1. Which frame of reference views the natural state of organizations as one of harmony and co-

operation?

a. Unitarism.

b. Pluralism.

c. Radical.

d. None

2. In explaining why employees join unions, what term is used to describe employee

dissatisfaction with their work situation?

a. Interactionist explanation.

b. The rational choice explanation.

c. The frustration-aggression thesis.

d. None

3. What is the main reason UK employees give for joining unions?

a. Most people at work are members.

b. Because I believe in trade unions.

c. Support if I had a problem at work.

d. Free legal advice.

4. What percentage of UK workplaces are effectively union free?

a. Around two thirds.

b. Around one third.

c. Around three quarters.

d. Around one half.

5. Which parties are generally considered to be the main actors in the employment relationship?

Select all that apply.

a. Unions.

b. Managers.

c. Employees.

d. All of the above

6. Unionised workers have traditionally received higher wages than their non-unionised

counterparts. What phrase is normally used to describe this phenomenon?

a. The representation gap.

b. The shock effect.

c. Union wage premium.

d. Sword of justice effect.

7. In 2005, how high was the union wage effect in UK workplaces?

a. 10% of gross hourly earnings.

b. 2% of gross hourly earnings.

c. 15% of gross hourly earnings.

d. 5% of gross hourly earnings.

8. Employees in the workplace often talk of 'us' and 'them'. Which frame of reference does this

reflect?

a. Pluralism.

b. Radical.

c. Unitarism.

d. None

9. In terms of collective bargaining, which of the following would be considered to be

'substantive' issues? Select all that apply.

a. Working hours.

b. Holidays.

c. Hours.

d. All of the above

Answer of Mcq

1-a 2-c 3-c 4-d 5-d 6-c 7-a 8-a 9-d

1 Which Act of Parliament defines a `trade union’ and governs much of the law on industrial

relations?

a The Trade Union and Labor Relations (Consolidation) Act 1992.

b The Trade Union Act 1955.

c The Trade Union and Labor Relations (Consolidation) Act 1991.

d The Trade Union and Labor Relations Act 2005.

2 Under which of the following situations may a union refuse to admit a person or expel a

member?

a Because of their financial means.

b Because they do not feel that they are a suitable member.

c Because of their current state of health.

d Because of misconduct.

3 Who is responsible for the maintenance of the `lists’ of independent trade unions?

a The Health and Safety Executive.

b The Certification Officer.

c The Central Arbitration Committee.

d Acas.

4 Which of the following best explains the term `union ballots’?

a A ballot is the system by which union members put forward information for `listing’.

b A ballot is the system by which union members vote for, e.g. industrial action.

c A ballot is the method by which a union recruits new members.

d A ballot is the method by which a union expels members.

5 What is the role of the `independent scrutineer’?

a To oversee union recruitment and selection.

b To oversee the operation of union sickness and absence schemes.

c To oversee the discipline of union members who have committed gross misconduct

offences.

d To oversee the operation of any ballot (unless the ballot is on industrial action and the

number of members entitled to vote does not exceed 50.)

6 What is meant by the term `collective bargaining’?

a A process by which a union negotiates with suppliers for the provision of e.g. office

furniture.

b A process by which a union recruits new members.

c A process by which a union meets with another union to discuss recruitment.

d A process by which a union negotiates with an employer on behalf of its members on

matters concerning the terms and conditions of employment.

7 Which of the following is not an `industrial tort’?

a Gross misconduct.

b Intimidation.

c Inducement.

d Conspiracy.

8 Which of the following can a union do once it is `recognised’?

a Engage in collective bargaining with an employer.

b Apply to engage in the `closed shop’.

c Apply for union status.

d Apply to be referred to as a `workplace union’.

9 Can the members of a union who feel that they have been unjustifiably disciplined complain to

the Employment Tribunal?

a No, because the union is not listed.

b Yes, but only if they pay the union £500.

c No, because a union can make its own decisions re: disciplinary action.

d Yes

10 When will the actions of a union attract statutory immunity?

a When they are discussed with the Certification Officer.

b When the government allows this to be the case.

c When they are in contemplation or furtherance of a trade dispute.

d When they are in contemplation of mass union recruitment.

Answer of Mcq

1-a 2-d 3-b 4-b 5-d 6-d 7-a 8-a 9-d 10-c

1 Which of the following statements is not true about an industrial dispute?

a The dispute may relate to employment.

b The dispute may relate to non-employment.

c The dispute may be between worker and worker.

d The dispute may be between employer and government.

2 Which of the following is not a cause of industrial dispute?

a demand for pay and benefits hike

b demand for hygienic and safer working conditions

c demand for better labour welfare

d None of the above

3 When employees resort to unauthorized strike in violation of the labour contract or agreements,

it is called

a pen-down

b tools-down

c sit-in strike

d wild-cat strike

4 Which of the following is a specific form of protest organized with the intention to prevent or

dissuade the non-striking employees from attending to their work during the strike period?

a hunger strike

b work-to-rule strike

c picketing

d sick-out strike

5 The strike organized to express solidarity with the striking employees in the same organization,

industry or region is called

a hunger strike

b sympathy strike

c tool-down strike

d None of the above

6 Which of the following dispute settlers cannot make a binding decision?

a arbitrator

b adjudicator

c conciliator

d industrial tribunal member

7 “One party gains at the expense of another” normally refers to which type of collective

bargaining?

a distributive bargaining

b integrative bargaining

c centralized bargaining

d None of the above

Answer of Mcq

1-d 2-d 3-d 4-c 5-b 6-c 7-a

1. Which of the following has the responsibility of implementing and administering the laws,

programs, and policies decided upon by elected officials?

a The legislative body

b The bureaucracy

c The state governor

d None of the following.

2 Bureaucracies have all of the following characteristics except:

a Hierarchy of authority

b System of Rules

c Job specialization

d All of the above.

3 __________________ refers to the full range of activities involved in securing and utilizing

employees, including hiring, promoting, training, compensating, disciplining, and retiring

workers.

a Civil Service

b Bureaucracy

c Personnel Management

d New Public Management

4 Which Act passed by Congress began to move the federal government from the spoils system

to the merit system?

a The Pendle Civil Service Reform Act

b The Pendleton Civil Service Reform Act

c The Penle Merit System Reform Act

d The Pendleton Merit System Reform Act

5 Sexual harassment is illegal under which Act of Congress?

a The Civil Rights Act of 1965

b The Affirmative Action Right of 1964

c The Affirmative Action Act of 1965

d The Civil Rights Act of 1964

6 All of the following are characteristics of a civil service or merit system except:

a Establishment of a bipartisan, independent commission to act as a watchdog ensuring the

avoidance of patronage

b Use of open, competitive examinations to rank qualified applicants for a job

c Arguments for the use of political party identity as a criterion for appointment to or

retention in a government job

d All of the above are characteristics of a civil service or merit system.

7 ________________ is defined as a system in which selection and promotion depend on

demonstrated performance.

Merit System

Administrative System

Bureaucratic System

Patronage System

8 ______________ is defined as performing functions and producing desired results at the least

possible cost to taxpayers.

a Effectiveness

b Equity

c Efficiency

d Productivity

9 ____________ is defined as a system in which employment is awarded for partisan loyalty and

active political support in campaigns and elections.

a Administrative System

b Merit System

c Bureaucratic System

d Patronage System

10 Only about ______% of the private sector workforce is unionized.

a 8

b 19

c 10

d 49

Answer of Mcq

1-b 2-d 3-c 4-b 5-a 6-c 7-a 8-d 9-d 10-c

1 _______________ is defined as government selling off many of its enterprises to private

individuals or firms who would operate them more efficiently and effectively.

a Capture Theory

b Load Shedding

c Privatization

d None of the above.

2 ___________________ is a theory that over time regulatory agencies come under the influence

of the industries they are supposed to regulate.

a Capture Theory

b Principle Agent Problem

c Incrementalism

d None of the above.

3 ________________ are state laws on the same subject are valid as long as they do not conflict

with federal law on that subject.

a Partial Pre-emption

b Principle Agent

c Budget Maximization

d None of the above.

4 Total Quality Management contains all of the following elements except:

a Seeks continual improvement in the quality of services as the agency's customers

evaluate that quality

b Borrowed from the private sector

c Focuses on the public as customer

d All of the following are elements of Total Quality Management.

5 In contrast to ___________ employees, _________________ employees are generally

prohibited by law from striking.

a Public; private

b Private; public

c All employees, regardless of whether or not they are public or private, are able to strike.

d All employees, regardless of whether or not they are public or private, are generally

prohibited by law from striking.

6 _________________ is defined as the development by executive bureaucracies of procedures

and activities to carry out policies enacted by the legislature

a Regulation

b Implementation

c Discretion.

d Adjudication

7 ______________ is defined as the decision making by bureaucracies as to whether or not an

individual or organization has complied with or violated government laws and or regulations.

a Implementation

b Discretion

c Regulation

d Adjudication

8 _______________ is the determination of wages, benefits, and working conditions through

bargaining with unions that represent public employees.

a Arbitration

b Collective Bargaining

c Affirmative Action

d Representativeness

9 ________________ is defined as disputes between parties submitted and decided by a neutral

third party.

a Arbitration

b Affirmative Action

c Representativeness

d Collective Bargaining

10 The vast majority of public service employees trust ____________ more than ____________

to provide goods and benefits.

a Public employees; labor unions

b Labor unions; public employees

c Labor Unions; government

d Government; labor unions.

Answer of Mcq

1-b 2-a 3-a 4-d 5-b 6-b 7-d 8-b 9-a 10-c

1 What is meant by the 'scope' of a participation scheme?

a The topics on which employees can contribute.

b The amount of influence it has over decision making.

c Whether the scheme operates at a work-group, department, or corporate level.

d Whether the schemes are direct or indirect.

2 Which of the following is not a direct form of employee participation?

a Works Council.

b Memo from management.

c Face-to-face meeting between manager and employee.

d Email.

3 Why is it difficult to measure the impact of participation techniques on organisational

performance? Select all that apply.

a Because it is usually managers who decide on which participation schemes to implement.

b Difficult to identify cause and effect.

c Difficult to identify on whose terms the judgment should be made.

d Difficult to make 'before' and 'after' comparisons.

4 How many employees must there be in an undertaking for the Information and Consultation of

Employees (ICE) Regulations to apply?

a 250.

b 10.

c 150.

d 50.

5 Which of the following may be problems with communications as a form of participation?

Select all that apply.

a Managers may lack communication skills.

b Communications may be slow and untimely.

c Lack of objectivity.

d Because of the increased use of electronic media, e.g. intranet and email.

6 Which of the following is not a form of representative participation?

a Works council.

b Trade union representation.

c Regular newsletters.

d Collective bargaining.

7 In which countries is there generally less emphasis on statutory provisions for employee

involvement? Select all that apply.

a Sweden.

b Germany.

c Australia.

d USA.

8 What does ICE regulation stand for?

a Information and Communication of Employees.

b Information and Consultation of Employment.

c Information and Consultation of Employees.

d Information and Consultation of Employers.

9 What term best describes the climate of the 1970s in the UK?

a A search for job enrichment and enhanced worker motivation.

b A period of management led employee involvement.

c A neo-liberal climate.

d A period of industrial democracy.

10 Which terms best describes the climate of the 1980s in the UK? Select all that apply.

a A search for job enrichment and enhanced worker motivation.

b A period of management led employee involvement.

c A period of industrial democracy.

d A neo-liberal climate.

11 term best describes the climate of the 1960s in the UK?

a A search for job enrichment and enhanced worker motivation.

b A period of management led employee involvement.

c A neo-liberal climate.

d A period of industrial democracy.

12 Which of the following terms best describe the climate of the new millennium in the UK?

Select all that apply.

a Increasing state regulation.

b Emergent collective regulations.

c Less individual employment rights.

d A continued interest in managerial led employee involvement.

13 What is WERS?

a Worker Employer Relations Survey.

b Work Employment Regulation Survey.

c Workplace Employment Relations Survey.

d Work Employment Regular Statistics.

14 What is the meaning of the acronym CAC?

a Common Advisory Committee.

b Common Arbitration Committee.

c Central Advisory Committee.

d Central Arbitration Committee.

15 What is an EAT?

a Employment Agreement Tribunal.

b Employment Appeal Treaty.

c Employment Appeal Tribunal.

d Employment Appeal Trial.

Answer of Mcq

1-a 2-a 3-c 4-d 5-a 6-c 7-d 8-c 9-d 10-b 11-a 12-b 13-c

14-b 15-c

1 Many factors are driving change, but none is more important than the rise of:

A) Internet technologies.

B) women in the workforce.

C) human resource professionals.

D) cultural diversity.

2 The challenge, opportunity, and also the frustration of creating and managing organizations

frequently stem from the _____ problems that arise within them.

A) people-related

B) union

C) legal

D) upper management

3 Which of the following is a retention responsibility of the line management?

A) Compensation and benefits

B) Performance feedback to subordinates

C) Management and organizational development

D) Face-to-face resolution of conflict

4 There is a substantial and growing body of research evidence showing a strong connection

between how firms _____ and the economic results they achieve.

A) select board members

B) educate their management staff

C) manage their people

D) diversify their product line

5 According to the text, quality of work life is defined in terms of:

A) employee perceptions of their well-being at work.

B) the level of productivity achieved by employees.

C) objective indices of employee well-being at work.

D) the degree to which an organization adopts Japanese managerial principles.

6 The feeling workers have when they are not able to control the work environment is:

A) Meaninglessness

B) Normlessness

C) Mindlessness

D) Powerlessness

7 Variance control, boundary location, work group organization, management support, design

process, and quality of work life are components:

A) Social pathological theory

B) Sociotechnical system theory

C) Polarization of work theory

D) Quality of work theory

8 Which condition is most associated with robots in the workplace?

A) Neck fatigue

B) Eye strain

C) Work envelope injuries

D) Work stress

9 Broad-based efforts at automating mechanical processes and systems began in the:

A) 1950s

B) 1960s

C) 1970s

D) 1980s

Answer of Mcq

1-a 2-a 3-d 4-c 5-a 6-d 7-b 8-c 9-b

1 The presence of grievances among employees may cause

A) indiscipline among them

B) strain on the labour–management relations

C) a decline in the employees’ performance and productivity

D) all of the above

2 Which of the following techniques permits the grievant (complainant) to remain anonymous?

A) The exit interview

B) The gripe-box system

C) The opinion survey

D) None of the above

3 The management should redress only those grievances that are

A) real

B) imaginary

C) real or imaginary

D) none of the above

4 In which of the following methods are grievances ascertained at the time of employees quitting

the organization?

A) The exit interview method

B) The gripe-box system

C) The open-door policy

D) Opinion surveys

5 Which of the following acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices?

A) The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946

B) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

C) The Factories Act, 1948

D) All of the above

Answer of Mcq

1-d 2-b 3-c 4-a 5-d