. 16-bit network, 8-bit host

Answer: BA class C address uses 24 bits for a network address, giving over 2 million possible network options. The host portion is 8 bits, giving 256 address possibilities for each network.


Question 42What are the Class D networks reserved for?

a. Experimental

b. Broadcast

c. Multicast

d. Unicast

Answer: CMulticast communications use Class D addresses in order to communicate with hosts.

Question 43True or False - The ability to subnet enables a networks address space to be further divided down into a smaller network.

Answer: TrueThe ability to subnet enables to break down a network into further, more efficient uses of networks to fight against waste.

Question 44What is the broadcast address for the following subnet?

172.16.24.0/24

a. 172.16.24.1

b. 172.16.24.255

c. 172.16.25.255

d. 172.16.24.254

Answer: DThe broadcast address is the last possible address in that particular subnet. The last usable address in this case, is 172.16.24.254.


Question 45What is the binary address of the following IP address?

193.168.201.179?

a. 11111000.10101000.11001010.10110011

b. 11000001.10101001.11001001.10110011

c. 11000000.10101001.11001001.10110011

d. 11000001.10101000.11001001.10110011

Answer: DThe other answers do not properly translate binary to decimal form. This is the only answer that properly translates to the IP address.

Question 46What is the length in bits of an IPv6 address?

a. 128 bit

b. 32 bit

c. 64 bit

d. 48 bit

Answer: AAn IPv6 address is a 128-bit address that will help alleviate the address space issue of IPv4, which is a 32-bit address.

Question 47True or False - Any string of two or more consecutive groups of all hex 0s can be replaced with a double colon more than once.

Answer: FalseAs an IPv6 rule, this replacement of 0s can only be done once per IPv6 address.


Question 48What type of address is not registered, therefore not assignable to any company, and can be used by any company privately?

a. Unique local anycast

b. Unique local multicast

c. Unique local broadcast

d. Unique local unicast

Answer: DUnique local unicast addresses act like IPv4 private IP addresses. These can be configured by anyone internally, but not to be used publically over the Internet. They must be translated to a public address.

Question 49Which answer correctly depicts what the first 10 bits of a link-local address can be?

a. FE11::/60

b. AB11::/128

c. FE80::/10

d. BC14::/32

Answer: CThe link-local address of FE80::/10 is defined as the only format to be used for IPv6 addresses that are link-local configured.

Question 50What is the IPv6 multicast address for EIGRPv6?

a. FF02::A

b. FA01::A

c. FF01::A

d. FE02::A

Answer: AEIGRPv6 uses a particular address to communicate via multicast to particular users, with the address of FF02::A.


Question 51What are the two sections of an IPv4 address called?

a. Network

b. Host

c. Enterprise

d. Global

Answer: A and BThe network portion of the address is the first part of the address.

The last part of the address is the host address, which is the specific entitys IP address.

Question 52True or False - An IPv4 address is a 64-bit number.

Answer: FalseAn IPv4 address is a 32-bit address, divided into four octets.

Question 53What is the range of a class B network?

a. 1-127

b. 1-128

c. 128-192

d. 128-191

Answer: DIPv4 addresses are broken up into multiple classes, A through E. Class B is within the address range of 128.0.0.0 through 191.255.255.255.


Question 54What is the practice called when you have multiple subnets, but need to bring them together as one route?

a. Subnetting

b. Link-Local

c. Null

d. Summarization

Answer: DSummarization is sometimes required to summarize a group of smaller IP addresses into one large IP address. This lessens what is currently in the routing table, and provides the router with less to go through when trying to look up a particular route.

Question 55What IPv4 address network is reserved for loopback functions?

a. 224.0.0.1

b. 127.0.0.1

c. 1.1.1.1

d. 192.1.1.1

Answer: B127.0.0.1 is reserved for any loopback functions that would be required to be used, and is therefore not assignable as an address to a particular entity.

Question 56True or False - You cannot subnet a Class A address.

Answer: FalseAny network in any class can be subnetted in order to both adequately and efficiently use address space for a particular entity or group.


Question 57What is the purpose of a link-local address?

a. Used by IPv6 to communicate with other hosts and send

normal traffic data.

b. Used by protocols and routing to transmit information, not

used for normal traffic.

c. Used by IPv4 to talk about protocols between hosts.

d. There is no such thing.

Answer: BLink-local addresses are used between interfaces on devices to deliver pertinent data on protocols and routing, but do not participate in the delivery of normal traffic.

Question 58Which of the following are the two options in an IPv6 address?

a. Global broadcast

b. Unique multicast

c. Global unicast

d. Unique local

Answer: C and DThe Global unicast address is similar to a public IPv4 address and blocks of these addresses are registered to particular entities.

Unique local addresses are private addresses, and are not assignable. Therefore, they can be used by anyone internally.


Question 59What is a reserved block of IPv6 addresses called?

a. Global prefix

b. Global routing prefix

c. Routing prefix

d. IPv6 prefix

Answer: BThe Global routing prefix is the block of addresses reserved for a particular entity to be able to communicate publically.

Question 60True or False - There is no host portion of an IPv6 address.

Answer: FalseJust like an IPv4 address, IPv6 addresses have host portions to be able to identify particular hosts on an IPv6 network.

Question 61What is the process called when a router and switch power on and verifies that all components are properly working?

a. UDP

b. POST

c. TCP

d. RADIUS

Answer: BThe Power On Self Test, or POST, is done when the device first powers on to verify that all parts of the device are working properly.


Question 62How can you view what particular Cisco IOS image is running on your switch or router?

a. Show IOS

b. Show startup-config

c. Show running-config

d. Show version

Answer: DThe show version command will enable the user to view particular attributes about the device, one of them being the hardware components and the IOS image that is currently installed. IOS images require a particular size of RAM and memory to be used, and can be verified before installing.

Question 63What IOS version gives you the full feature set available on Cisco IOS software?

a. Advanced Enterprise Services

b. Advanced IP Services

c. Advanced Base Services

d. IP Base

Answer: AAdvanced Enterprise Services enables all features on the device for the user to configure. This is most advantageous, but requires more hardware ability on the device, and costs more to have this image installed.

Question 64True or False - In newer IOS images, the universal image includes all sets of features for the router and switch, but needs to be unlocked with a software activation in order to use them.

Answer: TrueIn newer devices, the universal image allows for one image to be installed and features to be unlocked via activation with Cisco. This information can be retrieved after it is purchased from the Cisco License Portal.


Question 65What configuration register provides a stable boot using your saved configuration?

a. 0x2142

b. 0x3320

c. 0x2100

d. 0x2102

Answer: CThis config-register provides a normal boot by loading the startup configuration when the device is turned on and booting. The config-register can be changed within the configuration as well to provide an ability to bypass the startup configuration.

Question 66What is the command that can be used to delete the startup-configuration on the command line?

a. Write erase

b. Erase write

c. Erase config

d. Erase start

Answer: AWrite erase gives the ability to erase the configuration that starts up when the device turns on. This can be dangerous and should be used with caution.


Question 67What is needed on a client machine that is attempting to use a console cable to connect to the console port of a router or switch?

a. Serial port

b. Parallel port

c. Ethernet port

d. VGA port

Answer: AThe serial port is needed for a console cable to connect from the device to the users machine. A USB to Serial adapter can also be used instead, because most laptops no longer have serial ports on them.

Question 68What is the main purpose of a Cisco IOS image?

a. It downloads images from Ciscos website.

b. It is the operating system of a Cisco router or switch.

c. It is the image for an iPhone.

d. Talks to Cisco.com about whats installed on the device.

Answer: BThe IOS image is the underlying operating system on a router or switch which provides specific features. It can be upgraded or downgraded based on the users needs for the environment.

Question 69True or False - To upgrade an IOS image, you have to purchase an entirely new device.

Answer: FalseCisco requires you to purchase the capability to install the license on your machine for old IOS images. For new devices, IOS images can be installed with a specific universal image, and they can be activated with specific software keys to unlock features.


Question 70True or False - Entering ROMMON mode assists in the password recovery process.

Answer: TrueBy entering ROMMON mode, the device can be configured to bypass the startup configuration, therefore providing a base configuration when getting to the command line. This enables the user to configure the running configuration with new password information, and save it to the startup-configuration for future use.

Question 71True or False - Enable mode allows a user to view items but not modify them.

Answer: FalseEnable or privileged mode allows a user to modify the configuration, making changes to how devices are run as soon as the commands are entered. User exec mode allows a user to view items but not modify them.

Question 72What is the most secure method of accessing the CLI of a device?

a. Telnet

b. TCP

c. Range

d. SSH

Answer: DSSH is the most secure method because it sends the traffic to and from the device. Telnet sends traffic in clear text and should not be used when a user is trying to connect to a device remotely.


Question 73What connectivity testing tool allows the user to gain an understanding of where on the network communications may be dropping from the source to destination?

a. Ping

b. Route

c. Pingroute

d. Traceroute

Answer: DTraceroute enables the user to see, hop by hop, the path in which a device takes to reach the endpoint, testing connectivity as well.

Question 74True or False - Once you type a command in the command line and hit enter, the command is immediately being used in the running configuration and saved in the startup configuration.

Answer: FalseThe configuration is immediately sent into the running-configuration, however, you must save your configuration or a reload will remove the changes made since the last saved configuration.

Question 75When typing commands in the command line, what key can be pressed to autocomplete the command?

a. Tab

b. Question Mark

c. Exclamation Point

d. Comma

Answer: ATab can be used to autocomplete a command once entered in order to save typing time. But, this only works if the command can be finished and there are no alternatives to the beginning characters entered.


Question 76What is the purpose of using a question mark when typing a command?

a. It lists all of the current commands available within the mode

and configuration you are in.

b. It finishes the command that is currently entered.

c. It enables the command.

d. It reloads the device.

Answer: AThe question mark is a useful tool to help the administrator reveal what configuration options are available with some of the configuration already entered. If there are no commands available, they will not be listed.

Question 77True or False - Ping is a TCP protocol that uses TCP messages for requests and replies.

Answer: FalseICMP is the protocol used by ping. ICMP messages are sent for requests and replies.

Question 78What is the level and name of the highest security level of a syslog message?

a. 0

b. 7

c. 1

d. 10

Answer: ALevel 0 is the Emergency level. It provides syslog information that is extremely important.


Question 79What is the main difference between SNMPv2 and SNMPv3?

a. V2 sends messages in clear text.

b. V2 does not send messages.

c. V3 sends messages in clear text.

d. V2 does not use communities.

Answer: ASNMPv2 sends syslog information in clear text, which can be a security breach waiting to happen. SNMPv3 encrypts this traffic to and from the device.

Question 80Which of the following are the two elements to the SNMP communications?

a. Manager

b. Administrator

c. Agent

d. Member

Answer: A and CThe manager is a network management tool that monitors and manages groups of hosts and devices. The agent reports information back to the manager with different variables.

Question 81True or False - Syslog messages can be viewed in real-time on the console line.

Answer: TrueWhen the logging console is configured, you can view messages on the command line via the console and see the output as things happen. This can be very useful when trying to troubleshoot or configure the device.


Question 82What command enables you to see messages saved to the logging buffer?

a. Show buffer

b. Show log

c. Show buffer log

d. Show log buffer

Answer: BShow log, in enabled mode, provides the user with all syslog messages sent to the buffer.

Question 83True or False - The purpose of NetFlow is to track data flows that would help reduce bottlenecks from occurring.

Answer: TrueNetFlow enables engineers to have a better grasp of what is traveling through interfaces on the network. By sending this information back to software, engineers can view possible causes of bottlenecks and slowness in network traffic.

Question 84True or False - The interface in which the user wants to analyze traffic for NetFlow must be configured.

Answer: TrueWhen configuring NetFlow, the user must go into interface configuration mode to configure ingress, egress, or both traffic flows in order to gain knowledge of whether or not information is going through the interface.


Question 85What is the default port to send traffic to on NetFlow?

a. 9999

b. 996

c. 9996

d. 96

Answer: CThe default port sending traffic to for NetFlow is 9996, however, this port can be changed from the default.

Question 86A routing protocol can learn routes from another routing protocol, to do this, what must occur between the two routing protocols?

a. Routing

b. Administrative Distance

c. Redistribution

d. RADIUS

Answer: CRedistribution enables one routing protocol to learn about other routing protocols routes. This helps connect two or more different networks together to allow for communications to occur.


Question 87What is the routing loop mechanism that prevents a route from being advertised back out on the same interface it was received?

a. Split Horizon

b. Redistribution Horizon

c. Split Redistribution

d. Split Routing

Answer: ASplit Horizon prevents the routing protocol from sending an update about the route through the interface in which it was learned. Doing so could cause a loop in routing, which could result in network outages.

Question 88True or False - EIGRP chooses a Designated Router (DR) and Backup Designated Router (BDR).

Answer: FalseOSPF chooses a DR and BDR in order to communicate with all other devices in its area. Therefore, it is imperative that one exists as the devices receive the information through the DR.

Question 89True or False - In all OSPF instances, areas other than area 0 must touch area 0.

Answer: TrueAll areas must go through the backbone, which is area 0. In some cases, a virtual link may be needed in order to reach area 0.


Question 90Which of the following was developed by Cisco in order to optimize the way the internal processes of a router determine how to forward packets?

a. CEF

b. STP

c. RAM

d. BAM

Answer: ACEF optimizes the internal processes of how a router forwards data. The information is organized in the routing table and searched through using advanced algorithms. It is turned on by default on newer devices.

Question 91True or False - When a packet is received by a router, it will compare the source IP address to the routing table in order to find a match to send traffic to.

Answer: FalseWhen a packet is received, it uses the destination IP in order to determine where to send the traffic based upon the match in the routing table.

Question 92True or False - The larger the routing table, the more CPU processing it requires to look up routes.

Answer: TrueWhere there is a larger routing table, routing look ups take a great amount of time, and increase the load on the router. Summarization is one of the tools used to decrease this load.


Question 93Which of the following are two ways in which a router makes a decision to route a packet?

a. Static route

b. Dynamic route

c. Manual route

d. Dependent route

Answer: A and BStatic and dynamic routes are both used when determining a routing decision. However, a static route has a better administrative distance, and therefore is believed more.

Question 94True or False - A default route can be created that matches all traffic, and will be used if there are no other routes in the routing table that match the traffic currently being sent.

Answer: TrueThis situation is used a great deal in dealing how to route Internet traffic out of a companys network. If traffic does not match a destination internally, then send all traffic out to the external network. The default can be used to do this, defaulting all traffic to this route if there is no match.

Question 95Which of the following two devices are needed in order to route packets between VLANs?

a. Router

b. Layer 3 switch

c. Layer 2 switch

d. Hub

Answer: A and BA router and a layer 3 switch offer layer 3 services that will route packets between broadcast domains that were segmented by installing VLANs.


Question 96True or False - Routing metrics can be manipulated manually by an administrator on a router.

Answer: TrueThe ability to manipulate the routing protocols decision on which route to take to a distant network is advantageous for many engineers. This can be done for many different protocols.

Question 97What command provides the user with the configuration currently being used by the device?

a. Startup-config

b. Running-config

c. Device-config

d. Console-config

Answer: BThe configuration currently being used by a device is the running-config. The configuration that is loaded when the device is turned on is the startup-config.

Question 98What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

a. To statically choose the best route for traffic.

b. To dynamically choose the best route for traffic to get to a

remote network.

c. To choose the backup method of how to get to a route.

d. Routing protocols should not be used as they are unreliable.

Answer: BRouting protocols provide the best routes to destinations by dynamically learning and updating routes based on conditions in a network environment.


Question 99True or False - When a route fails, a routing protocol will need to be manually configured to choose the next available route by an administrator.

Answer: FalseThe purpose of the routing protocol is to dynamically update if a route updates, to find the best next route to a particular network. No manual configuration is needed unless static routes are used.

Question 100True or False - An exterior gateway protocol is a routing protocol used internally within one autonomous system.

Answer: FalseExterior gateway protocols, like BGP, connect one autonomous system to other autonomous systems. Interior gateway protocols are used to route within an autonomous system itself.

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13673 CCNA Crash Quiz