0305-Paper

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(ACADEMIC SESSION 2011-2012)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

1.

2.

3.

4.

A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she

occupies the correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student,

both the students shall be removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty

imposed uponthem.

Student can notuse log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the

centre incharge.

Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is

missing.

izR;sd fo|kFkhZ dk jftLVªs 'ku ua- ds vuqlkj LFkku fu;r gS rFkk os vius fu;r LFkku ij gh cS BsaA ;fn dks bZ fo|kFkhZ fdlh

nwljs fo|kFkhZ ds LFkku ij cS Bk ik;k x;k rks nksuksa fo|kfFkZ;ksa dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj dj fn;k tk,xk vkS j nks uksa dks dksbZ vU

tqekZuk Hkh Lohdk;Z gksxkA

fo|kFkhZ ijh{kk d{k esa yks x Vs cy] dsYdwysVj ;k fdlh vU; lkexzh dk mi;ksx ugha dj ldrk gSA

ijh{kk ds le; fo|kFkhZ dks ijhoh{kd }kjk fn;s x;s funsZ'kks a dh ikyuk djuk vko';d gSA

iz 'u i= gydjus ls igys fo|kFkhZ vk'oLr gks tk, fd blesalHkh ist la yXu gS a vFkok ughaA

iz R;s d lghmÙkj ds vad gS a tcfd ,dfrgkbZ vad] xyr mÙkj dkml fo"k; ds dqy vadks a es a ls de dj fy;k tk;sxkA

5. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of

individual subject for each incorrect answer.

MAJOR TEST

DATE : 03 – 05 – 2012 ALLEN AIIMS # 02

TA R G E T : P R E - M E D I C A L 2 0 1 2

LEADER, ACHIEVER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE

Corporate Office

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE“SANKALP”, CP-6, INDRA VIHAR, KOTA-324005

PHONE : +91 - 744 - 2436001, Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

Do not open this Test Bookl et until you are asked to do so /

(Full Syllabus)

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E / H 1/30

03–05–2012

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2012

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER, ACHIEVER & ENTHUSIAST COURSE

1. Aniline when diazotized in cold and then

treated with dimethyl aniline gives a colouredproduct. Its structure would be :-

(1) (CH ) N3 2 N=N NH2

(2) (CH ) N3 2 N=N

(3) (CH ) N3 2 NH

(4) CH NH3 N=N NHCH

3

2. Consider the following anions :-

CF –S–O3

—

||

||O

O(I)

C H –S–O6 5

— CH –C–O3

—

||

|| ||O O

O(II) (III) (IV)

O —

When attached to sp3-hybridized carbon, their

leaving group ability in nucleophilic

substitution reaction decreases in the order :-

(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III

(3) IV > I > II > III (4) IV > III > II > I

3. How many moles of sucrose will contain 0.1

mol of oxygent atoms ?

(1)1

10(2)

1

110(3)

1

11(4)

10

114. The magnetic moment of KO

2 at room

temperature is :-

(1) 1.43 BM (2) 2.64 BM

(3) 2.41 BM (4) 1.73 BM

5. Which of the following biomolecules is

insoluble in water :-

(1)a

-Keratin (2) Haemoglobin(3) Ribonuclease (4) Adenine

6. Which of the following is best hydride donor

in Cannizaro's reaction :-

(1)

CHO

OMe

(2)

CHO

NO2

(3)

CHO

CH3

(4)

CHO

Cl7. The correct statement regarding B(OH)

3 is :-

(1) It is a base

(2) n factor for B(OH)3 is one(3) It is protionic acid

(4) It is tribasic acid

1. tc fuyhu dk BaMs esa Mkb,s tksVhdj.k fd;k tkrk gS vkS j

fQj Mkbes fFky fuyhu ds lkFk mipkfjr fd;k tkrk gS rks ,d jaxhu mRikn izkIr gksrk gSA bldh lajpuk gks xh :-

(1) (CH ) N3 2 N=N NH2

(2) (CH ) N3 2 N=N

(3) (CH ) N3 2 NH

(4) CH NH3 N=N NHCH

3

2. fuEufyf[kr vk;uks a ds fy

CF –S–O3

—

||

||O

O(I)

C H –S–O6 5

— CH –C–O3

—

||

|| ||O O

O(II) (III) (IV)

O —

tc sp3 dkcZu ls tqMs gksrs gS rks ukfHkdLus gh iz frLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k es a ckgj fudyus (leaving group) dh i zo`fÙk dk kVrk gqvk Øe gS(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I > II > IV > III

(3) IV > I > II > III (4) IV > III > II > I

3. 0.1 eks y ijek.kq vkWDlhtu fdrus eksy lqØks t es a mifLFkr gks xk ?

(1)1

10(2)

1

110(3)

1

11(4)

10

114. dejs ds rki ij KO

2 dk pqEcdh vk?kw.kZ gS

(1) 1.43 BM (2) 2.64 BM

(3) 2.41 BM (4) 1.73 BM

5. fuEufyf[kr tS o kS fxdks a es a ls dkS u lk ty es a vfoys

gS :-

(1)a

- fdjsfVu (2) gheksXyksfcu (3) jkbcks U;wfDy,l (4) ,fMuhu 6. dsfutkjks a vfHkfØ;k es a dkS u lokZf/kd mi;qDr gkbMªkbM nkrk

gS

(1)

CHO

OMe

(2)

CHO

NO2

(3)

CHO

CH3

(4)

CHO

Cl7. B(OH)

3 ds lEcU/k es a dkS u lk dFku lgh gS :-

(1) ;s d kkj gS

(2) B(OH)3 dk n- xq.kd d gks rk gS(3) ;s izks Vk;fud vEy gS(4) ;g f kkjd vEy gS

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE Þ 100% SUCCESS

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03–05–2012

2/30 E / H Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2012

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2012

8. The correct order of increasing bond angles in

the following triatomic species is :-

(1) NO2

+ < NO2 < NO

2–

(2) NO2

+ < NO2

– < NO2

(3) NO2

–

< NO2

+

< NO2

(4) NO2

– < NO2 < NO

2+

9. Which of the following is not correctly matched

(1) Isoprene —CH –C=CH–CH — 2 2 ]n[|

CH3

(2) Styrene —CH –CH— 2 ]n[|

C H6 5

(3) Orlon —CH –C=CH–CH — 2 2 ]n[|

Cl

(4) Nylon-6, 6 —N–(CH ) –N–C–(CH ) –C— 2 6 2 4 ]n[|

H|

H||

O||O

10.

NH2

2

2

Br

H O ¾¾® (A) 2

2 2

( i ) NaNO /HCl

( ii ) H PO ¾¾¾¾¾¾® (B), product

(B) in this reaction is :-

(1)

Br

Br

Br

(2)

Br

Br

Br

(3)Br Br

Br

(4)

Br

11. For which of the following Z > 1 :-

(1) H2

(2) NH3

(3) CO2

(4) N2

12. Which of the following order is correct

regarding the dipole moment ?

(1) PF2Cl

3 < PCl

2BrF

2 < PF

3Cl

2

(2) PCl2BrF2 < PF3Cl2 < PF2Cl3

(3) PF2Cl

3 < PF

3Cl

2 < PCl

2BrF

2

(4) PF3Cl

2 < PF

2Cl

3 < PCl

2BrF

2

13. Among the following the most reactive towards

alc. KOH is :-

(1) CH2=CH–Br (2) CH

3COCH

2CH

2Br

(3) CH3CH

2Br (4) CH

3CH

2CH

2Br

14. The oxidation number of nitrogen atom in

NH4NO

3 are respectively

(1) +3, +3 (2) +3, –3

(3) –3, +5 (4) +5, +3

8. fuEu f=ijekf.od iztkfr;ks a es a ca/k dks.k dk c rk Øe gS (1) NO

2+ < NO

2 < NO

2–

(2) NO2

+ < NO2

– < NO2

(3) NO2

–

< NO2

+

< NO2

(4) NO2

– < NO2 < NO

2+

9. dkS ulk tks M+k lqesfyr ugha gS :-

(1) vkblks izhu —CH –C=CH–CH — 2 2 ]n[|

CH3

(2) LVkbjhu —CH –CH— 2 ]n[|

C H6 5

(3) vks jyks u —CH –C=CH–CH — 2 2 ]n[|

Cl

(4) uk;yks u -6, 6 —N–(CH ) –N–C–(CH ) –C— 2 6 2 4 ]n[|

H|

H||

O||O

10.

NH2

2

2

Br

H O ¾¾¾® (A) 2

2 2

( i ) NaNO /HCl

( ii ) H PO ¾¾¾¾¾¾® (B), vfHkfØ;k

dk mRikn (B) gS

(1)

Br

Br

Br

(2)

Br

Br

Br

(3)Br Br

Br

(4)

Br

11. fuEu es a ls fdlds fy Z > 1 gks xk :-(1) H

2(2) NH

3(3) CO

2(4) N

2

12. fuEu es a ls f kzqo vk?kw.kZ ds fy lgh Øe gS

(1) PF2Cl

3 < PCl

2BrF

2 < PF

3Cl

2

(2) PCl2

BrF2

< PF3

Cl2

< PF2

Cl3

(3) PF2Cl

3 < PF

3Cl

2 < PCl

2BrF

2

(4) PF3Cl

2 < PF

2Cl

3 < PCl

2BrF

2

13. fuEu es a ls dkS u alc. KOH ds lkFk lokZf/kd fØ;k'khy gS :-(1) CH

2=CH–Br (2) CH

3COCH

2CH

2Br

(3) CH3CH

2Br (4) CH

3CH

2CH

2Br

14. Nitrogen ijek.kq dk vkWDlhdj.k vad NH4NO

3 esa

Øe'k gS :-(1) +3, +3 (2) +3, –3

(3) –3, +5 (4) +5, +3

Take it Easy and Make it Easy

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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


15. Heat of atomization of CH4 is xJ what will be

bond energy of CH bond :-

(1) x (2)x

4

(3) 4x (4) None of these

16. The electron affinities of N, O, S and Cl are :-

(1) O » Cl < N » S (2) O < S < Cl < N

(3) N < O < S < Cl (4) O < N < Cl < S

17. Which of the following one have a meso form:-

(1) CH3CH(OH)CH(Cl)C

2H

5

(2) CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH

3

(3) C2H

5CH(OH)CH(OH)CH

3

(4) HOCH2CH(Cl)CH

3

18. What will be molality of 2.5 g of ethanoic acid

in 75 g of benzene ?

(1) 0.4 (2) 0.556 (3) 2.5 (4) 3.5

19. Electron of an excited hydrogen atom jumps

to the ground state and emits a photon of

wavelength l. The quantum number n of initial

excited state in terms of l and R is :-

(1) R(1 – l) (2) l(1 – R)

(3)(1 R)

R

l -(4) ( )

R

R 1

l

l -

20. The difference between atomic radii is

maximum in which one of the following pairs:-

(1) Rb, Cs (2) K, Rb

(3) Na, K (4) Li, Na

21. Identify the product obtained when the

following reaction takes place

OCH3

CH CONH2 2

COOCH3

2( i )Br /NaOH

(ii)heat ¾¾¾¾¾®

(1)

OCH3

O

O

O(2)

OCH3

NH

O

O

(3)

OCH3

NH

O

(4)

OCH3

O

O

22. 2 2

º º

Zn / Zn Cu /CuE 0.76V ; E 0.34V+ += + = + . What

will be Eºcell

?

(1) –0.42 V (2) +0.42 V

(3) +1.10 V (4) –1.10 V

15. CH4 dh ijekf.od Å"ek dk eku xJ gS CH ca/k dh

ca/ku ÅtkZ gks xh :-

(1) x (2)x

4

(3) 4x (4) bues a ls dksbZ ugha16. N, O, S rFkk Cl dh bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk dk Øe gS :-

(1) O » Cl < N » S (2) O < S < Cl < N

(3) N < O < S < Cl (4) O < N < Cl < S

17. fuEufyf[kr es a ls fdl d dk ehtks Lo:i gks ldrk gS :-(1) CH

3CH(OH)CH(Cl)C

2H

5

(2) CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH

3

(3) C2H

5CH(OH)CH(OH)CH

3

(4) HOCH2CH(Cl)CH

3

18. 75 xzke cs Uthu es a 2.5 xzke Fks uksbd vEy dks feykus ij foy;u dh eks yyrk D;k gks xh ?(1) 0.4 (2) 0.556 (3) 2.5 (4) 3.5

19. ,d mÙks ftr gkbMªks tu ijek.kq dk bysDVªkWu ewy voLFkk es a dwnrk gS vkS j d l rjaxnS Z ds QksVksu dks mRlftZr djrk gSA l vkS j R ds inks es a izkjfEHkd mÙksftr voLFkk dh DokaVe la k n gS :-

(1) R(1 – l) (2) l(1 – R)

(3)(1 R)

R

l -(4)

( )

R

R 1

l

l -

20. fuEu es a ls fdl qXe es a ijekf.od f=T;k dk varj vf/kdre gS (1) Rb, Cs (2) K, Rb

(3) Na, K (4) Li, Na

21. fuEufyf[kr vfHkfØ;k es a dkS u lk mRikn izkIr gks rk gS

OCH3

CH CONH2 2

COOCH3

2( i )Br /NaOH

(ii)heat ¾¾¾¾¾®

(1)

OCH3

O

O

O(2)

OCH3

NH

O

O

(3)

OCH3

NH

O

(4)

OCH3

O

O

22. 2 2

º º

Zn / Zn Cu /CuE 0.76V ; E 0.34V+ += + = + , Eº

cell dk

eku D;k gks xk ?(1) –0.42 V (2) +0.42 V

(3) +1.10 V (4) –1.10 V

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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


23. Given that the mass of electron is

9.1 × 10–31 kg and velocity of electron is

2.2 × 106 ms–1. If the uncertainty in its velocity

is 0.1% the uncertainty in position would be:-

(1) 26 nm (2) 32 nm (3) 48 nm (4) 50 nm24. The second ionization energies of the C, N, O

and F atoms are such that :-

(1) O > N > F > C (2) F > O > N > C

(3) C > O > N > F (4) O > F > N > C

25. The correct order of pKa is :-

(i) CH3COOH

(ii) CH3CH

2COOH

(iii) C6H

5CH

2COOH

(iv) CH –C–CH –COOH3 2

||O

(1) iv > iii > ii > i (2) iii > iv > ii > i

(3) iv > ii > iii > i (4) ii > i > iii > iv

26. Rate of reaction depends on :-

(1) Temperature (2) Pressure

(3) Catalyst (4) All of these

27. The vacant space in the bcc unit cell is :-

(1) 32% (2) 23% (3) 26% (4) 68%

28. Consider the following complex

[Co(NH3)5CO3]ClO4. The coordinationnumber, oxidation number, number of d-

electrons and number of unpaired d-electrons

on the metal are, respectively :-

(1) 6, 3, 6, 0 (2) 6, 2, 7, 1

(3) 6, 3, 6, 4 (4) 6, 2, 7, 3

29. Which is incorrect statement :-

(1)

HMeMe

H H

H

and

HHH

H Me

Me

are

conformations

(2)

ClCl

H H

is a meso-compound

(3) and are Geometrical

isomers

(4) C=C=C

H

Me

H

Me and C=C=C

H

Me

H

Meare Enantiomers

23. fn;k x;k gS bys DVª kWu dk æO;eku 9.1 × 10–31 kg o bys DVªkWu dk os x 2.2 × 106 ms–1 gSA fn blds os x esa vfuf'prrk 0.1% gS rks fLFkfr es a vfuf'prk gks xh :-(1) 26 nm (2) 32 nm

(3) 48 nm (4) 50 nm24. C, N, O rFkk F ijek.kq ds f}rh vk;uu ÅtkZvksa dk Øe

gS (1) O > N > F > C (2) F > O > N > C

(3) C > O > N > F (4) O > F > N > C

25. pKa dk lgh Øe g S :-(i) CH

3COOH

(ii) CH3CH

2COOH

(iii) C6H

5CH

2COOH

(iv) CH –C–CH –COOH3 2

||O

(1) iv > iii > ii > i (2) iii > iv > ii > i

(3) iv > ii > iii > i (4) ii > i > iii > iv

26. vfHkfØ;k dk os x fuHkZj djrk gS :-(1) rki (2) nkc (3) mRizs jd (4) mijks Dr lHkh

27. bcc ,dd dksf"Bdk es a fjDr LFkku gks rk gS :-

(1) 32% (2) 23% (3) 26% (4) 68%

28. l adqy [Co(NH3)

5CO

3]ClO

4 es a le Uo la k

vkWDlhdj.k la k kkrq es a d- bysDVªkWu dh la k o v;qfXer d bys DVªkWu dh la k Øe'k gS

(1) 6, 3, 6, 0 (2) 6, 2, 7, 1

(3) 6, 3, 6, 4 (4) 6, 2, 7, 3

29. dkS ulk dFku xyr gS :-

(1)

HMeMe

H H

H

vkSj

HHH

H Me

Me

la :i .k

leko;oh gS

(2)

ClCl

H H

,d ehtks- ;kS fxd gS

(3) vkSj T;kferh leko;oh

gS

(4) C=C=C

H

Me

H

Me vkSj C=C=C

H

Me

H

Me izfrfcEc leko;oh gS

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03–05–2012


MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


30. Which of the following is a correct statement?

(1) Molecularity & order of elementary

reaction is same

(2) Activation energy is the energy difference

between activated complex and reactant

(3) Effective collision depends on activation

energy and proper orientation ?

(4) All of the above

31. Which of the following expression is true

regarding formation of PCl5 :-

(1)P

C

K1

K< (2)

P

C

K1

K>

(3)P

C

K1

K= (4) None

32. Which of the following will have three stereo-

isomeric forms ?

I. [Cr(NO3)

3(NH

3)

3]

II. K3[Co(C

2O

4)

3]

III. K3[Co(C

2O

4)

2Cl

2]

IV. [Co(en)2ClBr](Here en = ethylene diamine)

(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 3

(3) 1 and 4 (4) 3 and 4

33. Select the reaction(s) that would result in the

formation of 2-bromopropane :-

(I) CH3CH = CH

2 + HBr peroxide

¾¾¾¾®

(II) CH3CH = CH

2 + HBr 4CCl

¾¾®

(III) CH3CH2CH3 + Br2 hn

¾¾®

(IV) CH3CH = CH

2 + Br

2 4CCl

¾¾®

(1) I and III (2) II and III

(3) I, II and III (4) I and IV

34. Which of the following colloid will have

dispersion medium gas ?

(1) Sol (2) Gel

(3) Emulsion (4) Aerosol

30. fuEu es a ls dkS ulk dFku lgh gS ?

(1) rkR{kf.kd vfHkfØ;k d fy vk.kfodrk vkS j dks fV leku gks rh gS

(2) lfØ k ÅtkZ dk eku lfØ k dkEiysDl oa

vfHkdkjd dh ÅtkZ vUrj ds leku gks rk gS(3) izHkkoh la?kV~ V lfØ k ÅtkZ oa v.kqvksa dh mfpr fn'kk

fu/kkZj.k ij fuHkZj djrk gS

(4) mijks Dr lHkh

31. PCl5 ds fuekZ.k ds fy fuEu es a ls dkS ulk O;atd lR

:i ls lEcfU/kr gS :-

(1)P

C

K1

K< (2)

P

C

K1

K>

(3)P

C

K1

K= (4) dksbZ ugha

32. fuEu es a ls dkS u rhu f=foe leko;oh j[krs gS a \

I. [Cr(NO3)

3(NH

3)

3]

II. K3[Co(C

2O

4)

3]

III. K3[Co(C

2O

4)

2Cl

2]

IV. [Co(en)2ClBr]

(Here en = ethylene diamine)

(1) 1 rFkk 2 (2) 1 rFkk 3

(3) 1 rFkk 4 (4) 3 rFkk 4

33. og vfHkfØ;k ftles a 2- czks eksizks isu curk gS

(I) CH3CH = CH

2 + HBr peroxide

¾¾¾¾®

(II) CH3CH = CH

2 + HBr 4CCl

¾¾®

(III) CH3CH2CH3 + Br2 hn

¾¾®

(IV) CH3CH = CH

2 + Br

2 4CCl

¾¾®

(1) I and III (2) II and III

(3) I, II and III (4) I and IV

34. uhps fn;s x;s dks yk,Mksa es a ls fdldk ifjf{kIr ek e xS l gks xk ?

(1) lkWy (2) tSy

(3) beYlu (4) ,jkslkWy

dlh iz'u ij nsj rd

dks ugha A

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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


35. For the reaction

CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH

4(g)+H

2O(g)

is at equilibrium at 1300 K in 1L flask

It also contain 0.3 mol CO, 0.1 mol H2 and

0.02 mol H2O and an unknown amount of CH

4

in flask. Determine concentration of CH4 in

mixture if KC for reaction is 3.9 :-

(1) 5.85 × 10–2 (2) 5.3 × 10–6

(3) 2.8 × 10–4 (4) 4.0 × 10–6

36. The correct order of magnetic moment (spin

only values in B.M.) among is :-

(1) [MnCl4]2– > [CoCl

4]2– > Fe(CN

6)4–

(2) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [MnCl

4]2– > [CoCl

4]2–

(3) [Fe(CN)6]

4–

> [CoCl4]

2–

> [MnCl4]

2–

(4) [MnCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)

6]4– > [CoCl

4]2–

(Atomic number Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27,

Ni = 28)

37. Decreasing order of rate of reaction of

molecules towards electrophilic addition

reaction is

CH=CH2

NO2

(a)

CH=CH2 CH=CH2 CH=CH2

OH CH3 NH2

(b) (c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > c > a > d

(3) d > b > c > a (4) b > d > c > a

38. 3 mol of N2 and 3 mol of H

2 was allowed to

react in a closed container. The limiting reagent

is :-

(1) N2

(2) H2

(3) NH3

(4) None

39. The hybrid state of central iodine atom is I3

+ and

I3

– are respectively :-

(1) sp3, sp3d (2) sp3d, sp3

(3) sp3d, sp3d (4) sp2, sp3d

40. Ag2S + NaCN ¾® A,

A + Zn ¾® B + Ag

A and B are respectively

(1) Na3[Ag(CN)

3], Na

2[Zn(CN)

4]

(2) Na[Ag(CN)2], Na[Zn(CN)

3]

(3) Na2[Zn(CN)

4], Na

2[Ag(CN)

4]

(4) Na[Ag(CN)2], Na2[Zn(CN)4]

35. vfHkfØ;k

CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH

4(g)+H

2O(g)

1300 K ij 1L ds ik esa lkE ij gS ;fn ik esa CO ds 0.3 mol, H

2 ds 0.1 mol,

H2O ds 0.02 mol rFkk CH

4 ds vKkr eks y mifLFkr

gSA rks feJ.k es a CH4 dh lkaærk Kkr djsa fn vfHkfØ;k

ds fy KC = 3.9 gS :-

(1) 5.85 × 10–2 (2) 5.3 × 10–6

(3) 2.8 × 10–4 (4) 4.0 × 10–6

36. pqEcdh vk?kw.kZ ( ds oy pØ.k B.M. es a) dk lgh Øe gS :-(1) [MnCl

4]2– > [CoCl

4]2– > Fe(CN

6)4–

(2) [Fe(CN)6]4– > [MnCl

4]2– > [CoCl

4]2–

(3) [Fe(CN)6]

4–

> [CoCl4]

2–

> [MnCl4]

2–

(4) [MnCl4]2– > [Fe(CN)

6]4– > [CoCl

4]2–

(Atomic number Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27,

Ni = 28)

37. fuEufyf[kr kS fxdksa dh bysDVªku Lus gh ksxkRed vfHkfØ;k

ds fy fØ;k'khyrk dk kVrk gqvk Øe gS

CH=CH2

NO2

(a)

CH=CH2 CH=CH2 CH=CH2

OH CH3 NH2

(b) (c) (d)

(1) a > b > c > d (2) b > c > a > d

(3) d > b > c > a (4) b > d > c > a

38. 3 eksy N2 dh vfHkfØ;k 3 eks y H

2 ds lkFk djkus ij

lhekUr vfHkdeZd D;k gks xk (1) N

2(2) H

2

(3) NH3

(4) dks bZ ugha39. I

3+ rFkk I

3– es a ds fUæ ijek.kq vk;ksMhu dh ladfjr voLFkk

Øe'k :-

(1) sp3, sp3d (2) sp3d, sp3

(3) sp3d, sp3d (4) sp2, sp3d

40. Ag2S + NaCN ¾® A,

A + Zn ¾® B + Ag

A rFkk B Øe'k gS (1) Na

3[Ag(CN)

3], Na

2[Zn(CN)

4]

(2) Na[Ag(CN)2], Na[Zn(CN)

3]

(3) Na2[Zn(CN)

4], Na

2[Ag(CN)

4]

(4) Na[Ag(CN)2], Na2[Zn(CN)4]

LoLFk jgks eLr jgks rFkk i kbZ esa O;Lr jgks A

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41. Transpiration depends on :-

(1) Vapour pressure gradient between xylem &

mesophyll cells

(2) Vapour pressure gradient between mesophyll

cells(3) Vapour pressure gradient between spongy

cells

(4) Vapour pressure gradient between mesophyll

and surrounding air

42. Consider the following human disorders :-

(i) Haemophilia

(ii) Down's syndrome

(iii) Cystic fibrosis

(iv) Colourblindness(v) Turner's syndrome

which of these disorders are 'Mendelian disorders'?

(1) ii, iii and iv (2) i, ii and iii

(3) i, iii and v (4) i, iii and iv

43. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing

before how many years :-

(1) 50 million years (2) 60 million years

(3) 15 million years (4) 45 million years

44. What will be the amount of DNA in end of meiosisII, if the amount of DNA in G

1 phase is denoted

as 2C :-

(1) 8 C (2) (4C)

(3) 2 C (4) C

45. Select out the odd one with respect to mode of

nutrition :-

(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrobacter

(3) Rhizobium (4) Nitrocystis

46. A man and woman are both affected by

vitamin D resistant rickets, which is a dominant

sex-linked disease. All of the female offsprings

of this couple are affected with rickets but some

of the male offsprings are not. What are the

genotypes of the parents ?

(1) Both are homozygous for the trait

(2) The woman has two dominant alleles & man

has one dominant allele

(3) Both parents have two dominant alleles

(4) Each parent has only one dominant allele

41. ok"iks RltZu fuEu es a ls fdl ij fuHkZj djrk gS :-

(1) tkbye rFkk e ksrd dksf'kdkvks a ds chp ok"i nkc

izo.krk

(2) e ks rd dksf'kdkvksa ds chp ok"i nkc izo.krk (3) Lik¡th dksf'kdkvksa ds chp ok"inkc izo.krk

(4) e ksrd dksf'kdk rFkk ckgjh ifj/kh ok;q ds chp ok"i

nkc izo.krk

42. fuEufyf[kr ekuo fodkjks a dks if :-

(i) gheks fQyh;k

(ii) MkmUl flaMªks e

(iii) flLVhd Qkbczks fll

(iv) o.kkZU/krk (v) VuZj flaMªks e

buesa ls dkS uls fodkj ' es .Ms fy;u fodkj ' gS ?

(1) ii, iii ,oa iv (2) i, ii ,oa iii

(3) i, iii ,oa v (4) i, iii ,oa iv

43. Mªk;ks fiFks dl oe~ jkekfiFksdl fdrus o"kZ iwoZ fo|eku Fks :-

(1) 50 feyh;u o"kZ (2) 60 feyh;u o"kZ

(3) 15 feyh;u o"kZ (4) 45 feyh;u o"kZ

44.

v/kZlw=h foHkktu II

dh vUr voLFkk e s a DNA

dh ek=k D;k gks xh fn G1 izkoLFkk e s a DNA dh ek=k dks 2C ls

fpfUgr fd;k tk :-

(1) 8 C (2) (4C)

(3) 2 C (4) C

45. iks "k.kh fof/k ds lUnHkZ es a fo"ke dk p;u dhft;s :-

(1) ukbVªkslks eksukl (2) ukbVªkscs DVj

(3) jkbtksfc;e (4) ukbVªksflfLVl

46. ,d O;fDr o efgyk nks uks a foVkfeu D iz frjks/kh jhds V~ l

ls ihM+hr gS tks fd d izHkkoh fyax lgyXu jksx gSA

budh lkjh eknk larfr;ka bl jksx ls ihM+hr gS ysfdu

dqN uj l arfr; k ¡ ihfM +r ug h a g SA bu iSr `dks a d s

thuizk:i D;k gks axs ?

(1) nksuksa bl jksx ds fy le;qXeh gksxs

(2) efgyk es a nks izHkkoh yhYl oa O;fDr es a d izHkkoh ,yhy gks xkA

(3) nks uksa iS r`dks a es a nks izHkkoh yhy gksxs aA

(4) izR;s d iS r`d es a dsoy o izHkkoh yhy gks xkAJ es'kk eqLdjkrs jgsa A

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47. In E.coli rho–factor is required for :-

(1) Initiation of transcription at specific site

(2) Initiation of transcription at many site

(3) Termination of transcription at specific site

(4) Termination of transcription at many sites48. Three of the following statement are correct while

one is wrong, which one is wrong :-

(1) Ribosome composed of RNA and protein

(2) By the lateral movement of protein with in

overall bilayer can measured membrane

fluidity

(3) In telocentric chromosome the centromere is

situated to it's end

(4) The lipid content of the membrane mainly

consists of cholesterol

49. In this given diagram, in phase B of curve

generally which of the following act as limiting

factor :-

DLight intensity

A

B CE

R a t e o f

p h o t o s y n t h

e s i s

(1) Light (2) CO2

(3) Minerals (4) Temperataure

50. A plant with genotype AABbCcDD is self

pollinated. Provided that the four genes are

independently assorting, what proportion of the

progeny will show the genotype AAbbccDD?

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/16

(3) 1/64 (4) 1/256

51. Which one of the following is labelled with1H3

to study DNA replication :–

(1) Thymidine (2) Uridine

(3) Cytosine (4) Guanosine

52. Incomplete cartilagenous rings support all of the

following, except :-

(1) Trachea

(2) Primary, secondary bronchi

(3) Respiratory bronchioles(4) Terminal bronchioles

47. bZ&dks yh esa r– dkjd fdlds fy vko';d gks rk gS (1) fof'k"V LFky ij VªkUlfØI'ku dh 'kq:vkr djuk (2) VªkUlfØI'ku dh vus d txg ij 'kq:vkr djuk (3) fof'k"V txg ij VªkUlfØI'ku dks lekIr djuk

(4) vusd LFky ij VªkUlfØI'ku dks lekIr djuk 48. uhps fn;s x;s rF;ksa es a rhu lR gS tcfd d vlR gS

og vlR dFku dkS ulk gS :-

(1) jkbckslks e RNA izks Vhu dh cuh lajpuk gSA

(2) izks Vhu dh f}lrg ds Hkhrj ik£'od xfr ds kjk f>Yyh

dh rjyrk dk ekiu fd;k tk ldrk gSA

(3) Vhyks ls fUVª d xq . klw es a xq . klw fcUnq blds fljs ij feyrk

gSA

(4) dksf'kdk f>Yyh es a ik;s tkus okys fyfiM kVd eq r

dks ysLVªks y ds cus gks rs gSA49. fn;s x;s fp oØ es a lkekU;r;k izkoLFkk B es a lhekdkjh

dkjd dkS u gks rk gS :-

DLight intensity

A

B CE

R a t e o f

p h o t o s y n t h

e s i s

(1) izdk'k (2) CO2

(3) [kuht (4) rkieku 50. ,d AABbCcDD thuks Vkbi okys ikni dk Loijkx.k

fd;k tkrk gSA g fn;k x;k gS fd pkjks thUl LorU

:i ls viO;wghr gks jgs gS rks AAbbccDD thuksVkbi okyh larfr;ks a dh izkf;drk D;k gksxh ?

(1) 1/4 (2) 1/16

(3) 1/64 (4) 1/256

51. DNA– f}xq. ku dks v u djus ds fy js fM;ks ,s fDVo 1H3

ls fdldks vafdr fd;k tkrk gS (1) FkkbehMhu (2) ;wjhfMu (3) lkbVks flu (4) xqvkuks flu

52. viw.kZ mikfLFky oy fuEu lHkh esa mifLFkr gksr s gSa flok

(1) Vªs fd;k (2) izkFkfed f}rh;d czksadkbZ

(3) 'oluh czks afd;ks Yl (4) vUrLFk czksafd;ksYl

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53. Which of the following is not an inhibitory effect

facilitated by ethylene :-

(1) Abscission promotion

(2) Senescence promotion

(3) Dormany breaking(4) Inhibition vertical growth

54. If a reconbinant DNA bearing gene for ampicillin

resistance in transferred into E.Coli cells and the

host cells are grown on agar plates containing

ampicillin, then :-

(1) Both transformed & untransformed recipient

cells will die

(2) Both transformed & untransformed recipient

cells will grow

(3) Transformed recipient cells will grow and

untransformed recipient cells will die

(4) Transformed recipient cell will die and

untransformed recipient cells will grow

55. The activation of amino acid during protein

synthesis requires :–

(1) ATP only

(2) ATP and GTP both

(3) ATP and synthatase enzyme.

(4) Shine delgarno sequences.

56. Which of the following are actively secreted into

filtrate by tubular cells of nephron :-

(1) Na+, K Å, NH3

(2) K Å , NH3, HÅ

(3) HÅ, HCO3Å , K Å (4) HÅ , NH

3, Na+

57. Choose the incorrect statement about

Pteridophytes :-

(1) Main plant body is a sporophyte

(2) They are used for medicinal purposes and as

soil binders

(3) Gametophyte have vascular tissue

(4) The development of the zygote into young

embryo takes place with in the gametophytes

58. Serum is :-

(1) Plasma plus corpuscles

(2) Plasma minus proteins

(3) Blood minus corpuscles and fibrin protein

(4) Blood minus RBCs, nutrients and clotting

factors

53. fuEu es a ls dkS ulk fujks/kh izHkko bFkkbyhu kjk iz s fjr ugha fd;k tkrk gS :-(1) foyxu izsj.k (2) th.kZrk izsj.k

(3) izlqIrkoLFkk rksM+uk (4) mnxz o`f¼ dks jks duk

54. ;fn d Eihlhyhu izfrjks/krk thu qDr iqu;ksZth DNA

dks E.Coli dks f'kdkvks a es a LFkkukUrfjr fd;k tkrk gS rFkk ijikS "kh dks f'kdkvksa dh Eihlhyhu qDr vxkj IysV~l ij o`fð djokbZ tkrh gS rks :-

(1) :ikUrjt oa v:ikUrjt nks uksa xzkgh dksf'kdk,¡ ej tk,xh

(2) :ikUrjt oa v:ikUrjt nks uksa xzkgh dksf'kdk,¡ o`fð djs xh

(3) :ikUrjt xzkgh dksf'kdk,¡ o`fð djsxh oa v:ikUrjt xzkgh dksf'kdk,¡ ej tk,xhA

(4) :ikUrjt xzkgh dks f'kdk,¡ ej tk,xh oa v:ikUrjt xzkgh dksf'kdk,¡ o`fð djsxhA

55. izksVhu la'ys"k.k ds nkS jku vehuks vEyks a ds lfØ k ds fy

fdldh vko';drk gksrh gS (1) ds oy ATP dh (2) ATP o GTP nks uks a(3) ATP rFkk flUFks Vs t Utkbe

(4) 'kkbu MsyxkuksZ Øe 56. fuEu es a ls fdls us Ýksu dh ufydh dks f'kdkvks a kjk fQYVªs V

es a lfØ i ls L=kfor fd;k tkrk gS

(1) Na+, K Å, NH3

(2) K Å, NH3, HÅ

(3) HÅ, HCO3Å , K Å (4) HÅ, NH

3, Na+

57. VsfjMksQkbV~l ds lUnHkZ es a vlR dFku dk pquko dj s

(1) eq ikni 'kjhj chtk.kqn~fHkn gksrk gSA

(2) budk mi;ksx vkS "k/kh i es a o e`nk ca/kd ds i

es a gksrk gSA(3) ;qXedks n~fHkn laogu Ård j[krk gSA

(4) ;qXeut dk fodkl qXedksn~fHkn es a gk s rk gS vk S j d u;k 'kS 'ko Hkwz.k curk gSA

58. lhje gS :-

(1) df.kdkvks a qDr IykTek (2) izks VhUl jfgr IykTek (3) df.kdkvksa oa Qkbfczu izks Vhu jfgr f/kj (4) RBCs, iks"kd inkFkZ rFkk Ldand dkjd jfgr

:fèkj viuh kerk dks iwjk lwyus dk iz;kl djsa A

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59. Nearly how much % of all insects are known to

be phytophagous :-

(1) 25% (2) 50%

(3) 100% (4) 20%

60. Which enzyme does not act upon food substancein intestinal region ?

(1) Trypsin (2) Chymotrypsin

(3) Pepsin (4) Amylase

61. What is not found in Euglenoids :-

(1) Deprived of sunlight they behave like

heterotrophs

(2) Identical pigments to higher plants

(3) They have two flagella, a short and a long one

(4) They have pellicle which made up of cellulose

62. Which does not have racemose type of inflorescence ?

(1) Coriander (2) Mulberry

(3) Ficus (4) Helianthus

63. Red algae likely to be found in :-

(1) Pelagic zone

(2) Littoral zone

(3) Benthic zone

(4) Anywhere in sea water

64. The joint between the adjacent vertebrae in the

vertebral column, is :-(1) Fibrous joint (2) Cartilaginous joint

(3) Pivot joint (4) Hinge joint

65. Which of the following are responsible for the

production of methane in the gut of several

ruminant animals :-

(1) Halophiles (2) Thermoacidophiles

(3) Methanomonas (4) Methanogens

66. The part of embryonal axis, which is present

between the cotyledons and radicle is called :-

(1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl(3) Coleorhiza (4) Scutellum

67. Temperature is the most ecologically relevent

environmental factor, Annual variation in the

intensity and duration of temperature depends

on:-

(a) The rotation of our planet around the sun

(b) Tilt of its axis

(c) Distinct seasons

(d) variation in precipitation

(1) Only a, b (2) a, b, c(3) a, b, c, d (4) a, c, d

59. yxHkx fdrus izfr'kr dhV ikniHk{kh ( QkbVksQs xl ) gS

(1) 25% (2) 50%

(3) 100% (4) 20%

60. dkS ulk Utkbe vka=h ks es a HkksT inkFkZ ij dk;Z ugha djrk ?

(1) fVªfIlu (2) dkbeks fVªfIlu (3) is fIlu (4) ,ekbyst

61. ;qXyhukWbM es a D;k ugha ik;k tkrk gS (1) lw;Z ds izdk'k dh deh es a fo"keiks"kh dh rjg O;ogkj (2) mPp ikniksa ds leku o.kZd (3) nks d'kkfHkdk,s a j[krs gS a d NksVh o d cM+h (4) ;s is yhdy j[krs j[krs gS a tks fd ls Y;wyks l dh cuh

gks rh gSA

62. fdles a vlhek{kh izdkj dk iq"iØe ugha ik;k tkrk gS ?(1) Coriander (2) Mulberry

(3) Ficus (4) Helianthus

63. leqæ esa Red algae yky 'kS oky ik;k tkos xk (1) is ys ftd ks es a(2) fyVks jy ks es a(3) cs UFkhd tks u (4) leqæ es a dgh Hkh

64. d'ks :d n.M esa nks Øekxr d'ks:dkvksa ds chp mifLFkr

laf/k gS (1) rUrq e laf/k (2) mikfLFke laf/k (3) /kqjkxz laf/k (4) dCtk la f/k

65. fuEu es a ls dkS u tqxkyh djus okys eosf'k;ks a dh vkgkjuky

es a esFksu ds mRiknu ds fy;s mÙkjnk;h gS

(1) gs yks fQYl (2) Fkeks Z,s flMks fQYl

(3) esFks ukseksukl (4) esFks uks tUl

66. Hkzw.kh v{k dk og Hkkx tks chti=ks a o ewykadqj ds chp gks rk gS dgykrk gS

(1) chti=k/kkj (2) chti=ksifjd (3) ewykadqjpksy (4) o:fFkdk

67. rkieku ik fjfLFk frdh i ls lcls T;knk iz kl afxd i;kZoj.kh dkjd gSA rkieku es a okf"kZd ifjorZu rFkk mldh

rhozrk fuHkZj djrh gS

(a) i`Foh dk lw;Z ds pkjksa vksj kw.kZu

(b) i`Foh dk blds v{k dh vks j qdko

(c) fofHkUu ½rq,¡

(d) o"kZ.k es a fofHkUurk

(1) Only a, b (2) a, b, c(3) a, b, c, d (4) a, c, d

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68. What is level of FSH & LH in female according

to age ?

(A) Embryonic

Stage Birth

(B) Puberty (C) Menopause (D) Death

(1) Level of FSH & LH in A > Level of FSH &

LH in B

(2) Level of FSH & LH in B > Level FSH & LH

in C

(3) Level of FSH & LH in C < Level of FSH &

LH in D

(4) Level of FSH & LH in C > Level of FSH &

LH in D

69. Choose the incorrect about taxonomic keys :-(1) They are based on the contrasting characters

(2) Pair of contrasting characters are called lead

(3) They are generally analytical in nature

(4) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each

taxonomic category

70. In leaves mesophyll tissue formed by :–

(1) Procambium (2) Protoderm

(3) Ground meristem (4) None of these

71. Which one is not a adaptation of altitude sickness:-(1) Increasing red blood cell production

(2) Decreasing the binding capacity of hemoglobin

(3) Increasing breathing rate

(4) Increases in heart palpitation

72. Which of the following mode of action is not

shown by IUDs ?

(1) Prevents ovulation

(2) Prevents implantation

(3) Prevents fertilisation(4) Suppresses sperms motility

73. A fish dies outside water because gill filaments:-

(1) Stick to each other

(2) Expand

(3) Are detached

(4) Become naked

74. The biggest dinosaur which form during evolution

was :-

(1) Branchiosaurus (2) Triceratops

(3) Stegosaurus (4) Tyrannosaurus rex

68. vk;q ds vuqlkj eknk esa FSH vkS j LH dk Lrj D;k jgrk gS ?

(A) Embryonic

Stage Birth

(B) Puberty (C) Menopause (D) Death

(1) Level of FSH & LH in A > Level of FSH &

LH in B

(2) Level of FSH & LH in B > Level FSH & LH

in C

(3) Level of FSH & LH in C < Level of FSH &

LH in D

(4) Level of FSH & LH in C > Level of FSH &

LH in D

69. ofxZdh dqath ds ckjs es a vlR dk pquko djs a (1) ;s foi;kZlh y{k.kksa ij vk/kkfjr gks rh gSA(2) foi;kZlh y{k.kks a ds qXe tksM+ ksa dks ekxZn'kZd yhM

dgrs gS aA(3) ;s fo'ys"kkRed izd`fr dh gksrh gSA(4) iz R;s d ofxZ dh Js .kh ds fy;s iFkd ofxZ dh dq a th gks rh gSA

70. ifÙk;ksa es a i.kZe ksÙkd dk fuekZ.k gks rk gS

(1) izkd~ kk ls (2) vf/kRod ls

(3) Hkj.k foHkT;ks Ùkd ls (4) mijks Dr es a ls dksbZ ugha

71. fuEu es a ls dkS ulk rqaxrk chekjh dk vuqdwyu ugha gS (1) RBC dk mRiknu c uk (2) Hb dh ca/kudkjh kerk kVuk (3) 'olu nj c uk (4) gn~ Lianu esa o`f¼

72. mijksDr es a ls dkS ulk rjhdk IUDs }kjk iznf'kZr ugha gksrk gS ?(1) v.Mks RlxZ&dks jksduk (2) vkjksi.k dks jksduk

(3) fu"ks pu dks jks duk (4) 'kqØk.kqvksa dh xfr'khyrk dks lanfer djuk

73. eNyh ty ds ckgj ej tkrh gS D;ks afd mlds Dyks e rUrq (1) ,d nw ljs ls fpid tkrs gS a(2) QS y tkrs gS a(3) vyx gks tkrs gS a(4) uXu gks tkrs gS a

74. mf}dkl ds nk S jku cuus okyk lcls cM +k Mk;uklk Sj Fkk :-(1) czs afd;ks lks jl (2) Vªkbls js Vks Il (3) LVs xks lks jl (4) Vkbjs uks lks jl js Dl

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75. To increase milk yield, cow is given :-

(1) Sorbitol (2) Stilbesterol

(3) Prolactin (4) Gonadotrophin

76. In ECG, T-wave represents :-

(1) Murmer(2) Complete pulse

(3) Ventricular systole

(4) Ventricular diastole

77. Which one is not a correct statement :-

(1) The larva of Balonaglossus is called Bipinnaria

larva

(2) The lateral line system is present in Amphibian

life

(3) Ctenoid scales are present in bony fishes

(4) All vertebrates are not amniotes

78. During evolution, some mammal go back in water

from land, like :-

(1) Whale (2) Dolphin

(3) Seal (4) All of the above

79. Chief function of crista and macula of internal

ear:-

(1) Balancing and hearing

(2) To perceive sound vibration of high frequency

(3) To transmit sound vibration to the auditory

nerve

(4) Maintenance of balance of the body and

posture

80. A population growing in a habitat having

unlimited resources but after some time resources

become limited (As shown by growth curves

a & b) select the best option :-

(a) (b)

P o p u l a t i o n

d e n s i t y

Time (t)

(1) Graph shifts from a to b

(2) Graph shift from b to a

(3) Only Graph a can represent whole situation

(4) Only Graph b can represent whole situation

75. xk dks vf/kd nqX/k mRiknu nsus ds fy fn;k tkrk gS :-(1) lks jchVks y (2) fLVycsLVªky (3) izks ysfDVu (4) xks us Mks Vªks fiu

76. ECG es a T- iznf'kZr djrh gS :-

(1) eeZj (2) iw.kZr;k iYl (3) fuy;h ladqpu (4) fuy;h vuqf'kfFkyu

77. fuEu es a ls dkS u lk dFku lgh gS

(1) cs ys ukXyks ll dk ykokZ ckbfiUus fj;k ykokZ dgykrk gSA

(2) ,s EQhfc;k ds thou es a ik'oZ js [kk flLVe mifLFkr gSA

(3) cksuh eNfy;ksa es a Vsuks,M 'kYd gks rs gS aA(4) lHkh d'ks :d efu;ks V~ l ugha gS aA

78. mf}dkl ds nkS jku dqN Lru/kkjh tehu ls ikuh es a okil pys x;s tS ls :-(1) Ogs y (2) MkW YQhu (3) lhy (4) mijksDr lHkh

79. vkUrfjd d.kZ ds fØLVk o eSD;wyk dk eq dk;Z gS :-

(1) lUrqyu rFkk Jo.k

(2) vf/kd xfr dh ouh rajxs eglwl djuk

(3) vkWfMVjh rfU=dk es a ouh rajxks dks izokfgr djuk

(4) 'kjhj dk larqyu o lgh fLFkfr cuk;s j[kuk

80. ,d c rh gq tula k ftlesa vlhfer L=ks r gS ijUrq dqN

le i'pkr~ L=ks r lhfer gks x;s ( tS lk a vkS j b oØ fn[kk;k

x;k gS) mfpr dFku pqfu :-

(a) (b)

P o p u l a t i o n

d e n s i t y

Time (t)

(1) oØ a ls b dh vksj c rk gSA(2) oØ b ls a dh vksj c rk gSA(3) flQZ oØ a iwjh fLFkfr dks iznf'kZr djrk gSA

(4) flQZ oØ b iwjh fLFkfr dks iznf'kZr djrk gSATime Management is Life Management

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81. A mass m = 20g has a charge q = 3·0mC. It moves

with a velocity of 20m/s and enters a region of

electric field of 80 N/C in the same direction as

the velocity of the mass. The velocity of the mass

after 3 seconds in this region is –

(1) 80 m/s (2) 56 m/s

(3) 44 m/s (4) 40 m/s

82. If the surface of a metal succesively exposed to

radiation of wavelength l1 = 350 nm and

l2 = 450 nm, the maximum velocity of

photoelectrons will differ by a factor of 2. The

work function of this metal is :-

(1) 2.8 × 10–17 J (2) 6.1 × 10–19 J

(3) 3.2 × 10–15 J (4) 4.0 × 10–13 J

83. A horizontal ring of radius r spins about its axis

with an angular velocity w in a uniform vertical

magnetic field of magnitude B. The emf induced

in the ring is :-

(1) Zero (2) pr2wB

(3)1

2Br

2w (4) Br

2w

84. A person A of 50 kg rests on a swing of

length 1m making an angle 37O with the

vertical. Another person B pushes him to swing

on other side at 53O with vertical. The work done

by person B is : [g=10 m/s2 ]

(1) 50 J (2) 9.8 J

(3) 100 J (4) 10 J

85. A capacitor of capacity C1 is charged to the

potential of V0. On disconnecting with the battery,

it is connected with a capacitor of capacity C2 as

shown in the adjoining figure. The ratio of

energies before and after the connection of switch

S will be –

(1)(C1 + C2)/C1 (2) C1 /(C1 + C2)

(3)C1C2 (4) C1 /C2

81. fdlh nzO;eku m = 20g ij vkos 'k q = 3·0mC gS SA g 20m/s ds os x ls pyrk gqvk d s ls ks es a kqlrk gS tgk¡

fo|qr ks 80 N/C gS rFkk fo|qr ks dh fn'kk ogh gS tks nz O;eku ds os x dhA bl ks es a 3 lS d.M ds ckn nzO;eku dk osx gksxk –

(1) 80 m/s (2) 56 m/s

(3) 44 m/s (4) 40 m/s

82. ;fn fdlh kkrq ds i`"B ij mÙkjks Ùkj i ls l1 = 350 nm

rFkk l2 = 450 nm rjaxnS Z ds fofdj.k vkifrr fd;s tkrs

gS, rks mRlftZr Qks Vks bysDVªkWuks a dk vf/kdre osx 2 ds xq.kd

ls ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA kkrq dk dk;Z Qyu gks xk :-

(1) 2.8 × 10–17 J (2) 6.1 × 10–19 J

(3) 3.2 × 10–15 J (4) 4.0 × 10–13 J

83. ,d fjax tks kS frt ry esa w dks .kh os x ls viuh v{k ij kw.kZu dj jgh gSA fn pq Ecdh ks B Å/okZ/kj Åij

dh vks j rFkk f=T;k r gS rks fjax es a izs fjr fo|qr okgd cy

dk D;k eku gks xk

(1) 'kwU (2) pr2wB

(3)1

2Br

2w (4) Br

2w

84. 50

fdxz k dk

d O;fDr A

Å/okZ /kj ls 37°

dks .k cuk jgs 1 ehVj yEcs wy s ij fojkekoL Fkk esa gSA nwljk O;fDr B mls mèokZ/kj ls 53° ij wys ds nwljh rjQ /kdsyrk gSA O;fDr B kj k fd;k x;k dk;Z gksxk

[g = 10 [email protected] 2]

(1) 50 J (2) 9.8 J

(3) 100 J (4) 10 J

85. ,d la/kkfj C1 dks V0 foHkokUrj rd vkosf'kr fd;k x;k gSA cSVjh ls bls foPNsfnr djds layXu fp dh

Hkk¡fr C2 /kkfjrk ds kkfj ls tksM+k x;k gS rks fLop S

dks tks M+us ls iwoZ o ckn es a fLFkfrt ÅtkZvksa dk vuqikr

gks xk –

(1)(C1 + C2)/C1 (2) C1 /(C1 + C2)

(3)C1C2 (4) C1 /C2

izR;sd iz'u dks vtqZu cudj djksA

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86. A ls B ds js fM;ks ,fDVo vi?kVu ij fopkj dhft;s tks ;k rks X es s a k Y es a vi?kfVr gks ldrk gSA A ls B es avi?kVu ds fy;s k fu;rkad l1, B ls X es a vi?kVu ds fy;s l2 rFkk B ls Y eas vi?kVu ds fy;s l3 gS aA fn t = 0 ij A, B, X rFkk Y ds ukfHkdks a dh la k Øe'k

N0, N0 'kwU rFkk 'kwU gS rFkk fdlh k.k ij ukfHkdks aA,B,X rFkk Y dh la k N1,N2,N3 rFkk N4 gSA lgh mÙkj pqfu;s fdlh k.k ij B ds lap dh nj gks xh

l

l

l

(1) N1l1 + N2l2 + N3l3 (2) N1l1 – N3l2 – N4l3

(3) N1l1 – N2l2 – N2l3 (4) N1l1 + N2l2 – N3l3

87. ,d lh/kk kS frt pkyd ftldk æO;eku m rFkk yEckbZ l gS Å/okZ/kj pqEcdh ks B es a j[kk gSA bles a ls Q vkos 'k

brus de le es a fudyrk gS fd pkyd bles a ls vkos 'k

fudyus ds ckn xfr dj ikrk gSA bldk izkjfEHkd osx D;k

gksxk

(1) BQlm (2)BQ

ml

(3) BQm

l (4) BmQ

l

88. fn;k x;k fp fdlds rqY gS :-

(1) OR }kj (2) AND }kj (3) NOR }kj (4) NAND }kj

89. fp es a 8 vkse çfrjk s/k ds fljks a ds chp 48 ok sYV

dk foH kok Urj g SA X vk Sj Y fcUn qvk s a d s chp foHkok Urj dk eku gk sx k –

(1) 160 volt (2) 128 volt

(3) 80 volt (4) 62 volt

86. Consider radioactive decay of A to B which may

further decay either to X or to Y, l1,l2 and l3 are

decay constants for A to B decay, B to X decay

and B of Y decay respectively. If at t = 0 number

of nuclei of A, B, X and Y are N0, N0, zero andzero respectively and N1,N2,N3,N4 are number of

nuclei A,B,X and Y at any instant. Rate of

accumulation of B of any instant will be–

l

l

l

(1) N1l1 + N2l2 + N3l3 (2) N1l1 – N3l2 – N4l3

(3) N1l1 – N2l2 – N2l3 (4) N1l1 + N2l2 – N3l3

87. A horizontal straight conductor of mass m andlength l is placed in a uniform vertical magnetic

field of magnitude B. An amount of charge Q

passes through the rod in a very short time such

that the conductor begins to move only after all

the charge has passed through it. Its initial velocity

will be :-

(1) BQlm (2)BQ

ml

(3) BQm

l (4) BmQ

l

88. The given diagram is equivalent to :-

(1) OR gate (2) AND gate

(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate

89. The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance

is 48 volt as shown in the figure. The value of potential difference across X and Y points will be–

(1) 160 volt (2) 128 volt

(3) 80 volt (4) 62 volt

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90. In the experiment of photoelectric effect, various

stopping potentials are recorded corresponding to

various monochromatic light beam of different

wavelengths. Data are give

Wavelength (nm) :-350400 450 500 550

Stopping potential (V) :-

1.45 1.00 0.66 0.38 0.16

(1) 1.7 eV (2) 2.1 eV

(3) 3.4 eV (4) 1.5 eV

91. In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long

time, and then X is joined to Z. The total heat

produced in R2 is

R 2

L X Z

YR 1

+

e

(1)

2

2

1

L

2R

e(2)

2

2

2

L

2R

e

(3)

2

1 2

L

2R R

e(4)

2

2

3

1

L R

2R

e

92. For shown situation. What

3N

5N

4NEw

N

37°

S

will be minimum force that

can be applied in any

direction so that the

resultant force is along east

direction :-

(1) 5N (2) 4N (3) 6N (4) 8N

93. The earth E moves in an elliptical orbit with the

sun S at one of the foci as shown in figure. Its

speed of motion will be maximum at the point(1) C

(2) A

(3) B

(4) D

94. What will be the no. of b––particle emitting during

given reaction :

yAx ¾®

nBm

(1)x m

4

-(2) n +

x m

2

- + y

(3) n +x m

2

- – y (4) n – y

90. çdk'k fo|qr çHkko ds d ç;ks x es a fHkUu&fHkUu rjaxnSè;Z okys do.khZ çdk'k iqatksa ds fy;s fujksèkd foHko ekis x;s gSA vkadM+s bl çdkj gSArjaxnSè;Z (nm) :

350400 450 500 550 ujkèkd oHko (V) :

1.45 1.00 0.66 0.38 0.16

bl iz;ks x es a mRltZd dk dk;Z Qyu Kkr dhft;s (1) 1.7 eV (2) 2.1 eV

(3) 3.4 eV (4) 1.5 eV

91. fn x ifjiFk es a X rFkk Y dks yEcs le rd tksM+k tkrk gS fQj X dks Y ls gVkdj Z ls tks M+k tkrk gS rks R2

es a dqy fdruk vkos'k izokfgr gksxk

R 2

L X Z

YR 1

+

e

(1)

2

2

1

L

2R

e(2)

2

2

2

L

2R

e

(3)

2

1 2

L

2R R

e(4)

2

2

3

1

L R

2R

e

92. fp es a fn[kkbZ fLFkfr es a ml

3N

5N

4NEw

N

37°

S

U;wure cy dk ifjek.k crkb

ftls fdlh fn'kk es a yxkus ij dqy

cy iwoZ fn'kk esa vk :-

(1) 5N (2) 4N

(3) 6N (4) 8N

93. i`Foh (E) lw;Z (S) ds pkjksa vksj nh?k Zo`Ùkh d{kk es a kwe jgh gSA nh?kZ o`Ùk ds d Qksdl ij lw;Z gS i`Foh ds kweus

dh pky vf/kdre fdl fcUnq ij gks xh –

(1) C

(2) A

(3) B

(4) D

94. fuEu vfHk fØ;k esa fdru s b–– d. k mRlftZr gk s jg s gS a :-

yAx ¾®

nBm

(1)x m

4

-(2) n +

x m

2

- + y

(3) n +x m

2

- – y (4) n – y

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95. A nonconducting ring of radius r has charge Q.

A magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the

ring changes at the ratedB

dt. The torque

experienced by the ring is :-

(1) Zero (2) Qr2 dB

dt

(3)21 dB

Qr2 dt

(4)2 dB

r Qdt

p

96. Two vectors ˆ ˆ Â 4i j 2k= + a +r

and ˆ ˆ ˆB 2i j k= + +r

are parallel :-

(1) a = 0 (2) a = 1

(3) a = 2 (4) a = 4

97. The electric potential in a certain region along theX-axis varies with x according to the relation –

V(x) = 5 – 4x2 (volt)Then the correct statement (s) is (are) –(1) The potential difference between points

x = 1m and x = 2m is 12 volts

(2) The force experienced by a columb of charge placed at x = 1m is 8 newton

(3) The electric field components along Y andZ directions are zero

(4) All of the above

98. A sphere at temperature 800 K is placed in an

environment of temperature is 200 K. Its cooling

rate is H. If its temperature reduced to 600 K then

cooling rate in same environment will become :-

(1) (3/16) H (2) (16/3) H

(3) (51/16) H (4) (16/51) H

99. A block of mass ‘m’ moving at a speed ‘v’

compresses a spring through a distance ‘x’ before

its speed in halved. The spring constant of the

spring is :–

(1)

2

2

3mv

4x(2)

2

2

2mv

3x(3)

2

2

mv

3x (4)

2

2

2mv

x

100. In the given diagram extension produced in the spring

will be (Given K=100 N/m & g=10 m/s2)

(1) 10 cm

4kg

4kg

(2) 20 cm

(3) 30 cm

(4) 40 cm

95. ,d vpkyd fjax ij vkos'k Q rFkk f=T;k r gSA blds

ry ds yEcor~ pqEcdh ks B gS rFkk g dB

dt dh nj

ls cny jgk gSA fja x ij yxus okyk cy vk?kw.kZ fdruk gks xk

(1) Zero (2) Qr2 dB

dt

(3)21 dB

Qr2 dt

(4)2 dB

r Qdt

p

96. nk s lf n' k ˆ ˆ Â 4i j 2k= + a +r

rF k k ˆ ˆ ˆB 2i j k= + +r

lekukUrj gks xsa :-

(1) a = 0 (2) a = 1

(3) a = 2 (4) a = 4

97. fdlh ks esa fo|qr foHko X-v{k ij fLFkfr x ij fuEu vuqlkj fuHkZj djrk gS –

V(x) = 5 – 4x2 ( oks YV ) rc lR dFku gS –

(1) fc Unq x=1 eh vk Sj x = 2 eh ds e foHkok Urj 12 ok sYV gSA

(2) fcUnq x = 1 eh ij d dwykWe vkos 'k j[k fn;k tk;s rc bl ij yxus okyk cy 8 U;wVu gksxkA

(3) fo|qr ks ds Y vkS j Z ?kVd 'kwU gS aA(4) mijksDr lHkh dFku

98. ,d xksys dk rki 800 K gS oa bls 200 K rki okys ifjos 'k es a j[kk x;k gSAbles a 'khryu dh nj H gSA fn xks ys ds rki dks kVkdj 600 K dj fn;k tk;s rc mlh ifjos 'k es a blds 'khryu dh nj gks xh :-(1) (3/16) H (2) (16/3) H

(3) (51/16) H (4) (16/51) H

99. ‘m’ æO;eku dk CykWd ‘v’ os x ls xfr djrk gqvk fLizax

ls Vdjkdj viuk os x vk/kk gks us ls igys fLiza x dks ‘x’

nwjh ls ladqfpr djrk gSA fLizax fu;rkad gksxk

(1)

2

2

3mv

4x(2)

2

2

2mv

3x(3)

2

2

mv

3x (4)

2

2

2mv

x

100. fn;s x;s fp es a fLizax es a foLrkj D;k gks xk ( fn;k gS K=100 N/m & g=10 m/s2)

(1) 10 cm

4kg

4kg

(2) 20 cm

(3) 30 cm

(4) 40 cm

dksb Hkh iz'u ls xyr ugha gksuk pk g,A

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101. An electric bulb is marked 100W, 230V. If the

supply voltage drops to 115 V, what is the heat

and light energy produced by the bulb in

20 min –

(1)20 J (2) 30 KJ (3) 100 J (4) 30 J

102. The adjoining diagram shows the spectral energy

density distribution El of a black body at two

different temperatures. If the areas under the

curves are in the ratio 16 : 1, the value of

temperature T is :-

(1) 32,000 KE

l

l

T K

2000 K (2) 16,000 K

(3) 8,000 K

(4) 4,000 K

103. In Young double slit experiment, when two light

waves form third minimum, they have –

(1) Phase difference of 3p

(2) Phase difference of

p

(3) Path difference of 3l

(4) Path difference of

l

104. A 20 kg block is initially at rest. A 70 N force is

required to set the block in motion. After the

motion a force of 60 N is applied to keep the block

moving with constant speed. The co-efficient of static friction is :-

(1) 0.6 (2) 0.52 (3) 0.44 (4) 0.35

105. Two wires of same diameter having length x1 and

x2 and specific resistance r1 and r

2 respectively

are connected in series. Effective resistivity of

combination will be –

(1)r r

+

+ (2)r r

-

+

(3)r r

-

-(4)

r r

+

+106. In an adiabatic expansion of a gas initial and final

temperatures are T1 and T

2 respectively, then the

change in internal energy of the gas is:-

(1) 2 1

R(T T )

1-

g -(2) 1 2

R(T T )

1-

g -

(3) R(T1 – T

2) (4) Zero

107. A particle performs uniform circular motion with

an angular momentum J. If the frequency of the

particle's motion is doubled and kinetic energy is

halved, then angular momentum becomes –(1) 2 J (2) 4 J (3)

(4)

101. ,d cYc ij 100W, 230V fy[kk gqvk gSA fn fo|qr lIykbZ oksYVs t fxjdj 115V gks tkrk gS rc 20 feUkV es a cYc kjk mRiUu Å"eh vkS j çdk'k ÅtkZ dk dqy eku D;k gksxk –

(1)20 J (2) 30 KJ (3) 100 J (4) 30 J

102. layXu fp es a nks fofHkUu rkiks a ij d d`".k fi.M ds Lis DVªeh ÅtkZ kuRo forj.k El dks n'kkZ;k x;k gSA fn oØks a ls f?kjs ks=Qyksa dk vuqikr 16 : 1 gS rks rki T dk eku gS :-

(1) 32,000 KE

l

l

T K

2000 K (2) 16,000 K

(3) 8,000 K

(4) 4,000 K

103. ;ax ds f fLyV ç;ks x esa nks çdk'k rjaxas r`rh fufEu"B

cukrh gS rks gks xk –

(1) 3p dk dykUrj

(2)

p dk dykUrj

(3) 3l dk iFkkUrj

(4)

l dk iFkkUrj

104. fojkekoLFkk es a fLFkr 20 kg nzO;eku ds CykWd dks xfr izkjEHk djkus ds fy;s 70 N cy dh vko';drk gks rh gSA blds i'pkr~ CykWd dk s fu;r osx ls xfr ds fy;s

60 N cy vko';d gSA LFkS frd k"kZ.k xq.kkad dk eku gS :-(1) 0.6 (2) 0.52 (3) 0.44 (4) 0.35

105. x1 rFkk x2 yEckbZ;ks a vkS j Øe'k r1 rFkk r

2 çfrjks/kdrk

okys leku O;kl ds nks rkjks a dks Js .khØe es a tksM+k tkrk

gS a bl la;ks tu dh rqY çfrjks/kdrk gks xh –

(1)r r

+

+ (2)r r

-

+

(3)r r

-

-(4)

r r

+

+106. fdlh xS l ds ¼ks"e izlkj.k es a izkjfEHkd rkieku o vfUre

rkieku Øe'k T1 o T2

gS rks xS l dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ es a ifjorZu gks rk gS :-

(1) 2 1

R(T T )

1-

g -(2) 1 2

R(T T )

1-

g -

(3) R(T1 – T2) (4) 'kwU

107. ,d d.k J dks.kh laos x ls le:i o`Ùkh xfr djrk gSA ;fn d.k dh xfr dh vko`fÙk nqxquh oa xfrt ÅtkZ vkèkh dj nh tk;s rks dks.kh laos x gksxk –

(1) 2 J (2) 4 J (3)

(4)

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108. A rod of length L has non-uniformly distributed

mass along its length. For its mass per unit length

varying with distance x from one end as

(L +

x). Find the position of centre of mass of thissystem.

(1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) 3L/9 (4) 5L/9

109. Which of them is application of thermo-electric

effect of current :-

(1) Thermopile

(2) Thermo-electric refrigerator

(3) Thermo-electric thermometers

(4) All of them

110. A converging lens forms a real image I on its optic

axis. A rectangular glass slab of refractive indexµ and thickness t is introduced between the lens

and I. I will move :-

(1) Away from the lens by t(µ – 1)

(2) Towards the lens by t(µ – 1)

(3) Away from the lens by t(1 –1

m)

(4) Towards the lens by t(1 –1

m)

111. A simple pendulum of length l has a maximumangular displacement q, The maximum kinetic

energy of the bob of mass m is :–

(1) mgl (2) mgl(1 – cosq)

(3) mgl sinq (4) 0.5 mgl

112. A body crosses the topmost point of a vertical

circle with critical speed. What will be its

centripetal acceleration when the string is

horizontal ?

(1) g (2) 2g (3) 3g (4) 6g

113. X-ray can be made harder by :-(1) Increasing the potential difference between

cathode and anti-cathode

(2) Decreasing the potential difference between

cathode and anti-cathode

(3) Increasing the current through filament

(4) Decreasing the current through filament

114. A thin lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal

length of 15 cm in air. When the lens is placed

in a medium of refractive index 4/3, its focal

length will become :-(1) 30 cm (2) 45 cm (3) 60 cm (4) 75 cm

108. L yEckb Z dh d NM dk nzO;eku bldh yEckbZ ds vuqfn'k vleku i ls forjhr gSA NM dk izfr dkad yEckbZ dk

nz O;eku d fljs ls x nwjh ij

(L + x) ls fn;k tkrk

gSA NM ds nzO;eku ds Unz dh fLFkfr gks xh -

(1) L/4 (2) L/2 (3) 3L/9 (4) 5L/9

109. fuEu es a ls dkS u kkjk ds rkih fo|qr izHkko ds vuqiz;ks x gS (1) Fkeks Zikby (2) rki&fo|qr iz'khrd (3) rki fo|qr rkiekih (4) mijksDr lHkh

110. ,d vfHklkjh ys Ul okLrfod izfrfcEc viuh v{k ij cuk

jgk gSA d dk¡p dh ifêdk ftldh eks Vkb Z t rFkk viorZukad µ gS izfrfcEc rFkk ys Ul ds chp j[kh tkrh gS rks iz frfcEc foLFkkfir gks xk (1) ys Ul ls nw j t(µ – 1)

(2) ys Ul dh rjg t(µ – 1)

(3) ys Ul ls nw j t(1 –1

m)

(4) ys Ul dh rjg t(1 –1

m)

111. ,d l yEckbZ ds ljy yksyd dk vf/kdre dks. kh foLFkkiu q gSA rc m æO;eku ds xksyd dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ gS (1) mgl (2) mgl(1 – cosq)

(3) mgl sinq (4) 0.5 mgl

112. ,d oLrq m/oZry esa o`Ùkh xfr djrh gS rks mPpre fcUnq dks g oLrq Økafrd pky ls ikj djrh gSA tc jLlh kS frt gks tkrh gS rks d.k dk vfHkdsfUnz Roj.k gks xk

(1) g (2) 2g (3) 3g (4) 6g

113. X- fdj.kksa dks dBksj cuk;k tk ldrk gS:-(1) dSFkksM o aVh&dSFkks M ds chp foHkokUrj c kdj

(2) dSFkksM o aVh&dSFkksM ds chp foHkokUrj kVkdj

(3) rUrq kkjk c kdj

(4) rUrq kkjk kVkdj

114. ,d ysUl ftldh Qks dl nwjh 15 cm gS rFkk µ = 1.5 gSA ;fn bls ikuh es a (µ = 4/3) j[kk tk rks bldh Qks dl nwjh D;k gks tk,xh

(1) 30 cm (2) 45 cm(3) 60 cm (4) 75 cm

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115. A wire 1m long and having a density of

9 × 103 kg/m

3 is stretched by 4.9 × 10

–4 m

and tied between two rigid supports. If

Y = 9 × 1010

N/m2, the minimum frequency of

transverse vibrations in the string will be -(1) 20 Hz (2) 75 Hz (3) 35 Hz (4) 105 Hz

116. The distance between two particles is decreasing

at the rate of 6 m/sec. When they move in opposite

directions. If these particles travel with same

speeds and in the same direction, then the

separation increase at the rate of 4 m/sec. The

particles have speeds as

(1) 5 m/sec; 1 m/sec (2) 4 m/sec; 1 m/sec


117. A sensor is exposed for time t to a lamp of powerP placed at a distance l. The sensor has an opening

that is 4d in diameter. Assuming all energy of the

lamp is given off as light, the number of photons

entering the sensor if the wavelength of light is

l is :- (l >> d)

(1)l

l

2

2

P d t

hc(2)

l

l

2

2

4P d t

hc (3)

l

l

2

2

P d t

4hc (4)

l

l

2

2

P d t

16hc

118. In a Young's double-slit experiment, let S1 and

S2 be the two slits, and C be the centre of the

screen. If < S1CS2 = q and l is the wavelength,the fringe width will be :-

(1)l

q(2) lq (3)

2l

q(4)

2

l

q

119. Air is blown at the mouth of a tube (length equal

to 25 cm and diameter equal to 2 cm) open at both

ends as shown in the diagram. Velocity of sound

is 330 metres per second. The sound emitted by

the tube will have all the frequencies in the group-

(Ignore end correction)

(1) 660, 1320, 2640 Hz

(2) 660, 1000, 330 Hz

(3) 302, 664, 1320 Hz

(4) 330, 990, 1690 Hz

120. A projectile is projected such that its range and

maximum height are equal. If its initial speed is

u then its maximum height is :-

(1)u

g

2

2

(2)8

17

2u

g

(3)4

17

2u

g

(4)u

g

2

17

115. 1 m yEck o 9 × 103 km/m3 ?kuRo dk rkj

4.9 × 10–4 m ds kjk khapk tkrk gS vkS j nks n` fljksa ds

e cka/kk tkrk gSA fn y = 9 × 1010 N/m2 gks rks Mks jh

es a vuqizLFk dEiu dh U;wure vko`fr gks xh

(1) 20 Hz (2) 75 Hz (3) 35 Hz (4) 105 Hz

116. nks d.k ksa ds chp dh nwjh 6 ehVj@lS d.M dh nj ls de

gks jgh gS tc os foijhr fn'kkvksa esa xfr'khy gS ijUrq

;fn nksuks a d.k mlh pky ls leku fn'kk esa xfr djsa rks

muds chp dh nwjh 4 ehVj@lS d.M dh nj ls c rh gSA

d.kks a dh pky gksxhA(1) 5 m/sec; 1 m/sec (2) 4 m/sec; 1 m/sec


117. ,d las lj lalwpd t le ds fy;s l nwjh ij fLFkr P 'kfDr ds ysEi kjk izdkf'kr fd;k tkrk gSA lalwpd ds }kjd dk O;kl 4d gSA g ekurs gq;s dh yS Ei dh lkjh ÅtkZ izdk'k ds i es a mRlftZr gksrh gS ls alj es a izos 'k djus okys QksVkWuks a dh la k fn l izdk'k rjaxnS Z gks gks xh :-(l >> d)

(1)l

l

2

2

P d t

hc(2)

l

l

2

2

4P d t

hc (3)

l

l

2

2

P d t

4hc (4)

l

l

2

2

P d t

16hc

118. ;ax ds f}fLyV iz;ksx esa S1 o S2

nks fLyV gSA C ins Z dk

ds Uæ gSA fn < S1CS2 = q rFkk l izdk'k dh rjaxnS Z

gS rks fÝUt dh pkS M+kbZ D;k gks xh

(1)l

q(2) lq (3)

2l

q(4)

2

l

q

119. nks uksa fljksa ij kqyh gqbZ d uyh yEckbZ = 25 ls eh rFkk

O;kl = 2 ls eh ds eqag ij ok;q Qawdh tkrh gSA uyh kjk

mRlftZr ofu es a fdl xzqi es a lfEefyr lHkh vko fÙk;k¡ gks xh

(fljs la'kks/ku dks u ekusaA

(1) 660, 1320, 2640 gRtZ (2) 660, 1000, 330 gRtZ

(3) 302, 664, 1320 gRtZ

(4) 330, 990, 1690 gRtZ

120. ,d d.k dks bl izdkj izsf{kr fd;k tkrk gS dh bldh ijkl o vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ leku gSA fn bldh izkjfEHkd pky u gS rks izkIr vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ gksxh

(1)u

g

2

2

(2)8

17

2u

g

(3)4

17

2u

g

(4)u

g

2

17

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question

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MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180

These questions consist of two statements each,

printed as Assertion and Reason.While

answering these Questions you are required to

choose any one of the following four responses.

A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the

Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason

is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False

D. If both Assertion & Reason are false.

121. Assertion :- Rates of nitration of benzene and

hexadeutro benzene are different.

Reason :- C–H bond is stronger then C–D bond.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. Assertion :- Standard emf of hydrogen electrode

is assigned to 0 volt at all temperature.

Reason :- SHE consist of platinum electrode

coated with platinum black

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. Assertion :- Isobutanal does not give iodoform

test.

Reason :- It does not have a-hydrogen.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. Assertion :- Cp is always greater than C

v for

gas.

Reason :- At 4ºC for H2O C

p < C

v.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. Assertion :- Styrene on reaction with HBr gives

1-Bromo-1-phenylethane.

Reason :- Benzyl radical is more stable than alkyl

radical.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. Assertion :- pH of solution of CH3COOH

decreases on addition of sodium acetate.

Reason :- Sodiam acetate suppresses the degree

of dissociation of CH3COOH by common ion

effect.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. Asser tion :- Phenol is stronger acid than

alcohols.

Reason :- Phenol is stabilized by resonance

where as alcohol are not.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

iz'u lak 121 ls 180 ds y unsZ'k

izR;sd iz'u esa dFku rFkk j. n x;s gSaA iz'uksa

dks gy djrs le uhps n x pkjks a odYiks a es a

ls lgh odYi dks pq u,A

A. ; n dFku

oa

j. nksuksa lR

gaS rFkk

j. dFku

dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k gSA

B. ; n dFku oa j. nksuksa lR gaS ys du j. dFku

dk lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA

C. ; n dFku lR gS ys du j. vlR gSA

D. dFku o j. nksuksa vlR gSaA

121. F u :- csUthu rFkk gs DlkM~;wVjks cs Uthu dh ukbVªhdj.k dh njsa fHkUu gSA

j. :- C–D vkcU/k dh rq yuk es a C–H vkcU/k izcy gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

122. F u :- gkbMªks tu bys DVªksM dk fo- ok- cy 0 V gj rki ij ekuk tkrk gSA j. :- ekud gkbMªkstu bysDVªkWM IysfVue bys DVªkWM dk cuk gks rk gS ftl ij IysfVue Cysd dh irZ gks rh gS(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

123. F u :- vkblksC;wVs uS y vk;ksMksQkeZ ijh{k.k ugha nsrk gSA j. :- bles a a–H ugha gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

124. F u :- xS l ds fy Cp dk eku Cv

ls ges 'kk vf/kd gks rk gS j. :- 4°C rki ij H2O ds fy Cp < Cv gks rk gS(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

125. F u :- LVkbjhu ij HBr dh vfHkfØ;k 1- czkseks-1- Qsfuy ,Fks u ns rh gSA j. :- csf Uty ewyd sfYdy ewyd dh rqyuk esavf/kd LFkk;h gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

126. F u :- lks Mh;e s lhVs V feykus ij CH3COOH dh pH

?kVrh gSA j. :- levk;u izHkko ds dkj.k lksMh;e slhV sV CH

3COOH dh fo;kstu dh ek=k dks de djrk

gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

127. F u :- Qhuk Wy Ydk sg k Wy ls i zcy vEy gSA j. :- QhukWy vuq ukn ds dkj.k LFkk;h gS tcfd Ydks gkWy ughaA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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128. Assertion :- For every equilibrium reaction, if

K=1 then each of products and reactants are

present in equal amount

Reason :- K = 1 for equilibrium indicates that

50% reaction is completed.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. Assertion :- In Lucas test, 3º alcohol react

immediately.

Reason :- An equimolar mixture of anhydrous

ZnCl2 & conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. Assertion :- Transition metals form complexes.

Reason :- Transition metals have unpaired

electrons.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. Assertion :- Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Reason :- It has glycosidic linkage.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. Assertion :- In froth floatation process sodium

ethyl xanthate can be used as collector.

Reason :- Sulphide ores are soluble in water.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. Assertion :- Benzyl bromide when kept in acetonewater it produces benzyl alcohol.

Reason :- The reaction follows SN2 mechanism.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. Asser tion :- Ionic compounds tend to be

non-volatile.

Reason :- Intermolecular forces in these

compounds are weak.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. Assertion :- Volume of one equivalent of oxygen

gas is 5.6 lit at NTP. Reason :- 1 mol O

2 contains 2 g equivalent.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. Assertion :- Covalent bond in hydrogen molecule

is non-polar.

Reason :- Most of the covalent bonds are polar.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. Assertion :- Calcium phosphate will have higher

vant hoff factor than glucose.

Reason :- Because Ca3(PO

4)2 will give higher

ion.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

128. F u :- izR;sd lkE vfHkfØ;k ds fy fn K = 1 gS rk s lH kh mRi kn o vfHk de Zd dh ek=k cjk cj gks xh

j. :- K = 1 n'kkZrk gS dh lkE vfHkfØ;k 50% iw.kZ

gks pqdh gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

129. F u :- Y;wdkl ijh{k.k es a 3º YdksgkWy rRdky fØ;k djrs gSA

j. :- lkUæ HCl rFkk futZy ZnCl2 dk leeks yj feJ.k

gh Y;wdkl vfHkdeZd dgykrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

130. F u :- laØe.k kkrq,¡ ladqy cukrh gSA

j. :- laØe.k kkrq,¡ v;qfXer bys DVªkWu j[krh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

131. F u :- lqØkst d vuvipk;d 'kdZjk gSA

j. :- blesa Xyk;dksflMhd cU/ku gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

132. F u :- >kx Iyou fof/k es a lks fM;e fFky tS UFksV dks laxzkgd (Collector) ds i es a mi;ksx dj ldrs gS aA j. :- lYQkbM v;Ld ty es a foys gks rs gS aA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

133. F u :- cs afty czks ekbM dks lhVks u ty es a j[kus ij cs afty ,YdksgkWy curk gSA j. :- vfHkfØ;k SN2 fØ;kfof/k kjk gksrh gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

134. F u :- vk;fud kS fxd vok"i'khy dh rjQ vxzlj gks rs gS aA

j. :- bu kS fxdksa es a vUrjkf.od cy nqcZy gks rs gS aA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

135. F u :- 1 rqY;kadh vkWDlhtu xS l dk vk;ru NTP ij

5.6 yhVj gks rk gSA j. :- 1 eks y O2 esa 2 xzke rqY;kad mifLFkr gksrs gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

136. F u :- gkbMªkstu v.kq es a lgla;kstd ca/k v/kzqoh gSA

j. :- vf/kdrj lgla ;ks td ca/k kzqoh gks rs gS aA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

137. F u :- dS fYle QkLQs V dk okW.V gkWQ xq.kd dk eku Xywdks t ls vf/kd gskrk gSA j . :- D; k sa fd Ca

3(PO

4)

2 vf/kd vk;u nsrk

gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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138. Assertion :- The solubility of MgF2 is more than

that of MgCl2.

Reason :- As MgCl2 has less lattice energy than

MgF2.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D139. Assertion :- For water Kƒ is higher than Kb.

Reason :- Kƒ and K

b both depends on nature of

solvent.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. Assertion :- He and Be both have the same outer

electronic configuration like ns2 type.

Reason :- Both are chemically inert.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. Assertion :- Alcohol production by yeast during

anaerobic conditions is essential for energy

production.

Reason :- Alcohol is the instant source of energy

for yeast.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. Assertion :– By shoot tip culture we can produce

virus free plant.

Reason :– Virus can not affected shoot tip.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. Assertion :- Tertiary or quaternary protein

structure is essential for functioning of an

enzyme.

Reason :- Tertiary or quaternary protein structure

helps to create active site.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. Assertion :– Smootner crop do not allow weed

to grow arround it.

Reason :– By root of smootner crop plant toxic

chemical produce.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. Assertion :- Deuteromycetes is called as imperfact

fungi.

Reason :- Asexual and vegetative phases of

Deuteromycetes are known.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. Assertion :– The gene pool of a population is

static.

Reason :– The lose of genes from gene pool is

called genetic erosion.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

138. F u :- Mg F2 dh foy s;rk MgCl

2 ls vf/kd

gSA

j. :- MgCl2 dh tkyd ÅtkZ MgF

2 ls de gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D139. F u :- ikuh ds fy K

ƒ dk eku Kb

ls vf/kd gSA j. :- K

ƒ vkS j K

b nks uks gh foyk;d dh izd`fr ij fuHkZj

djrs gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

140. F u :- He rFkk Be nks uks a ns2 rjg dk leku ckg~ bysDVªkWu foU;kl gSA j. :- nks uks a jklk;fud i ls vfØ gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

141. F u :-

vok;oh

ifjfLFkfr;ks a es a

hLV

kjk

Ydks gkWy mRiknu ÅtkZ mRiknu gs rq vfuok;Z gksrk gSA

j. :- ,Ydksg kWy hLV ds fy Åtk Z dk æqr L=ksr

gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

142. F u :– çjksg f'k[kkxz lao/kZu kjk ge okbjl eqä ikni mRikfnr dj ldrs gS aA j. :– okbjl çjksg f'k[kkxz dks laØfer ugha djrkA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

143. F u :- ,Utkbe dh fØ;k'khyrk ds fy izks VhUl dk r`rh;d vFkok prqFkZd cukoV es a gks uk vfuok;Z gks rk gSA

j. :- r`rh;d vFkok prqFkZd cukoV lfØ LFkyks dks

cukus es a lgk;d gks rh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

144. F u :– Smootner crop vius vkl ikl kjirokj dks o`f¼ ugha djus ns rhA j. :– Smootner crop ds ikniks a dh tM+kas kjk fo"kS ys jlk;u mRiék fd;s tkrs gaSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

145. F u :- M~;wVsjksekb flV ht dks vi w.kZ dod Hk h dgrs gS aA j. :- M~ ;w Vs jksekbflVht dh vyS afxd o dkf;d voLFkk;s a gh Kkr gS aA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

146. F u :– fdlh le"V h dk thu iwy fu;r gk sr k gSA j. :– thu iwy ls thu dk foyqIr gks uk vkuqoka f'kd

vijnu dgykrk gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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147. Assertion :- Pteridophytes show origin of seed

habit.

Reason :- Pteridophytes are first successful land.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. Assertion :- The evolution of the flower and itspollinator species are tightly linked with one

another there is a tight one to one relationship.

Reason :- The mutually beneficial system is a safe

guarded against cheaters.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. Assertion :- In birds, forelimb contain three

nailless digits where as hind limb have four digits

with Nails.

Reason :- Birds are feathered bipeds.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. Assertion :- Identification and enumeration of

plant and animal species of an ecosystem gives

its species composition.

Reason :- Vertical distribution of different

species occupying different levels is called

stratification.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. Assertion :- Antibiotics produced by microbes are

regarded as one of the most significant discoveries

of the twentieth century.

Reason :- Fleming, Chain & Florey were awarded

the nobel prize in 1945, for penicillin discovery.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. Assertion :– Thyroxin increases blood sugar, act

as a diabetogenic hormone.

Reason :– In adult woman hypothyroidism may

cause irregular menstrual cycle.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D153. Assertion :- DNA from every tissue from an

individual show the different degree of

polymorphism.

Reason :- Polymorphisms are non-inheritable

from parents to children.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. Assertion :– Reflex action is involuntary response

to stimulus to peripheral nervous system.

Reason :– Reflex action has no adverse effect.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

147. F u :- VsfjMksQkbV~l cht izd`fr dk mn~Hko n'kkZrs gS aA

j. :- VsfjMks QkbV~l izFke lQy LFkyh ikni gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

148. F u :- iq"i vkS j blds ijkx.kdkjh tkfr;ksa ds fodkl ,d&nwljs ls etcwrh ls tqM+s gq gS aA

j. :- ijLij ykHkdkjh ra kks[ks ckth ls j{kk ds fy

gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

149. F u :- if{k;ks a esa vxzHkqtk es a rhu vaxqfy;k fcuk uk[kqu ds rFkk i'p Hkqtk pkj vaxqfy;k uk[kqu qDr ik;h tkrh gSA

j. :- i{kh ia[k qDr ckbisM~l gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

150. F u :- ,d ifjra dh ikni oa izkf.k iztkfr;ks a dh igpku

,oa x.kuk bldh iztkfr;ks a ds lxaBu dks izdV djrk gSA

j. :- fofHkUu Lrjks a ij fofHkUu iztkfr;ksa ds Å/okZ/kj

forj.k dks LrjfoU;kl dgrs gS aA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

151. F u :- lw{ethoks a kjk mRiUu dh xbZ iz frtS fodks a dks

chloh a 'krkCnh dh lcls egRoiw. kZ kkstk s esa ls d ekuk tkrk gSA j. :- ¶ys feax pS u o ¶yks js dks is fuflyhu kks t ds fy

1945 dk uks csy iqjLdkj fn;k x;k FkkA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

152. F u :– Fkkbjk sDlhu jDr es a 'kDdj dks c kdj MkbfcVks ts fud gkWeksZu dh rjg dk;Z djrk gSA j. :– O;Ld fL ks a es a voFkkbjkWbMrk ekfld pØ dksvfu;fer dj ns rh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D153. F u :- fd lh O;fDr ds iz R;sd Ård ls

iz kIr DNA fHkUu&fHkUu Lrj dh cgq:irk iznf'kZr djrk gSA j. :- cgq:irk,¡ iS r`dks a ls cPpksa esa oa'kkuqxr ugha gks rh gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

154. F u :– ifj/kh raf=dk ra dks izkIr mn~nhiuks a ds fy vusfPNd izfrfØ;kvksa dks izfrorhZ fØ;k,sa dgk tkrk gSA j. :– izfrorhZ fØ;k dk gkfudkjd izHkko ugh

gks rk gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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155. Assertion :- Frogs are not seen during peak

summer and winter.

Reason :- Their body temperature varies with the

temperature of environment.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D156. Assertion :- Sometimes heart failure is called

congestive heart failure.

Reason :- Congestion of the lungs is one of the

main symptoms of this disease.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. Assertion :- Intine of pollen grain is made up of

pectocellulose.

Reason :- Intine is highly resistant layer.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. Assertion :- The descending limb of loop of Henleis permeable to water but almost impermeable to

electrolytes.

Reason :- The ascending limb of loop of Henle

is impermeable to water but allows transport of

electrolytes actively or passively.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. Assertion :– Normally in collateral vascular

bundles phloem is situated towards the inner

side. Reason :– In monocot stem cortex is

differentiated into hypodermis, general cortex &

endodermis.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. Assertion :- Scientifically it is correct to say that

the sex of baby is determined by the father and

not by the mother.

Reason :- Father is not haining any barr body.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. Assertion :- When wheatstone bridge is balanced

then current through cell depends on resistance of

galvanometer.

Reason :- At balanced condition current through

galvanometer is zero.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. Asser tio n :- Magnetic susceptability of

diamagnetic material in independent of

temperature.

Reason :- Diamagnetic character in due to

induction effect.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

155. F u :- xzh"e vkS j 'khr ½rq ds nkS jku es a d fn[kkbZ ugha ns rsA j. :- buds 'kjhj dk rki okrkoj.k ds rki ds vuqlkj ifjofrZr gks rk jgrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D156. F u dHkh&dHkh ân Qsy dks ^^ladqfyr ân kkr**

Hkh dgrs gS aA j. QsQM+ s es a ladqyu gks uk bl jks x dk eq y{k.k gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

157. F u ijkxd.k dh vUr%pks y is DVks ls yw yks t dh cuh gks rh gSA j. vUr%pks y vR;f/kd çfrjks/kh Lrj gksrk gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

158. F u

gs uys ds yw i dh vojks gh Hkq tk ty ds fy;s ikjxE gks rh gS ys fdu yo.kksa ds fy;s yxHkx vikjxE gks rh gSA

j. gsuys ds ywi dh vkjksgh Hkqtk ty ds fy;s

vikjxE gksrh gS ijUrq yo.kks a dk ifjogu lfØ k fuf"Ø

:i ls djrh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

159. F u lkekU;r laikf'Zod laogu iwyks a es a iks "kokg vUnj

dh vksj@rjQ fLFkr gks rk gSA

j. ,d chti=h rus es a oYdqV gkbiks MfeZl lkekU

oYdqV oa UMks MfeZl es a foHks fnr gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

160. F u :- oS Kkfud i ls g ckr lgh gS fd f'k'kq dk fyax firk ds kjk fu/kkZfjr fd;k tkrk gS u fd ek¡ kjk gks rk gSA j. :- firk dksbZ ckWj ckMh ugha j[krk gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

161. F u :- tc OghV LVks u ls rq larqfyr gks rk gS rc ls y ls izokfgr kkjk kkjkekih ds izfrjks/k ij fuHkZj djrh gSA

j. :- lar qyu dh fLFkfr esa kkjkekih esa kkjk 'kw U

gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

162. F u :- izfr pqEcdh inkFkZ dh pqEcdh izo`fÙk rki ij fuHkZj ugha djrh gSA

j. :- izfrpqEcdRo dk xq.k izsj.k izHkko ds dkj.k

gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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163. Assertion :– The time period of revolution of a

satellite close to surface of earth is smaller than

that revolving far from surface of earth.

Reason :–The square of time period of revolution

of a satellite is directly proportional to cube of itsorbital radius.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. Assertion :- Tangent galvonometer can not be

used at the Earth magnetic poles.

Reason :- Magnetic field is maximum at magnetic

poles.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. Assertion : The electric bulbs glows immediately

when switch is on. Reason : The drift velocity of electrons in a

metallic wire is very high.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. Assertion :- E produced by time varying B is

conservative.

Reason :- Electric field is conservative field.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. Assertion :– Electric field outside a steady current

carrying wire is zero.

Reason :– Net charge present on current carrying

wire is zero.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. Assertion : The condition of equilibrium for a

rigid body is -

Translational equilibrium : r

=å &

(i.e. sum of all external forces equal to zero.)

Rotational equilibrium :

r

t =å

(i.e. sum of all external torques equal to zero.)

Reason : A rigid body must be in equilibrium

under the action of two equal and opposite forces.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. As sertio n :- The graph between K.E. of

photoelectron and frequency of incident photon

does not pass through origin.

Reason :- Their is minimum frequency of photon

is required for PEE.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

163. F u :- i`Foh dh lrg ds fudV fLFkr d mixzg ds

ifjØe.k dk vkorZdky ml mixzg ls de gS tks fd i`Foh

dh lrg ls nwj ifjØe.k dj jgk gSA

j. :- ,d mixzg ds ifjØe.k ds vkorZdky dk oxZ

bldh d{kh f=T;k ds ku ds lekuqikrh gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

164. F u :- Li'kZT;k kkjkekih dks i`Foh ds pqEcdh kzqoksa ij dke es a ugha fy;k tk ldrk gSA

j. :- /kzqo ij pqEcdh ks lcls T;knk gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

165. F u tc fLop pkyw fd;k tkrk gS rks fo|qr cYc

'kh?kz pedrk gSA j. bysDVªkWuksa dk vuqxeu (drift) osx kkfRod rkj

es a cgqr vf/kd gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

166. F u :- cnyk gqvk pqEcdh ks tks E cukrk gS og laj{kh izo`fr dk gks rk gSA

j. :- E laj{kh ks gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

167. F u /kkjkokgh rkj ftles a fu;r kkjk cg jgh gS ds

ckgj fo|qr ks 'kwU gksrk gSA

j. /kkjkokgh rkj ij dqy vkos 'k 'kwU gksrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

168. F u n` oLrq dh larqyu ds fy;s 'krs Z gS a

LFkkukUrjh larqyu r

=å

(lHkh cká cyks a dk ksx 'kwU gksrk gSA

?kw.kZu larqyu rt =å

(lHkh cká vk?kw.kksZ dk ksx 'kwU gksrk gSA

j. nks leku oa foijhr cyks a dh fØ;k ds v/khu

,d n` oLrq larqyu esa jgrh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

169. F u :- QksVk s bysDVªkWu dh xfrt ÅtkZ rFkk vkifrr izdk'k dh vko`fÙk ds chp dk xzkQ ewy fcUnq ls ugha xqtjrkA

j. :- iz dk'k fo|qr izHkko ds fy Qks Vksu dh d U;wure

vko`fÙk vko';d gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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170. Assertion :- For an oscillating simple pendulum,

the tension in the string is maximum at the mean

position and minimum at the extreme position.

Reason :- The acceleration of oscillating bob in

simple harmonic motion is maximum at the meanposition and is minimum at extreme position.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. Assertion :- Minimum wave length of X-ray can

be altered by changing the target material.

Reason :- Maximum energy loss in K. E. of

incoming electron changes with target material.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. Assertion :- A body under the action of several

forces will have zero acceleration, when the vectorsum of all the forces acting on it is zero.

Reason :- A body can have zero velocity and still

be accelerated.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. Assertion :- ClF6 is used for enrichment of nuclear

fuel.

Reason :- Uranium is put in the reactor in the form

of ClO2.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. Assertion :- If a particle moves in a circle

describing equal angle in equal times, its velocity

vector changes in direction.

Reason :- In uniform circular motion both

acceleration and velocity changes.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. Assertion :- The internal energy of a real gas is

function of both, temperature and volume.

Reason :- Internal kinetic energy depends on

temperature and internal potential energy depends

on volume.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. Assertion :- A particle is moving in a circle with

uniform speed V. In moving from a point to

another diametrically opposite point, the

momentum changes by 2mv.

Reason :- When a mass is rotating in a plane about

a fixed point, its angular momentum is directed

along radius.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. F u :- ,d nksyu djrs ljy yksyd dh jLlh es a ruko e koLFkk esa vf/kdre rFkk pje voLFkk es a U;wure gks rk gSA

j. :- ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgs nksyd ij dk;Zjr Roj.k

ek koLFkk esa vf/kdre rFkk pje voLFkk es a U;wure gksrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

171. F u :- X-ray dh U;wure rjaxnS Z dks y kkrq cny dj cnyh tk ldrh gSA

j. :- vkifrr bysDVªkWu dh xfrt ÅtkZ es a vf/kdre gkfu dk eku y kkrq ij fuHkZj djrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

172. F u :- vus d cykas ds v/khu dk;Zjr d oLrq dk Roj.k

'kwU gks xk tc oLrq ij dk;Zjr lHkh cyks dk lfn'k ks x 'kwU gksA

j. :- oLrq dk osx 'kw U gksus ij Hkh mles a Roj.k gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

173. F u :- ukfHkdh b ku ds lao/kZu ds fy ClF6 iz;qDr

djrs gSA

j. :- Hkêh es a wjs fu;e dks ClO2 ds i esa iz;qDr djrs

gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

174. F u :- ;fn dksbZ d.k fdlh o`Ùk es a leku le es a leku dks.k cukrk gS rks blds osx lfn'k dh fn'kk cnyrh jgrh gSA

j. :- le:i o`Ùkkdkj xfr es a Roj.k oa os x nks uksa cnyrs gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

175. F u :- ,d okLrfod xS l dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ blds rki ,oa vk;ru nks uksa dk Qyu gS

j. :- vkUrfjd xfrt ÅtkZ dsoy rki ij fuHkZ j djrh

gS oa vkUrfjd fLFkfrt ÅtkZ dsoy vk;ru ij fuHkZj djrh gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

176. F u :- ,d d.k le:i pky ls o`Ùkh xfr dj jgk gSA ;fn O;klr vfHkeq[k d.k d fcUnq ls nwljs fcUnq rd tkrk gS rks laos x es a ifjorZu 2mv gksxkA

j. :- tc dks bZ æO;eku fdlh ry esa d fuf'pr fcUnq

ds ifjr kwerk gS rks bldk dks.kh laos x f=T;k ds vuqfn'k

gks rk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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177. Assertion :-In adiabatic compression, the internal

energy and temperature of the system get

decreased.

Reason :- The adiabatic compression is a fast

process.(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. Assertion :- In an elastic collision of two billiards

balls, the total K.E. is conserved during the short

time of collision of the balls. (When they are in

contact)

Reason :- Energy spent against friction does not

follow the law of conservation of energy.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. Assertion :- When light enters in medium from

vacuum it's velocity changes. Reason :- Change in velocity of light in medium

is due to change in wavelength of light.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. Assertion :- It is difficult to move a cycle along

the road with its breakes on.

Reason :- Sliding friction is greater than rolling

friction.

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. The unit of measurement of Ozone concentration

is :-(1) Decibel (2) mm of Hg

(3) Dobson (4) Hertz

182. Choose the incorrect pair :-

(1) Musk deer – Kedarnath National Park

(Uttarakhand)

(2) Elephant – Periyar National Park

(Kerala)

(3) Lion – Sariska National Park

(Rajasthan)

(4) Rhinoceros – Kaziranga National Park(Assam)

183. Which of the following has been named as

National Aquatic Animal of India ?

(1) Whale

(2) Dugong

(3) Ganges river Dolphin

(4) Crocodile

184. Satellite DNA is a useful tool in :-

(1) Forensic science

(2) Organ transplantation(3) Sex determination

(4) Transgenesis

177. F u :- :¼ks"e laihM+ u es a d fudk dh vkUrfjd ÅtkZ ,oa rki kVrs gSA

j. :- :¼ks "e laihM+u d rst izfØ;k gS

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

178. F u :- nks fcfy;MZ xs anks ds izR;kLFk VDdj es a xs anks a ds vYi le es a VDdj ds nkS jku dqy xfrt ÅtkZ lajf{kr jgrh gSA

j. :- ?k"kZ .k ds fo:¼ kpZ ÅtkZ ÅtkZ laj{k.k fu;e

dk ikyu ugha gksrk gSA

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

179. F u :- tc fuokZr ls ek es a izdk'k tkrk gS rks izdk'k

dk os x cny tkrk gSA j. :- ek es a tkus ij izdk'k dk rjaxnS Z cny tkrk gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

180. F u :- czs d yxkdj lkbfdy dks lM+d ds vuqfn'k eksM+ uk dfBu gks rk gS j. :- fQlyu k"kZ.k dk eku kw.khZ k"kZ.k ls vf/kd gksrk gSA(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

181. vkstksu lkUærk dks ekius okyh bdkbZ gS

(1) Ms flcy (2) mm of Hg

(3) MksClu (4) gVZ~t

182. vlR qXe dk p;u djsa (1) dLrwjh e`x – dsnkjukFk jk"Vªh m|ku

( mÙkjk[k.M )(2) gkFkh – isfj;kj jk"Vªh m|ku

( ds jy )

(3) 'ks j – lfjLdk jk"Vªh m|ku ( jktLFkku )

(4) xS aMk – dkthjaxk jk"Vªh m|ku (vle )

183. fuEufyf[kr es a ls fdldks Hkkjr dk jk"Vªh tyh izk.kh uke fn;k x;k gS ?

(1) Ogs y (2) M~;wxks ax (3) xaxk unh dh MkWfYQu (4) exjePN

184. vuq"kaxh Mh- u- - d mi;ksxh lk/ku gS (1) U;k;kyf;d foKku es a(2) vax izR;kjks i.k es a(3) fyax fu/kkZj.k es a(4) VªkUlts us fll es a

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185. The cause of minamata disease is :-

(1) Deficiency of Hg

(2) Excess of Hg

(3) Deficiency of Cd

(4) Excess of Cd186. Which is called as triple vaccine ?

(1) BCG (2) DPT

(3) TAB (4) All the above

187. DOTS programme concerns with :-

(1) Green house effect

(2) Protection of Ozone

(3) Eradication of TB

(4) Treatment of AIDS

188. The gases associated with green house effect:-

(1) CO2, N2O and CFCl3(2) CO, NO and Freon

(3) Argon, Crypton and Neon

(4) O3, O

2 and CO

189. A Prime Minister who acted twice without being

elected as the real Prime Minister was :-

(1) V. P. Singh (2) Morarji Desai

(3) Gulzarilal Nanda (4) Chandrashekhar

190. Which was the first Indian cinemascope film?

(1) Kaagaz ke Phool

(2) Harishchandra

(3) 36, Chowringhee lane

(4) Gandhi

191. Who was the first woman judge of Supreme Court

of India ?

(1) Leila Seth

(2) M. Fathima Beevi

(3) Anna Chandi

(4) Anna George Malhotra

192. The Governor - General of India who initiated theintroduction of English in India was :-

(1) Lord Curzon (2) Lord Ripon

(3) Lord Bentinck (4) Lord Dalhousie

193. When was the Capital of British India changed

from Calcutta to Delhi ?

(1) 1911 (2) 1932

(3) 1935 (4) 1947

194. The book "Runs and Ruins" has been written

by:-

(1) Sunil Gavaskar (2) Kapil Dev

(3) Alan Border (4) Ravi Shastri

185. feukekVk jks x dk dkj.k gS (1) Hg dh deh (2) Hg dh vf/kdrk (3) Cd dh deh

(4) Cd dh vf/kdrk 186. fuEu es a ls fdldks fVªiy Vhdk dgrs gS a ?

(1) BCG (2) DPT

(3) TAB (4) mijks ä lHkh 187. DOTS izksxzke dk laca/k gS :-

(1) gfjr x`g izHkko ls(2) vks tks u la j{k.k ls(3) {k jksx mUewyu ls(4) AIDS ds mipkj ls

188. gfjr x`g izHkko ls lEcfU/kr xS ls a gS

(1) CO2, N2O rFkk CFCl3(2) CO, NO rFkk Freon

(3) vkxZu fØIVkWu oa fuvkWu (4) O

3, O

2 rFkk CO

189. fuEu es a ls og O;fä dkS u gS ftUgks aus iz/kkuea=h in ds fy;s fuokZ fpr gq fcuk Hkh nks ckj iz/kkuea =h ds i es a dk;Z fd;k Fkk\(1) oh- ih- flag (2) eks jkjth nslkbZ (3) xqytkjh yky uUnk (4) pUæ'ks[kj

190. izFke Hkkjrh flusekLdks i fQYe dkS ulh Fkh ?

(1) dkxt ds Qwy

(2) gjh'kpUæ (3) 36, pkS jaxh ysu (4) xka/kh

191. Hkkjr ds loks ZPp U;k;ky dh izFke efgyk U;k;k/kh'k dkS u Fkh ?

(1) yhyk ls B

(2) ,e- Qkfrek choh (3) vUuk pkaMh (4) vUuk tkWtZ eYgks=k

192. Hkkjr ds fdl xouZj tujy us Hkkjr es a vaxzs th dh 'kq:vkr dh Fkh \(1) ykWMZ dtZu (2) ykWMZ fjikWu

(3) ykWMZ csfUVd (4) ykWMZ MygkS th 193. fczfV'k Hkkjr dh jkt/k kuh dks dydÙkk ls fnYyh dc

ifjofrZr fd;k x;k Fkk ?

(1) 1911 (2) 1932

(3) 1935 (4) 1947

194. " jUl aM bUl " iqLrd ds ys[kd dkS u gS :-

(1) lquhy xkoLdj (2) dfiy ns o (3) ,yu cks MZj (4) jfo 'kkL=h

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195. Which Veda is associated with Medicine ?

(1) Rig Veda (2) Yajur Veda

(3) Sama Veda (4) Atharva Veda

196. Who was the first Indian woman to receive the

Borlaug award ?(1) Dr. Madhuri Patel (2) Dr. Amrita Patel

(3) Medha Patkar (4) Kiran Bedi

197. Who was called "Asia's Light" in ancient India?

(1) Mahavira (2) Ashoka

(3) Buddha (4) Mohammad

198. The term 'Bogey' is associated with :-

(1) Hockey (2) Table Tennis

(3) Golf (4) Swimming

199. 'Beating Retreat' ceremony is associated with :-

(1) Republic day (2) Martyr's day(3) Labour day (4) Independence Day

200. Who is called a numismatist ?

(1) Collector of Stamps

(2) Collector of Coins

(3) Collector of Matchsticks

(4) Collector of Books

195. fuEu es a ls dkS ulk os n fpfdRlk 'kkL ls lEcfU/kr gS ?

(1) ½Xos n (2) ;tqos Zn (3) lkeos n (4) vFkoZ os n

196. cksjykWx iqjLdkj izkIr djus okyh izFke Hkkjrh efgyk dkS u

gS ?(1) MkW- ek/kqjh iVs y (2) MkW- ve`rk iVs y (3) es/kk ikVdj (4) fdju cs nh

197. izkphu Hkkjr es a fdls ^^,f'k;k dk izdk'k** dgk tkrk Fkk ?(1) egkohj (2) v'kks d (3) cq¼ (4) eks gEen

198. ^cksxh* 'kCn fdl ksy ls lEcfU/kr gS (1) gkWdh (2) Vscy Vsful (3) xks YQ (4) rS jkdh

199. ^chVhax fjVªhV* lekjks g fdlls lacaf/kr gS

(1) x.kra fnol (2) 'kghn fnol (3) Jfed fnol (4) Lora =rk fnol 200. Û;wfeLes fVLV* fdls dgk tkrk gS ?

(1) fVdVksa ds laxzkgd (2) flDdks a ds laxzkgd (3) ekfpl ds laxzkgd (4) iqLrdks a ds laxzkgd

Your moral duty

is that to prove ALLEN is ALLEN

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03–05–2012

MAJOR TEST : AIIMS


SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds y;s txg

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