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WORLD HISTORY

1. When did China start the Civil Services Examinations ? (1) 6A.D (2) 1905 (3) 1920 (4) 1949 2. The chief advocate of Fascism was : (1) Mussolini (2) Adolf Hitler (3) St. Simon (4) Robert Owen 3. Whose teachings inspired the French Revolution? (1) Locke (2) Rousseau (3) Hegel (4) Plato 4. D-Day is the day when : (1) Germany declared war on Britain (2) US dropped the atom bomb on Hiroshima (3) Allied Troops landed in Normandy (4) Germany surrendered to the allies 5. Who was the first Calipha (1) Sulaiman, the Great (2) Abu Bakr (3) Iman Hussain (4) Constantine

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6. From which country did the USA purchase Alaska to make it the 50th federating State ? (1) Canada (2) Britain (3) Russia (4) France 7. The war criminals of the II World War were put to trial in (1) Nuremburg (2) Peiter' sburg (3) Gettysburg (4) Peitsburg 8. The theory of "natural rights" was propounded by (1) Hobbes (2) Locke (3) Bentham (4) Marx

9. During 18th century who among the following philo-sophers said these famous words? "Man is born free but is every where in chains.” (1) Voltaire (2) Jack Dareda (3) Jean Jack Rousseau (4) Montesque 10. Arrange the following events in the chronological order: (a) Sir Winston Churchill dies (b) Alaska becomes the 49th State of the USA (c) Cliina and Pakistan sign frontier treaty (d) First earth satellite (Sputnik 1) launched by the USSR (1) (a) (b) (c) (d) (2) (d) (b) (c) (a) (3) (b) (c) (a) (d) (4) (c) (d) (b) (a)


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11. Which two countries were involved in a Hundred Years War? (1) Turkey and Austria (2) England and France (3) Palestine and Israel (4) Germany and Russia 12. Who were the three eminent statesmen who started the Non-aligned Movement ? (1) Jawaharlal Nehru, Anwar Sadat, Soekarno (2) Jawaharlal Nehru, Chou Enlai, Kwame Nkrumah (3) Jawaharlal Nehru, Fidel Castro, Marshal Tito (4) Jawaharlal Nehru, Gamal Abdul Nasser, Marshal Tito 13. Arrange the following event in the chronological order: (A) Birth of Prophet Mohamamed (B) Rise of Gupta dynasty in India (C) Completion of the Roman Colosseum (D) Peter the Great becomes the Czar of Russia (1) (C) , (B), (A), (D) (2) (A) , (C) (D), (B) (3) (B) , (D), (C), (A) (4) (D) , (A), (C), (B)

15. Who is known as the "Lady the Lamp" ? (1) Joan of Arc (2) Helen Keller (3) Florence Nightingale (4) Sarojini Naidu 16. 'Anti Seminsm' to Adolf Hitler meant (1) Anti Black policy (2) Anti Jewish policy (3) Anti Protestant policy (4) Anti German policy 17. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of what ?


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(1) Prophecy (2) Medicine (3) Love (4) Peace 18.In which country is Karabla, the holy city of Shia Muslims located? (1) Iran (2) Iraq (3) Jordan (4) Syria 19. The American Civil War saw the End of (1) Slavery (2) Landlordism (3) Monarchy (4) Apartheid 20. The city of “Tashkent” is located in (1) Uzbekistan (2) kazakhstan (3) Russia (4) Kyrgystan 21. Who is the Duchess of Cornwall ? (1) Diana (2) Camilla (3) Anne (4) Margaret 22. The ideology of fascism developed in (1) Germany (2) Japan (3) Italy (4) Russia 23. Who among the following is referred to as ‘Desert Fox’? (1) Lord Wavell (2) Gen.Eisenhover (3) Gen. Rommel (4) Gen. McArthur

24. Who were the Axis powers in world war-II ?


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(1) Poland, Japan, Germany (2) Italy, Japan, Britain (3) Germany, Italy, France (4) Germany, Italy, Japan

25. Independence movement of Vietnam was headed by (1) Ngo Dinh Diem (2) Zhou Enlai (3) Pol Pot (4) Ho Chi Minh 26. Which of the following group of thinkers influenced Fascism ? (1) Plato, Machiavelli and Herbet Spencer (2) Aristotle, St. Augustine and T.H. Green (3) Kant, Fichte, Hegel and Rosenberg (4) Karl Marx, Engels and Lenin 27. Who is called the "Greatest investigator of antiquity" ? (1) Aristotle (2) Darwin (3) Cuvier (4) Socrates 28. Herodotus is considered as the father of (1) History (2) Geography (3) Political Science (4) Philosophy 29. Who has given the statement "Man is born free but he is always in chain ?"


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(1) Locke (2) Rousseau (3) Bentham (4) Robert Mill 30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the Lists : List-1 (Names) a. Hobbes b. Rousseau c. Locke d. Hitler List-II (Events) 1. French Revolution 2. Glorious Revolution 3. Execution of Charles I 4. Second World War Code: (1) a b c d 2 3 1 4 (2) a b c d 3 1 2 4 (3) a b c d 1 4 2 3 (4) a b c d 1 2 4 3


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31. In U.S.A. the President is elected by (1) The Senate (2) Universal Adult Franchise (3) The House of Representatives (4) The Congress 32. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an (1) aristocracy (2) absolute monarchy (3) constitutional monarchy (4) polity 33. Social Contract theory was advocated by (1) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau (2) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel (3) Mill, Bentham and Plato (4) Locke, Mill and Hegel 34. Who is called the 'Father of History’? (1) Plutarch (2) Herodotus (3) Justin (4) Pliny 35. With the fall of which among the following, the French Revolution began? (1) Bastille (2) Communes (3) Jacobin Club (4) Pillnitz 36. Which one country is still governed by a monarch ? (1) Afghanistan (2) Iran (3) Iraq (4) Saudi Arabia


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37. The island of Corsica is associated with (1) Mussolini (2) Hitler (3) Napolean Bonaparte (4) Winston Churchill

38. In which of the following wars, were the French completely defeated by the English ? (1) Battle of Wandiwash (2) Battle of Buxar (3) Battle of Plassey (4) Battle of Adyar 39. Japan's Parliament is known as (1) Diet (2) Dail (3) Yuan (4) Shora

40. The currency of Thailand is (1) Bhat (2) Rupiah (3) Yuan (4) Yen 41. The declaration that Democracy is a Government 'of the people, by the people; for the people was made by (1) George Washington (2) Winston Churchill (3) Abraham Lincoln (4) Theodore Roosevelt


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42. Marx belonged to (1) Germany (2) Holland (3) France (4) Britain 43. The Industrial Revolution in England represented the climax of the transition from (1) slavery to feudalism (2) feudalism to capitalism (3) capitalism to socialism (4) socialism to market socialism

44. When did the Soviet Union disintegrate into 15 independent Republics ? (1) 1990 (2) 1991 (3) 1992 (4) 1993 45. What is the name of the world's smallest republic which has an area of 21 sq. km only ? (1) Nauru (2) Palermo (3) Vatican City (4) Namur

46. Where did the practice of' ‘Shadow Cabinet' originate ? (1) United States of America (2) Great Britain (3) Italy (4) France


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47. The Treaty of Versailles humiliated (1) Austria (2) Germany (3) England (4) France 48. The Second World War started in the year— (1) 1940 (2) 1939 (3) 1941 (4) 1942

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49. 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' is the call associated with (1) American Revolution (2) French Revolution (3) Chinese Revolution (4) Russian Revolution

50. 1911 Revolution of China resulted in (1) Establishment of a Republic (2) Reudalism (3) Democracy (4) Increased problems of people 51. Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany in (1) 1930 (2) 1929 (3) 1936 (4) 1933 51. Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany in


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(1) 1930 (2) 1929 (3) 1936 (4) 1933 52. East Timor, in Indonesian Archipelago, was the former colony of (1) Dutch (2) English (3) French (4) Portuguese 53. Pearl Harbour, where the American Pacific Fleet was stationed, was attacked by Japanese in (1) 1935 (2) 1939 (3) 1941 (4) 1944 54. Match the Following; I II A. Fascism 1.Adolf Hitler B. Democracy 2.Lenin C. Nazism 3.Mussolini D. Socialism 4.Woodrow wilson (1) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 (4) A-3. B-1, C-4, D-2 55. Grassland is called ‘Pampas’ in (1) Africa (2) South America (3) United Kingdom (4) The USA


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56. The immediate cause for the output break of the first World War was (1) the assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand (2) the imprisonment of Lenin (3) the ambition of America to dominate the world (4) the sudden death of Lloyd George

57. The Opium wars were fought between (1) Britain and China (2) Britain and India (3) India and China (4) Britain and Japan 58. Who was the first Prime Minister of England? (1) Oliver Cromweli (2) Benjamin Disraeli (3) Robert Walpole (4) Gladstone 59. Match the following: I. II A. Cold War 1.Mao (China) B. Holy War 2.1917 C. The Long March 3.Crusades D. The Russian 4. US vs USSR Revolution


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A B C D (1) 4 1 3 2 (2) 3 2 1 4 (3) 4 3 1 2 (4) 2 1 4 3

60. Natural Rights theory was advocated by (1) Hobbes (2) Locke (3) Hegel (4) Rousseau 61. Economic dimensions of justice have been emphasised by (1) Idealists (2) Capitalists (3) Socialists (4) Fascists 62. What was the original name of Santa Claus? (1) St. Christopher (2) St. Peter (3) St. John (4) St. Nicolas 63. The world’s oldest continuously inhabited city is (1) Jerusalem (2) Baghdad (3) Istanbul (4) Damascus


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64. Zend-Avesta is the scared book of the (1) Parsees (2) Jains (3) Jews (4) Buddhists 65. Where was St. Paul beheaded? (1) Rome (2) Ephesus (3) Kusadasi (4) Jerusalem 66. Who said that “Man by nature is a political animal”? (1) Plato (2) Aristotle (3) Hobbes (4) Rousseau 67. The British Conservative Party was earlier known as (1) Whigs (2) Levellors (3) Fabians (4) Tories 68. In which country the Head of the State gets his office by the law of hereditary succession? (1) China (2) Sri Lanka (3) France (4) Japan

69. Which of the following is a wonder of the ancient world? (1) The statue of Jupiter at Olympia (2) The Colosseum of Rome


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(3) The Leaning Tower of Pisa (4) The Mosque at St. Sophia (Constantinople) 70. The Wailing wall is situated in (1) Berlin (2) Beijing (3) Jerusalem (4) Tel Aviv 71. Who was the Chief Architect of the World Trade Centre.’ New York? (1) Le Corbusier (2) Minoru Yamasaki (3) Edwin Lutyens (4) Charles Correa 72. That all appointments made by the President and all treaties signed by him must be ratified by the Senate in U.S A. indicates (1) theory of separation of powers (2) theory of checks and balances (3) due process of law (4) rule of law

73. Which of the following is not a religion developed in ancient time (i.e. In B.C.) ? (1) Shintoism (2) Zorostrianism (3) Islam (4) Taoism 74. The Chinese Nationalist Party Kuomintang was found by (1) Pu-yi


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(2) MaoTse-tung (3) Chiang Kai-shek (4) SunYat-sen 75. Who said, 'I am the State'? (1) James II of England (2) Napoleon I of France (3) Louis XIV of France (4) Hitler of Germany 76. Pearl I Harbour, an American Naval and Airforce base was attacked by (1) Germany (2) Japan (3) France (4) England 77. Karl Marx lived in exile and wrote from (1) Moscow (2) London (3) Paris (4) Stockholm

78. The world's first drainage system was build by the people of (1) Egyptian civilization (2) Indus Valley civilization (3) Chinese civilization (4) Mesopotamian civilization

79. The State is a necessary evil according to (1) Communists (2) Liberalists


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(3) Individualists (4) Anarchists 80. Napoleon-I and the Duke of Wellington fought the famous (1) Battle of Austerlitz (2) Battle of Leipzig (3) Battle of Borodini (4) Battle of Waterloo 81. The Cremean War was fought between (1) France and Britain (2) Russia and Turkey (3) France and Turkey (4) Britain and Turkey 82. Absolute sovereign power of the Monarch was advocated by (1) Thomas Hobbes (2) Rousseau (3) John Locke (4) Karl Marx 83. Alexander the Great died in 323 B.C. in (1) Persia (2) Babylon (3) Macedonia (4) Taxila 84. Who was the American leader who led a non-violent movement to obtain full civil rights for Amer- ican Negroes ? (1) Abraham Lincoln (2) John F. Kennedy (3) Martin Luther King (4) George Washington


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85. One of the important factors that led to the IInd World War the humiliating provisions in one of the following treaties. Which is that treaty? (1) Treaty of Paris (2) Treaty of Versailles (3) Treaty of Lorraine (4) Treaty of Brussels

86. When was the first of the Geneva Conventions on the treatment of war victims adopted ? (1) 1832 (2) 1857 (3) 1864 (4) 1909 87. The capital of Pakistan till 1959 was (1) Islamabad (2) Karachi (3) Lahore (4) Hyderabad

88. The first atomic bomb was thrown over : (1) Nagasaki (2) Hiroshima (3) Tokyo (4) Hong Kong

89. Who discovered America ? (1) Vasco-da Gama (2) Columbus


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(3) Captain Cook (4) Amundsen 90. The famous painting 'Monalisa' was the creation of: (1) Michael-Angelo(2) Leonardo-Da-Vinci (3) Piccasso (4) Van Gogh 91. Which slogan was given by the French Revolution to the world ? (1) Liberty, Authority. Equality (2) Liberty, Equality, Fraternity (3) Liberty, Law, Fraternity (4) Tradition, Authority, Law

92. The policy of racial discrimination followed in South Africa was called: (1) Non-Aligned (2) Civil Rights Movement (3) Apartheid (4) Suffrage

93. Who is the oldest British monarch to sit on the Throne? (1) Queen Victoria (2) Queen Elizabeth-II (3) Queen Mary Tudor (4) Queen Anne 94. Who has given a call “Go back to nature" ? (1) Plato (2) Aristotle (3) Rousseau (4) Hobbes

ANSWERS


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1.(1) 2.(1) 3.(2) 4.(3)

5.(2) 6.(3) 7.(1) 8.(2)

9.(3) 10.(2) 11.(2) 12.(4)

13.(1) 14.(4) 15.(3) 16.(2)

17.(1) 18.(2) 19.(1) 20.(1)

21.(2) 22.(3) 23.(3) 24.(4)

25.(4) 26.(1) 27.(2) 28.(1)

29.(2) 30.(2) 31.(2) 32.(3)

33.(1) 34.(2) 35.(1) 36.(4)

37.(3) 38.(1) 39.(1) 40.(1)

41.(3) 42.(1) 43.(2) 44.(2)

45.(1) 46.(2) 47.(2) 48.(2)

49.(2) 50.(1) 51.(4) 52.(4)

53.(3) 54.(3) 55.(2) 56.(1)

57.(1) 58.(3) 59.(3) 60.(2)

62.(4) 63.(4) 64.(1)


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61.(3)

65.(1) 66.(2) 67.(4) 68.(4)

69.(1) 70.(3) 71.(2) 72.(2)

73.(3) 74.(3) 75.(3) 76.(2)

77.(2) 78.(2) 79.(2) 80.(4)

81.(2) 82.(1) 83.(2) 84.(3)

85.(2) 86.(3) 87.(2) 88.(2)

89.(2) 90.(2) 91.(2) 92.(3)

93.(2) 94.(3)


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World Geography 1. Where is the Island of Man located? (1) Between Northern Ireland and England (2) Between France and England (3) Between Malaysia and Indonesia (4) Between Cuba and Jamaica 2. Where are most of the earth's active volcanoes concentrated ? (1) Europe (2) Pacific Ocean (3) Africa (4) South America 3. The Savannah finds its ideal conditions of growth in : (1) mild and humid climate (2) dry summer and wet winter climate (3) hot humid climate with long dry season (4) hot summer and cool winter climate 4. The Suez Canal connects ; (1) Mediterranean and Red seas. (2) Baltic and Caspian Seas. (3) Mediterranean and North Seas. (4) Red Sea and Caspian Sea.


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5. Where is Lake Superior, the largest freshwater lake in the world, located? (1) USA (2) Brazil (3) Canada (4) Russia 6. Which of the following rivers flow in Germany? (1) Seine (2) Volga (3) Danube (4) Thames 7. What is the longest mountain range in the world above sea-level? (1) Andes mountains (2) Himalayas (3) Alps (4) Pyreness mountains 8. Which of the following countries does not have a border with Afghanistan? (1) Iran (2) Georgia (3) Turkmenistan (4) Uzbekistan 9. The largest island in the world is (1) Sri Lanka (2) Greenland (3) New Guinea (4) Sumatra

10. Where is Normandy beach located? (1) France (2) Nertherlands (3) Spain (4) Belgium


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11. Match the rivers flowing through the cities below: City River (a) Rotterdan 1. Seine (b) Paris 2. Potomac (c) Budapest 3. Rhine (d) Washington 4. Danube

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) 2 3 1 4 (2) 1 3 4 2

(3) 3 1 4 2

(4) 4 3 2 1

12. Match the rivers given below with the cities through which they flow : City River a. Bangkok 1. Hwangpu b. Shanghai 2. St. Lawrence c. Dresden 3. Chao phraya d. Montreal 4. Elbe

a b c d (1) 3 1 4 2

(2) 2 4 3 1

(3) 4 3 2 1

(4) 1 2 3 4

13. ‘Dykes’ are especially constructed in (1) Norway (2) Holland (3) France (4) United Kingdom


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14. Colorado in U.S.A. is famous for this landform_ (1) Grand Canyon (2) Grand Crators (3) Great Valleys (4) Great Basins 15. Which is the largest metals trading centre ? (1) Johannesburg (2) London (3) New York (4) Singapore 16. What is the new name of the old colony of Northern Rhodesia? (1) Zambia (2) Zimbabwe (3) Uganda (4) Tanzania 17. Where is "Ground Zero" ? (1) Greenwich (2) New York (3) Indira Point (4) Shriharikota 18. New Britain and New Ireland are parts of- (1) USA (2) Canada (3) Australia (4) Papua New Guinea 19. The longest river is __ (1) Nile (2) Amazon (3) Missisippi-Missouri (4) Yangto Kayong


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20. In which of the following countries long staple type of cotton is mainly grown ? (1) India (2) Egypt (3) Greece (4) China 21. Which from the following is a land-locked sea ? (1) Red Sea (2) Timor Sea (3) North Sea (4) Aral Sea

22. Which two countries are connected by an under-water tunnel? (1) England and Spain (2) Malaysia and Singapore (3) England and Belgium (4) France and England 23. The deepest trench of the world-‘The Mariana Trench' is located in the : (1) Indian Ocean (2) Atlantic Ocean (3) Arctic Ocean (4) Pacific Ocean 24. Which country Is the world's largest archipelago ? (1) Philippines (2) Indonesia (3) Sweden (4) Greenland 25. The part of Equatorial region which has well developed rubber plantations is (1) Amazon basin (2) Indonesia (3) Malaysia (4) Zaire basin


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26. Which country is known as the "Cockpit of Europe"? (1) Belgium (2) Switzerland (3) Netherlands (4) Luxembourg

27. Which one of the following parts of the world does not receive rainfall any time of the year ? (1) Central Europe (2) Central North America (3) Polar regions (4) Sub-Saharan areas 28. Which from the following is the busiest Oceanic trade route ? (1) Cape route (2) Malacca straits (3) Panama canal (4) Suez canal 29. Which of the following is the longest river ? (1) Nile (2) Amazon (3) Chang Jiang (4) Mississippi-Missouri

30. Which of the following regions is referred to as Garden of Eden as mentioned in the Bible ? (1) Dead Sea (2) Kutch region of South Iraq (3) Nile Valley (4) Cango Valley


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31. Which one of the following is the highest gravity dam in the world ? (1) Beas Dam (2) Nangal Dam (3) Bhakra Dam (4) Hirakud Dam

32. Which Is the world's largest desert ? (1) Sahara (2) Gobi (3) Thar (4) Takala Makan 33. "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic hoarders". For which region is this statement correct ? (1) African Savanna (2) Central Asian Steppes (3) Siberian Tundra (4) North American Prairies 34. The capital of the USA is situated on the bank of the river (1) Ohio (2) Tennessee (3) Yukron (4) Potomac 35. Which is the shortest route from Moscow to San Francisco ? (1) via Canada (2) overland (3) Over the South Pole (4) Over the North Pole


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36. Which one of the following is/ are wrongly matched ? A. typhoons — China Sea B. hurricanes— India Ocean C. cyclone — West Indies D. tornadoes — Australia (1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D (3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D

37. Black Forests are found in (1) France (2) Germany (3) Czechoslovakia (4) Rumania 38. Out of the following, which country is dependent on others for the raw material for its Iron-Steel industry ? (1) England (2) Australia (3) Japan (4) Turkey 39. Which of the following is also known as 'Eternal City' ? (1) London (2) Rome (3) Athens (4) Berlin

40. The largest island in the world is Greenland. It is an integral part of (1) Norway (2) North America (3) Denmark (4) Canada


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41. What is called as the ‘Roof’ of the World ? (1) Indira Point (2) Kanchenjunga (3) Pamir Knot (4) Indira Col 42. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of uranium in the world ? (1) Canada (2) South Africa (3) Namibia (4) U.S.A. 43. The main reason for deforestation in Asia is (1) excessive fuel wood collection (2) excessive soil erosion (3) floods (4) construction of roads 44. Suez Canal connects (1) Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean (2) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea (3) Lake Huron and Lake Erie (4) Lake Erie and Lake Ontario

45. The largest producer of gold in the world is (1) Australia (2) Canada (3) Russia (4) South Africa 46. The busiest and the most important sea route of the world is


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(1) North Pacific Sea Route (2) North Atlantic Sea Route (3) South Atlantic Sea Route (4) Indian Ocean Route 47. The countries separated by the Mac-Mahon Line are (1) Afghanistan and Pakistan (2) Bangladesh and India (3) China and India (4) Pakistan and India 48. The "Dark Continent" is (1) Africa (2) South America (3) Australia (4) Asia 49. Which of the following sets of countries are referred to as ‘The Golden Crescent' the largest opium industry in the world? (1) Myanmar, Laos and Thailand (2) Afghanistan, Iran and Iraq (3) Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran (4) Myanmar, Malaysia and Thailand 50. In which country is the volcano Mount Gamkonora, the highest peak of Halmahera island, which erupted in July 2007 located? (1) Japan (2) Indonesia (3) Russia (4) France


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51. The largest producer of world's mica is (1) U.SA. (2) U.K. (3) Canada (4) India

52. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation? (1) China (2) U.S.A. (3) Canada (4) India 53. The capital of Tanzania is (1) Nairobi (2) Lusaka (3) Kampala (4) Dar-es-Salaam 54. The Trans-Siberian Railway (8960 km) connects ______in the West to ______ in the East. (1) Moscow, Tashkent (2) St. Petersburg, Omsk (3) Moscow, Irkutsk (4) St. Petersburg, Vladivostok

55. Excluding the East European countries and Russia, the country with the largest area under forest, is (1) USA (2) Canada (3) Australia (4) Brazil


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56. Which from the following, is a landlocked sea ? (1) Timor Sea (2) Arafura Sea (3) Greenland Sea (4) Aral Sea

57. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched ? (1) Russia - Bauxite (2) Mexico - Silver (3) Bolivia - Tin (4) U.S.A. - Copper 58. The leading producer of aluminium in the world is (1) Guinea (2) Jamaica (3) U.S.A. (4) Venezuela 59. The largest freshwater lake in the world is (1) Lake Victoria (2) Lake Michigan (3) Lake Balkhash (4) Lake Superior

60. Which of the following volcanoes is situated in Mexico ? (1) Colima (2) Purace (3) Semeru (4) Etna


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61. Which country is known as the 'Land of Thousand Lakes' ? (1) Norway (2) Finland (3) Canada (4) Ireland 62. Which from the following is a land-locked sea ? (1) Red Sea (2) Timor Sea (3) North Sea (4) Aral Sea 63. Leading producer of rice is (1) India (2) Pakistan (3) China (4) Burma 64. The greatest producer of Apples in the world is (1) U.S.A. (2) Russia (3) India (4) China 65. Bosnia-Herzegovina formed the parts of (1) Czechoslovakia (2) Yugoslavia (3) Bulgaria (4) Azerbaijan

66. Major producer of sugar is (1) Australia (2) Cuba (3) India (4) Mauritius 67. The largest producer of coffee in the world is


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(1) Brazil (2) Sri Lanka (3) India (4) Myanmar 68. The Melanesian Island Group lies in the (1) Pacific Ocean (2) Atlantic Ocean (3) Indian Ocean (4) Arctic Ocean

69. The Continent through which the imaginary lines of Tropic of Cancer,Tropic of Carpricorn and Equator pass, is (1) Africa (2) Australia (3) Europe (4) Asia 70. Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation? (1) U.S.A. (2) India (3) China (4) Canada

71. Which one of the following countries is known as the "Land of Thunderbolt? (1) Belgium (2) Nepal (3) Bhutan (4) Bolivia 72. Which one of the following is called 'Ring of Fire'? (1) Circum Pacific Belt


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(2) Mid-Continental Belt (3) Indian Ocean Belt (4) Atlantic Ocean Belt 73. Great Barrier Reef of Australia is located parallel to (1) East coast (2) West coast (3) North coast (4) South coast 74. The Capital of East Timor is (1) Madura (2) Bandung (3) Surabaya (4) Dili 75. The Eskimos live in (1) Finland and Norway (2) Norway and Siberia (3) Siberia and Sweden (4) Canada and Alaska 76. Selvas are (1) Huge Canadian forests (2) Equatorial rain forests of Brazil (3) Coniferous forests of Siberia (4) Evergreen monsoon forests 77. Kariba Dam is located on the River (1) Zambazi (2) Niger


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(3) Buene (4) Nile

78. Sunda strait lies between (1) Sumatra and Borneo (2) Java and Borneo (3) Java and Sumatra (4) Sulawest and Java 79. The Strait of Gibraltar is situated in the (1) Iberian Peninsula (2) Indian Peninsula (3) Arabian Peninsula (4) Cape York Peninsula 80. Maoris is the term used for the aboriginal people of (1) Fiji (2) New Zealand (3) South America (4) Tasmania 81. Cape Cod is located near (1) Philadelphia (2) Washington (3) Florida (4) Boston 82. Name the sea whose boundaries touch three Continents. (1) Mediterranean Sea (2) Red Sea (3) Caspian Sea (4) Caribbean Sea


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83. Source of River Nile is (1) Lake Nassir (2) Lake Victoria (3) Lake Chad (4) Lake Tanganyika

84. Many of the active volcanoes are situated in (1) Atlantic Ocean (2) Pacific Ocean (3) Indian Ocean (4) Arctic Ocean 85. The Equatorial Forests of the Amazon Basin in South America are known as (1) Selva (2) Taiga (3) Tundra (4) Pampas 86. Which one of the following characteristics is associated with the 'Bread Basket' area of USA? (1) Moderate rainfall in winter (2) Heavy rainfall throughout the year (3) Low rainfall in summer (4) Long winter with snow 87. Which one of the following is the longest river in the world? (1) Amazon (2) Yangtze-Kiang (3) Nile (4) Mississipi-Missouri

88. Sun belt of U.S.A. is important for which one of the following industries?


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(1) Cotton textile (2) Petro-chemical (3) Hi-tech electronics (4) Food processing 89. The best variety of world's cotton is known as (1) Sea Island (2) Upland American (3) Egyptian (4) Short staple Indian

90. Which one of the following is the largest lake in the world? (1) Lake Superior (2) Caspian Sea (3) Lake Baikal (4) Lake Victoria

91. Detroit, USA, is famous for which of the following industries ? (1) Iron and Steel (2) Automobile (3) Petro-chemical (4) Cotton textile

92. What is referred to as 'Roof of the World'? (1) Mount Everest (2) Pamir Knot (3) Siberian Plains (4) Hindukush Mountains 93. The pacific Ring of Fire is (1) an area of constant forest fires in the Pacific islands (2) a volcanic belt around the Pacific (3) an area of intense heat in the Pacific (4) islands rich in fuel minerals in the pacific


40


94. In geography 'Gulf Stream’ refers to (1) a warm ocean current (2) strong air current (3) streams joining a gulf (4) the name of a stream 95. The Strait of Gibraltar provides entry into the (1) Indian Ocean (2) Red Sea, (3) Mediterranean Sea (4) Atlantic Ocean 96. 'Nippon’ is the name given to Japan which means (1) land of the rising Sun (2) land of Pagodas (3) land of northern lights (4) land of volcanoes and earthquakes.

97. Which one of the following countries is smaller than India? (1) China (2) Brazil (3) Canada (4) Agrentina 98. The Chinese river known as yellow river is (1) Hwang-Ho (2) Sikiang (3) Yangtse-Kiang (4) Mekong 99. The longest river of the world is


41


(1) Mississippi (2) Amazon (3) Indus (4) Nile 100. Fishing grounds of the world are found in areas where (1) there are high tides (2) warm and cold currents meet (3) there are low tides (4) high stormy waves occur

101. The two countries connected by a tunnel under the sea are (1) England and France (2) France and Denmark (3) Australia and New Zealand (4) Spain and Italy

102. Mount Blanc is the highest peak of these mountain ranges (1) Atlas (2) Rockys (3) Andes (4) Alps 103. Which of the following is not an Arab country? (1) Israel (2) Syria (3) Jordan (4) Lebanon 104.Which of the following is the largest museum?


42


(1) The Louvre (2) The National Museum, New York (3) The London Museum (4) The Vatican Museum 105. Through which of the given regions does the equator run? (1) Africa (2) India (3) Arabia (4) China 106. The city of Rome is situated on the bank of river (1) Danube (2) Tiber (3) Rhine (4) Elbe 107. Male is the capital of (1) Mongolia (2) Monaco (3) Maldives (4) Mauritius 108. The busiest oceanic trade route of the world is in (1) Atlantic Ocean (2) Arctic Ocean (3) Indian Ocean (4) Pacific Ocean 109. The world famous Serangeti Wildlife Sanctuary is located in (1) Kenya (2) Tanzania (3) Zambia (4) Uganda 110. Which is the largest existing mangrove forest in the world?


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(1) African forest (2) Alphine forest (3) Sunderbans (4) Australian forest 111. The Victoria Falls are on the river (1) Niger (2) Congo (3) Zambezi (4) Orange 112. 'Dead Sea' is called so because (1) the water is brackish (2) it does not support any acquatic life (3) it is not favourable for navigation (4) it has no waves 113. The country located between 8° N and 37° N latitudes is (1) Bangladesh (2) India (3) China (4) Pakistan 114. Kangaroos, Platypus and Koala bears are wildlife of (1) Australia (2) South America (3) Europe (4) Africa 115. Extensive areas of grape cultivation in France are especially called (1) Wine cellars (2) Grape fields (3) Grape farms (4) Vineyards

116. The Panama Canal links


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(1) Pacific and Atlantic Ocean (2) Atlantic and Arctic Ocean (3) Pacific and Indian Ocean (4) Antarctic and Atlantic Ocean 117. Trans-Siberian Railway terminals are (1) Moscow and Vladivostok (2) St Petersburg and Vladivostok (3) Moscow and Krasnoyarsk (4) St. Petersburg and Krasnoyarsk 118. Largest Mica deposits are in (1) South Africa (2) India (3) USA (4) Australia 119. Grassland is called "pampas" in— (1) Africa (2) South America (3) the United Kingdom (4) the USA 120. The world's wettest continent is : (1) Asia (2) Europe (3) North America (4) South America 21. Which nation is Mongia Port situated in ? (1) Sri Lanka (2) Bangladesh (3) Bhutan (4) India


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122. Which country is the largest producer of Timber? (1) United States (2) Brazil (3) Nigeria (4) Sweden

123. Volcanic activity is more common in (1) Hawai (2) Japan (3) Colombia (4) New Zealand 124. Which of the following countries are connected by the Palk Strait? (1) India and Sri Lanka (2) North Korea and South Korea (3) Pakistan and China (4) Britain and France 125. Match the following: Towns Rivers a. Jabalpur 1. Ravi b. Paris 2. Narmada c. London 3. Siene d. Lahore 4. Thames

a

b

c

d

(1) 2 3 4 1

(2) 3 2 1 4

(3) 1 4 3 2

(4) 4 1 2 3

126. The most populous and oil-rich country in Africa is


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(1) Kenya (2) Sudan (3) Nigeria (4) Uganda 127. Which countries are separated by the 49th parallel ? (1) USA and Canada (2) USA and Mexico (3) France and Germany (4) Russia and China

128. Which of the following is the Third largest country in population after China and India ? (1) Bangladesh (2) United States of America (3) Indonesia (4) Japan

129. The river which has a greater flow of water than any other river in the world is . (1) River Hwang-ho (2) River Amazon (3) River Zaire (4) River Nile 130. The Temperate grasslands of North America are known as: (1) Pampas (2) Downs (3) Steppes (4) Prairies


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131. The largest delta of the world is (1) Sunderbans (2) Amazon Basin (3) Greenland (4) Congo Basin 132. The canal which links Atlantic Ocean with Pacific Ocean is (1) Suez (2) Malacca (3) Panama (4) Gibralter 133. The Strait that connects Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea is (1) Panama Strait (2) Suez Strait (3) Palk Strait (4) Bering Strait 134. Which one of the following is known as the 'Laughing Jack' of Australia ?

(1) Platypus (2) Kookabara (3) Koala (4) Lyrebird 135. The world's largest producer of desalinated sea water is (1) Kuwait (2) Iran (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Iraq

Answer

1.(1) 2.(2) 3.(3) 4.(1)

5.(1) 6.(3) 7. (1) 8.(2)

9.(2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (1)

13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (3) 16. (1)

17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (2)


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21.(4) 22. (4) 23.(4) 24. (2)

25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (4)

29. (1) 30.(2) 31. (3) 32. (1)

33. (2) 34.(4) 35. (4) 36. (4)

37. (2) 38.(3) 39. (2) 40.(3)

41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (1) 44.(2)

45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48.(1)

49. (3) 50. (2) 51. (*) 52. (4)

53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56.(4)

57. (1) 58.(3) 59. (4) 60.(1)

61. (2) 62. (4) 63. (3) 64. (4)

65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (1)

69.(1) 70. (2) 71. (3) 72. (1)

73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (2)

77.(1) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (2)

81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (2)

85.(1) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (2)

89. (3) 90. (2) 91. (2) 92. (2)

93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (4) 96. (1)

97.(4) 98. (1) 99. (4) 100. (2)

101. (1) 102. (4) 103. (1) 104. (1)

105. (1) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (1)

109. (2) 110. (3) 111. (3) 112. (2)

113. (2) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (1)

117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (2) 120. (4)

121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (1) 124. (1)


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125. (1) 126. (3) 127. (1) 128. (2)

129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (1) 132. (3)

133. (2) 134. (2) 135. (3)

INDIAN ECONOMY

1. Which among the following policy of Life Insurance Company is related to regular old-age pension? (1) Jivan Kishore (2) Jivan Chhaya (3) Jivan Sanchay (4) None of these 2. The decimal system of Indian currency was started in (1) 1950 (2) 1955 (3) 1957 (4) 1960

3. Antyodaya Programme is associated with : (1) liberation of bonded labour (2) bringing up cultural revolution in India (3) demands of textile labourers (4) upliftment of the poorest of the poor 4. Which of the following is not a necessary condition for the development of India ? (1) Capital Accumulation


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(2) Resource discovery (3) Population growth (4) Technological development 5. The Indian economy can be most appropriately described as a : (1) Capitalist economy (2) Socialist economy (3) Traditional economy (4) Mixed economy 6. The Tarapore Committee recommended that before capital account was made convertible the rate of inflation should be brought down for three years to within: (1) 3.5% (2) 0.3% (3) 4.6% (4) 5.7% 7. What is NABARD's primary role? (1) to provide term loans to state co-operative banks (2) to assist state governments for share capital contribution (3) to act as re-finance institution (4) All of the above 8. Under which Act/Policy was the BIFR established? (1) Industrial Policy of 1980 (2) Companies Act (3) Sick Industrial Companies Act (4) MRTP Act 9. What is the maximum amount of investment in the shares of debentures of notified companies like the ICICI. the IDBI etc. that will entitle a rebate in income tax up to 20% of the amount invested?


51


(1) Rs. 80000 (2) Rs. 60000 (3) Rs. 20000 (4) Rs. 10000 10. Which authority recom-mends the principles governing the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India? (1) Public Accounts Committee (2) Union Ministry of Finance (3) Finance Commission (4) Inter-State Council

11. RBI does not transact the buiness of which of the following state governmets ? (1) Nagaland (2) Assam (3) J & K (4) Rajasthan 12. Which amidst the following banks was recently converted to a "Universal Bank" ? (1) Corporation Bank (2) Bank of Baroda (3) IDBI Bank (4) Canara Bank

13. Which of the following PSUs has been privatised? (1) I1ZL (2) CMC (3) Hotel Corporation of India (4) NALCO 14. Which amidst the following banks was converted to a "Universal Bank' recently?


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(1) Punjab National Bank (2) ICICI Bank (3) UTI Bank (4) Indus-Ind Bank

15. Who has provided the Savings Bank facility to the largest number of account-holders in India? (1) State Bank of India (2) Punjab National Bank (3) Allahabad Bank (4) Post Office 16. The symbol of Reserve Bank of India is (1) Capitol of Asokan Pillar (2) Kuber with a purse of money (3) Tiger before a Palm tree (4) A dog sitting In a defensive state 17. For whom was the first departmental life insurance started ? (1) Army (2) Civil officers of Central Government (3) Employees of postal department (4) Life Insurance Corporation

18. What is the animal on the insignia of the RBI? (1) Lion (2) Tiger (3) Panther (4) Elephant 19. The main source of revenue for a State Government in India is


53


(1) Sales tax (2) Excise duty (3) Income tax (4) Property tax 20. To achieve high rates of growth of national output, the economy has to (1) reduce the rate of growth of population (2) borrow foreign capital (3) step up the rate of savings (4) increase the rate of investment and reduce the capital output ratio

21. The proceeds of income tax go to (1) Central Government (2) State Government (3) Centre and States (4) Corporation authorities

22. National income refers to (1) money value of goods and services produced in a country during a year. (2) money value of stocks and shares of a country during a year. (3) money value of capital goods produced by a country during a year. (4) money value of consumer goods produced by a country during a year.

23. A Scheduled Bank is one which is included in the (1) II Schedule of Banking Regulation Act (2) II Schedule of Constit-ution (3) II Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act (4) None of the above


54


24. What is the extent of change of the literacy rate envisaged by the end of the Xth Five Year Plan ? (1) From 65% to 75% (2) From 60% to 70% (3) From 50% to 55% (4) From 45% to 50% 25. Which of the following Mahatma Gandhi series of currency notes issued by the RBI has "ecology" depicted on it? (1) Rs. 500 (2) Rs. 100 (3) Rs. 50 (4) Rs. 5 26. What has been the order of India's imports during the last three years ? (1) US $30 billion (2) US $ 40 billion (3) US $50 billion (4) US $60 billion 27. What is the purpose of the India Brand Equity Fund ? (1) To promote in-bound tourism. (2) To make 'Made in India" a label of quality. (3) To organise trade fairs. (4) To provide venture capital to IT sector.

28. Which of the following Mahatma Gandhi seires of currency notes issued by the RBI has a drawing of the 'Parliament House' depicted on it?


55


(1) Rs. 500 (2) Rs. 100 (3) Rs. 50 (4) Rs. 10 29. What are "Open Market Operations"? (1) Activities of SEBI registered brokers (2) Selling of currency by the RBI (3) Selling of gilt-edged securities by the Government (4) Sale of shares by FIIs 30. Why did the Government ban the import of Terminator seeds"? (1) To contain a virus which can destroy local crops (2) These seeds are injurious to human and animal health (3) These seeds contain genetically engineered properties to prevent further multiplication (4) These seeds multiply at very slow rates

31. How does the consumer benefit with VAT ? (1) It removes tax on tax and thus reduces prise-rise (2) Reduces the cost of production (3) With the abolition of the sales tax (4) Due to the exemption of small businesses from the tax within certain limits prescribed by the State 32. In estimating; the budgetary deficit, the official approach in India is to exclude (1) long term borrowing from the market (2) borrowings from the Reserve Bank of India (3) drawing down of the cash balance (4) borrowing from Reserve Bank in the form of ways and means advance


56


33. The best way, a bank can avoid loss is to (1) lend only to individuals known to the bank (2) accept sound collateral (3) give only short-term loans (4) lend only to bank's old customers

34. Which amidst the following rural banks has been named after a river ? (1) Prathama Bank (2) Varada Grameen Bank (3) Thar Anchalik Grameen Bank (4) Aravali Kshetriya Grameen Bank

35. Which of the following is an open market operation of the RBI ? (1) Buying and selling of shares (2) Trading in securities (3) Transactions in gold (4) Lending to commercial banks

36. During which Five-Year Plan did India lay down the objective of the need to ensure environmental sustainability of the development strategy ? (1) 6th Five Year Plan (2) 7lh Five Year Plan (3) 8th Five Year Plan (4) 9th Five Year Plan


57


37. Which of the following is not an objective of the monetary policy of the RBI ? (1) Boost economic development (2) Direct credit in desirable direction (3) Control inflationary pressure (4) Ensure social justice

38. Which Bank was merged in the Punjab National Bank in February, 2003 ? (1) Catholic Syrian Bank Ltd. (2) Nainital Bank Ltd. (3) Nedungadi Bank Ltd. (4) Madurai Bank Ltd. 39. State which amongst the following is not true about VAT ? (1) All States have uniform VAT for the same product (2) State have discretion to fix the rate of tax within the four rates prescribed (3) It will promote production efficiency of investments (4) It will make our exports more competitive 40. Reserve Bank of India keeps some securities against notes. These securities are always less in comparison to (1) Gold and foreign bonds (2) Gold (3) Government bonds (4) Gold, foreign bonds and Government bonds. 41. Merchant Banking is an institution which provides finances to: (1) domestic whole sale trade


58


(2) international trade among countries (3) domestic retail trade among (4) international aid agencies.

42. The system of issuing and monitoring of money in the market is known as- (1) Proportional reserve ratio (2) Fixed reserve ratio (3) Minimum reserve ratio (4) Floating reserve ratio

43. Which among the following Indian State does not transacts its business through Reserve Bank of India? (1) Sikkim (2) Jammu and Kashmir (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Mizoram 44. Which among the following subjects is not an aim of the monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India? (1) Giving impetus to economic development (2) Direct credit with objective criteria (3) To control pressure of inflation (4) To ensure social justice.


59


45. The Government of India made it obligatory on the part of all commercial banks that they should give some cash amount while purchasing Government bonds. What would you call this? (1) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (2) Cash Reserve Ratio (3) Minimum Reserve Ratio (4) Floating Reserve Ratio 46. The receipts of which of the following taxes/duties are not shared with the States ? (1) Tax on income except agriculture (2) Corporation tax (3) Surcharge on income tax (4) Capital gain tax 47. The national income of a country is- (1) Government annual revenue (2) Total productive income (3) Surplus of the public sector enterprise (4) Export—(Loan) Import 48. Under the minimum reserve system, the Reserve Bank of India as the sole authority of note issue is required to maintain assets worth not less than (1) 115 crores of rupees (2) 85 crores of rupees (3) 200 crores of rupees (4) 210 crores of rupees 49. Which amidst the following taxes collected by the Union is NOT mandated to be assigned to the States?


60


(1) Tenninal taxes on goods or passengers carried by railway, sea or air. (2) Taxes on railway fares and freights. (3) Taxes on consignment of goods. (4) Service Tax. 50. One of the objectives of Industrial Licensing Policy in India was to ensure: (1) creation of adequate employment opportu-nities. (2) free flow of foreign capital in Indian industries. (3) use of modern technology. (4) balanced industrial development across regions.

51. Currency notes of Rs. 2 denomination and above are liabilities of: (1) Government of India (2) Reserve Bank of India (3) State Bank of India (4) All of the above 52. The type of note issue system followed in India is: (1) Maximum fiduciary system (2) Minimum reserve system (3) Proportional fiduciary system (4) Fixed fiduciary system

53. Inflation is caused by : (1) Increase in supply of goods (2) Increase in cash with the government (3) Decrease in money supply


61


(4) Increase in money supply 54. A firm sells new shares worth Rs. 1000 directly to individuals. This trans-action will cause. (1) Gross National product to rise by Rs. 1000 (2) Gross Domestic Product to rise by Rs. 1000 (3) National Income to rise by Rs. 1000 (4) No impact on Gross National Product

55. What is the revised upper limit for foreign direct investment in telecom service companies ? (1) 49 per cent (2) 51 per cent (3) 66 per cent (4) 74 per cent 56. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ? (1) Savings increases (2) Lending decreases (3) Cost of production increases (4) Return on capital increases

57. Open market operation refers to (1) borrowing by commercial banks from the R.B.I. (2) lending by scheduled banks to non-scheduled banks (3) purchase and sale of Government securities by the R.B.I. (4) purchase and sale of bonds and securities by the Central Govt.


62


58. Which is the first Public Sector Corporation of independent India? (1) Hindustan Steel Corporation, Bhilai (2) State Trading Corporation of India (3) Food Corporation of India (4) Damodar Valley Corporation 59. Which one of the following is not considered as an infrastructure investment ? Investment in a (1) Power project (2) Railways project (3) Telecommunication (4) Automobile industry 60. Which one of the following currencies has the highest value in terms of rupee ? (1) Pound (2) Dollar (3) Euro (4) Saudi Rial 61. What is known, as the open market operation of the RBI ? (1) Buying and selling of stocks (2) Auctioning of foreign exchange (3) Trading in securities (4) Transactions in gold 62. Which of the following functions as a controller of credit in India ? (1) The Central Government (2) The Reserve Bank of India (3) The State Bank of India (4) The Planning Commission


63


63. When did the Rupee become a freely convertible currency on current account, in India ? (1) 2000 (2) 2001 (3) 1994 (4) 1999 64. Antyodaya Programme is associated with (1) Liberation of bonded labour (2) Bringing up cultural revolution in India (3) Demands of textile labourers (4) Upliftment of the poorest of the poor 65. The Government resorts to devaluation of its currency in order to promote (1) national income (2) international goodwill (3) exports (4) savings

66. The basic regulatory autho-rity for mutual funds and stock markets lies with the (1) Government of India (2) Reserve Bank of India (3) SEBI (4) Stock Exchange 67. The Employment Guarntee Scheme, which is now an important component of the NCMP, was first introduced in which State? (1) Kerala (2) Maharashtra (3) Andhra Pradesh (4) West Bangal


64


68. Identify the Navratna Company in the following (l) ICICI Bank (2) Infosys (3) HPCL Ltd (4) Air India 69. Which car has been the best seller in India in 2004-2005 ? (1) Maruti800 (2) Maruti Suzuki Alto (3) Tata lndica (4) Santro Xing 70. Consider the following statements : a. NTPC has diversified to hydropower sector b. Power Grid Corporation has diversified into telecom sector. Which of the statements below is correct ? (1) Only a (2) Only b (3) Both of a and b (4) None of a and b 71. Which Indian company secured the highest export revenue from IT software and services during the past two years ? (1) TCS (2) Infosys Technologies Ltd. (3) Wipro Technologies Ltd. (4) Satyam Computer Services Ltd.


65


72. Match the Indian and foreign companies as joint ventures in the field of life insurance : Indian Company A. Tata B. ICICI Ltd. C. Bajaj Ltd. D. HDFC Bank Foreign Company 1. AIG 2. Standard Life Insurance 3. Prudential Life Insurance 4. Allianz Codes: A B C D (1) 1 3 4 2 (2) 2 4 3 1 (3) 4 1 2 3 (4) 3 4 1 2 73. Which of the following is apex bank for industrial loans ? (1) RBI (2) NABARD (3) ICICI (4) IDBI

74. What is the main function of Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)? (1) Determination of money supply (2) Collection of estimates of national income (3) Collection of detail data regarding employment


66


(4) Price determination

75. Planning and control are so related that (1) Planning initiates control (2) Control initiates planning (3) Both are equivalent (4) Both go on simultaneously in cycle 76. What does National Income mean? (1) The total value of all goods and services produced in the country during a period of one year (2) The total value of all stocks and shares in the country during a period of one year (3) The total value of all capital goods produced in the country during a period of one year (4) The total value of all consumer goods produced in the country during a period of one year

77. Which of the following taxes is levied by the Union and appropriated and planned by the states ? (1) Service tax (2) Stamp duty (3) Property tax (4) Passenger and freight duty 78. Which of the following taxes is not shared between the Union and the states ?


67


(1) Income tax (2) Excise duty (3) Corporation tax (4) Sales tax

79. Which of the following is the most important domestic source of planned finance ? (1) Balance of current revenue (2) Profit from public sector units (3) Domestic private savings (4) Additional taxation 80. Consider the following reasons of continuous decline in average land holding size in India: A Law of inheritance B. Consolidation C. Farm mechanisation D. Desire of land ownership Pick the correct answer from the options given below: (1) A. B, C and D (2) A, C and D (3) A and D (4) A and B

81. Which of the following sets belong to Central tax ? (1) Excise duty, Sales tax and Customs duty (2) Excise duty, Customs duty and Income tax (3) Income tax, Customs duty and House tax (4) Customs duty, Entertainment tax and Income tax


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82. Per Capita income is maximum in which of the following states in India? (1) Himachal Pradesh (2) Punjab (3) Gujarat (4) Goa 83. What is the name of the electronic communication network of the Reserve Bank of India ? (1) BOLT (2) RBISAT (3) RBINET (4) RBI DOT

84. In India the largest public undertaking is — (1) Air India (2) Indian Railways (3) IOC (4) LIC 85. Punjab National Bank has been honoured with the Golden Peacock Award 2002 for excellence in— (1) agricultural finance (2) rural industrialisation (3) housing development (4) corporate excellence

86. Which of the following is not in the infrastructure sector? (1) Power generation (2) Construction of roads (3) Food production (4) Expansion of airports 87. In the budget figures of the Government of India, fiscal deficit is


69


(1) total expenditure – total receipts (2) revenue expenditure - revenue receipts (3) capital expenditure – capital receipts + market borrowings (4) sum of budget deficit and Government's market borrowings and liabilities

88. Which State has the lowest per capita income in India ? (1) Bihar (2) Orissa (3) Rajasthan (4) Gujarat 89. Which authority decides about the States share in central taxes? (1) Finance Commission (2) Planning Commission (3) Election Commission (4) Finance Ministry 90. In India, one-rupee coins and notes and subsidiary coins are issued by (1) the Reserve Bank of India (2) the Central Govern-ment (3) the State Bank of India (4) the Unit Trust of India 91. The tenth plan aims to reduce the poverty ratio by 2007 to (1) 10% (2) 30% (3) 20% (4) 5% 92. The total number of nationalized banks in India is


70


(1) 14 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 30

93. In which plan was self-reliance first emphasised (1) Second Plan (2) Third Plan (3) Fourth Plan (4) Fifth Plan 94. The famous slogan "GARIBI HATAO" (Remove Poverty) was launched during the (1) First Five Year Plan (1951 -56) (2) Third Five Year Plan (1961-66) (3) Fourth Five Year Plan (1964 66) (4) Fifth Five Year Han (1974-79) 95. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India ? (1) The Government of India (2) The Planning Commi-ssion (3) The State Bank of India (4) The Reserve Bank of India

96. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipts is called (1) Fiscal deficit (2) Budget deficit (3) Revenue deficit (4) Current deficit


71


97. India's biggest nationalised enterprise today (1) the Indian Railways (2) the Indian Commercial Banking System (3) the Indian Power Sector (4) the Indian Telecommunication System 98. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is (1) Indian Statistical Institute (2) Reserve Bank of India (3) Central Statistical Organisation (4) National Council for Applied Economics and Research 99. The highest body which approves the Five Year Plan in India is the (1) Planning Commission (2) National Development Council (3) Finance Ministry (4) Union Cabinet 100. RBI does not transact the business of which State Government ? (1) Nagaland (2) Jammu and Kashmir (3) Punjab (4) Assam 101. In the budget figures of the Government of India, interest payments, subsidies, pensions, social services and the like are parts of the


72


(1) Plan Expenditure (2) State Government Expenditure (3) Public Debt in the form Capital Expenditure (4) Non-plan Expenditure 102. Who coined the term 'Hindu rate of growth' for Indian economy? (1) A.K. Sen (2) Kirit S. Parikh (3) Raj Krishna (4) Montek Singh Ahluwalia

103. Which of the following Indian banks became the first to touch a market capitalisation of Rs. 1,00,000 crore in India? (1) ICICI (2) HDFC (3) SBI (4) PNB 104. The Commission in India dealing with minimum support price, procurement price, etc in connection with agricultural goods is the (1) Planning Commission (2) Agricultural Costs and Prices Commission (3) Agricultural Price Commission (4) National Marketing Commission

105. Which one of the following is not correct? (1) First Five Year Plan-1951-56 (2) Second Five Year Plan1956- 61 (3) Third Five Year Plan-1961-66 (4) Fourth Five Year Plan-1966-71


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106. In the post-independence period, economic reforms were first introduced in India under (1) P.V. Narasimha Rao Government (1990) (2) Indira Gandhi Government (1980) (3) Rajiv Gandhi Government (1985) (4) Janata Party Government (1977)

107. The Report of Vijay Kelkar Committee relates to (1) Trade Reforms (2) Centre-State Financial Relations (3) Disinvestment in Public Sector Enterprises (4) Tax Reforms 108. ICI is the name associated with (1) a MNC which manu-factures chemicals (2) Indian Cement Industry (3) Chamber of Commerce and Industry (4) a private sector bank 109. With the inclusion of Shipping Corporation of India recently in the list of Nav Ratna PSEs. Their number now stands at (1) 15 (2) 16 (3) 17 (4) 18


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110. 'Nextzone' an information technology SEZ is being establihsed at (1) Panki in Uttar Pradesh (2) Panvel in Maharash tra (3) Bangalore in Karnataka (4) Secunderabad in Andhra

111. When was the Jawahar Rozgar Yojna launched ? (1) 1985 (2) 1987 (3) 1989 (4) 1991 112. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in (1) 1947 (2) 1948 (3) 1949 (4) 1951

113. Which is not the objective of Public Procurement and Distribution system followed by Indian Government ? (1) Maintain price stability through creation of buffer stocks (2) Protect the interests of both consumers and poor farmers (3) Control the production of food grains (4) Reduce personal and regional inequality in the distribution 114. Where is the Indian Institute of Foreign Trade Located ? (1) New Delhi (2) Hyderabad (3) Mumbai (4) Ahmedabad


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115. The Centre for Agricultural Marketing is located at (1) Jaipur (2) New Delhi (3) Nagpur (4) Hyderabad 116. Per capita income is obtained by dividing National Income by (1) Total population of the country (2) Total working population (3) Area of the country (4) Volume of capital used 117. Token privatisation or deficit privatisation of public sector units occur when the government sells (1) 5% of shares (2) 10% of shares (3) 15% of shares (4) 20% of shares

118. The Narasimham Committee (1991) on financial reforms proposed for establishment of a (1) Four tier hierarchy of the Banking structure (2) Three tier hierarchy of the Banking structure (3) Two tier hierarchy of the Banking structure (4) Unified control by the apex institutions


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119. The Planning Commission of India was constituted in the year (1) 1942 (2) 1947 (3) 1950 (4) 1955

120. Which plan gave emphasis on removal of poverty for the first time? (1) Fourth (2) Fifth (3) Sixth (4) Seventh 121. EXIM Policy. 2002-07, has set a target to achieve a share in the global trade by 2007 at (1) 0.5 per cent (2) 1.0 per cent (3) 1.5 per cent (4) 2.0 per cent 122. GDP at Factor Cost is (1) GDP minus indirect taxes plus subsidies (2) GDP minus depreciation allowances (3) NNP plus depreciation allowances (4) GDP minus subsidies plus indirect taxes 123. The period of the Eleventh Five-Year Plan is (1) 2005 to 2010 (2) 2006 to 2011 (3) 2007 to 2012 (4) 2008 to 2013 124. FERA in India has been replaced by


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(1) FEPA (2) FEMA (3) FENA (4) FETA 125. The term 'Mixed Economy' denotes (1) existence of both rural and urban sectors (2) existence of both private and public sectors (3) existence of both heavy and small industries (4) existence of both developed and underdeveloped sectors 126. NREGP is the abbreviated form of (1) National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (2) National Rural Educational Guarantee Programme (3) National Rapid Educational Guarantee Programme (4) National Rapid Employment Guarantee Programme

127. "Jeevan Aastha" — a scheme relating to investment and saving, was launched during 2008- 09. by (1) Tata AIG (2) IC1CI Prudential (3) Bajaj Allianz (4) LIC 128. India is called a mixed economy because of the existence of (a) Public Sector (b) Private Sector (c) Joint Sector (d) Cooperative Sector (1) a, d (2) a, b (3) c, d (4) b. d


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129. The present Indian monetary system is based on (1) Gold Reserve System (2) Proportional Reserve System (3) Convertible Currency System (4) Minimum Reserve System 130. Gross Domestic Product is defined as the value of all (1) goods produced in an economy in a year (2) goods and services produced in an economy in a year (3) final goods produced in an economy in a year (4) final goods and services produced in an economy in a year 131. The Draft of the Five Year Plans in India is approved by the (1) National Development Council (2) Planning Commission (3) National Productivity Council (4) Ministry of Finance 132. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ? (1) Minister for Planning & Development (2) Finance Minister (3) Prime Minister (4) Minister for Rural & Community Develop-ment


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133. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was (1) 11.75 per cent (2) 11.85 percent (3) 12.00 per cent (4) 12.05 per cent 134. Which is the biggest tax paying sector in India? (1) Agriculture sector (2) Industrial sector (3) Transport sector (4) Banking sector

135. The Government has renamed NREGA scheme and the name associated with the scheme is that of (1) Rajiv Gandhi (2) Jawahar Lai Nehru (3) Mahatma Gandhi (4) Indira Gandhi 136. The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in the year (1) 1935 (2) 1969 (3) 1949 (4) 1980 137. The abbreviation SEBI stands for (1) Savings and Exchange Bank of India (2) Securities and Exchange Bank of India (3) Survey of essential business in India (4) Securities and Exch-ange Board of India


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138. Insurance sector in India is regulated by (1) RBI (2) CII (3) IRDA (4) SEBI 139. In the budget for 2011-12, the fiscal deficit (% of GDP) for 2011 - 12 has been projected at (1) 5.1 (2) 5.0 (3) 4.6 (4) 3.4

140. The fringe benefit tax was Introduced in the budget of (1) 2003-04 (2) 2004-05 (3) 2005-06 (4) 2006-07 141. The Annapurna Scheme was implemented in the year (1) 1998 (2) 1996 (3) 1999 (4) 2000 142. The objective of Jawahar Rojgar Yojana' is to (1) provide employment to youth in rural areas (2) create employment opportunities for unemployed persons (3) strengthen the rural economic and social structure (4) All of the above

143. Which of the following sectors contributed more to the savings in India?


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(1) Public sector (2) Household sector (3) Corporate sector (4) Private sector

144. The highest foreign exchanged earners have been the export of (1) engineering goods (2) gems and jewellery (3) minerals (4) tea 145. Where is the biggest private sector power project in India located? (1) Rajahmundry in Andhra Pardesh (2) Neyveli in Tamil Nadu (3) Korba in Madhya Pradesh (4) Dabhol in Maharashtra 146. What is the "Gram Samridhi Yojana" in replacment of (1) Indra Awas Yojana (2) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (3) Prime Minister's Employment Scheme. (4) I.R.D.P

147. The largest share in our imports is from (1) North America (2) European Community (3) OPEC (Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries) (4) African and Asian Developing Countries


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148. The largest share of India's national income originates in the (1) Primary sector (2) Secondary sector (3) Tertiary sector (4) Any of the above 149. Which of the following is not a part of national income? (1) Wages and Salaries (2) Profits (3) Rent (4) Interest on national debt

150. Among the tax revenues of the Union Government, what is the largest source? (1) Income Tax (2) Corporation Tax (3) Central Excise (4) Customs Duty 151. What does the open market operations of the RBI mean? (1) Buying and selling shares (2) Auctioning of foreign exchange (3) Trading in securities (4) Transactions in gold

152. The Reserve Bank of India (1) provides direct finance to agriculture (2) provides finance to primary cooperative societies (3) provides finance to state cooperative banks (4) does not provide finance to agriculture


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153. In which sector of the Indian economy is productivity the highest ? (1) Manufacturing (2) Transport, Communication and Commerce (3) Agriculture (4) Other sectors

154. To achieve economic self-reliance was the main objective of which Five Year Plan? (1) First Five Year Plan (2) Second Five Year Plan (3) Third Five Year Plan (4) Fourth Five Year Plan 155. The preparation of National Income Estimates is the responsibility of the (1) Planning Commission (2) National Development Council (3) National Sample Survey Organisation (4) Central Statistical Organisation

156. Commercial banking system in India is (1) mixed banking (2) unit banking (3) branch banking (4) None of these 157. The gift edged market in the capital market of India refers to


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(1) long-term private securities (2) market dealing in existing securities. (3) market for corporate securities (4) market for Government securities

158. Which of the following yields the largest revenue to the Government of India? (1) Sales tax (2) Excise duty (3) Income tax (4) Entertainment tax 159. The credit control operation in India is performed by (1) Rural banks (2) Commercial banks (3) Reserve Bank of India (4) State Bank of India 160. NABARD is the name of a (1) Commercial bank (2) Financial Institution (3) Specialised bank to help agriculture (4) Non-Banking Financial Institution 161. Banks in India were nationalized for the first time in the year - (1) 1950 (2) 1960 (3) 1969 (4) 1979 162. Fiscal policy is concerned with


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(1) Public revenue (2) Public expenditure and debt (3) Bank rate policy (4) Both (1) and (2)

163. Which of the following is the largest employer in India? (1) Food Corporation of India (2) Posts and Telegraphs Department (3) Indian Railways (4) Steel Authority of India 164. The main objective of Antyodaya Programme is (1) upliftment of urban poor (2) upliftment of industrial workers (3) unpliftment of rural poor (4) upliftment of farmers

165. The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes under (1) fixed fiduciary system (2) maximum fidciuary system (3) minimum reserve system (4) proportional reserve system 166. The financial capital of India is (1) Mumbai (2) Chennai


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(3) Delhi (4) Chandigarh 167. Chairman of the Eleventh Finance Commission was (1) A.M. Khusro (2) Vijay Kelkar (3) Deepak Parekh (4) Manmohan Singh

168. India adopted the Five-Year Plans from (1) France (2) former USSR (3) America (4) England 169. In Centre-State financial relations in India, Gadgil Formula is used in (1) division of tax revenue (2) formulating the policy for fresh borrowings (3) writing off States' indebtedness to the Centre (4) allocating Central Plan assistance between States 170. The concept of mixed economy means (1) to have balanced development in the agricultural and industrial sector (2) simultaneous development of the rural and urban sector (3) to have equal distribution of wealth among the rural and the urban poor (4) simultaneous existence of the private and public sector

171. Canalised list of items in foreign trade of India refers to


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(1) the items to be imported by the private agencies (2) list of items to be subsidised (3) list of items to be granted duty concession (4) items to be imported only by the State owned undertaking 172. In the production of cotton textiles India ranks (1) fourth in the world (2) third in the world (3) second in the world (4) first in the world

173. The single largest item of expenditure of the Central Government in India in recent years is (1) Defence (2) Subsidies ' (3) Interest payment (4) General services 174. The most important source of revenue for the states in India is (1) Corporation tax (2) Income tax (3) Excise duties (4) Sales tax

175. India's First Five Year Plan gave priority to (1) Industry (2) Trade (3) Transportation (4) Agriculture 176. Ways and Means Advances refers to


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(1) Industries getting tempore loans from commercial banks (2) Farmers getting loans from NABAED (3) Government getting temporary loans from RBI (4) Government-getting loans from international financial institutions

177. Cochin refineries is in: (1) Public Sector (2) Joint Sector (3) Private Sector (4) Co-operative Sector 178. Which one of the following is not an industrial finance institution? (1) UTI (2) ICICI (3) NABARD (4) SFCs

179. National Income at factor cost is equal to (1) Net National Product -Indirect taxes + Subside (2) Net National Product -Direct taxes + Subsidies (3) Gross National Product - Depreciation charges (4) Net National Product + Net Income from abroad 180. Which Indian private sector company has the largest sales turn over? (1) Tata Sons (2) Reliance Industries (3) ITC Ltd. (4) Hindustan Lever Ltd.


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181. The first state owned company from India to be listed on the New York Stock Exchange is (1) Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. (2) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. (3) Tata Iron and Steel Company (4) Wipro 182. The largest source of revenue to the Union Government is (1) Income Tax (2) Central Excise Duty (3) Customs Duty (4) Wealth Tax

183. Which of the following is the specially designed scheme for the welfare of the Indian women introduced recently by- General Insurance? (1) Rajeshwari (2) Bhagya Rajeshwari (3) Bhagyashree (4) Raja Lakshmi 184. The biggest item of India's imports is : (1) Iron ore (2) Mica (3) Petroleum products (4) Gems and jewellery 185. Which amidst the following is a PSU? (1) Bank of Rajasthan (2) ICICI Bank (3) Corporation Bank (4) Citibank


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186. Which from the following is not a Navaratna PSU ? (1) SAIL (2) LIC (3) IOC (4) ONGC 187. Who among the following Indian Economists has done pioneering work on National Income ? (1) Jagdish Bhagwati (2) M.L. Seth (3) Amartya Sen (4) V.K.R.V. Rao

188. Which amidst the following is a PSU? (1) Bank of Rajasthan (2) Bank of India (3) Bank of Punjab (4) Karnataka Bank 189. Which from the following is NOT a Navaratna PSU ? (1) SAIL (2) BHEL (3) NTPC (4) Shipping Corporation of India 190. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ? (1) Central Bank of India (2) State Bank of India (3) Reserve Bank of India (4) Above (1) and (2)


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191. Who had estimated National Income in India first ? (1) V.K. R. V. Rao (2) Dadabhai Naoroji (3) R.C.Dutt (4) D.R. Gadgil 192. Mahalanobis Model has been associated with which Five- Year Plan? (1) First Five-Year Plan (2) Second Five-Year Plan (3) Third Five-Year Plan (4) Fourth Five-Year Plan 193. The Government of India derives its single largest source of revenue from (1) Direct Taxes (2) Customs Duties (3) Deficit Financing (4) Union Excise Duties

194. Which of the following is Navaratna PSE? (1) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd. (2) Container Corporation of India Ltd. (3) Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd. (4) Engineers India Ltd.

195. Which of the following is not the source of the revenue of central Government? (1) Income Tax (2) Corporate Tax (3) Agricultural Income Tax (4) Excise Duty 196. Which of the following is a Navaratna PSE?


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(1) Steel Authority of India Ltd. (2) MMTC Ltd (3) National Aluminium Company Ltd. (4) Oil India Ltd. 197. What does the open market operation of the RBI mean ? (1) Buying and selling shares (2) Auctioning of foreign exchange (3) Trading is securities (4) Transactions in gold 198. The implementation of Jawahar Rojgar Yojana rests with (1) Gram Panchayats (2) District Collectors (3) State Governments (4) Union Government

199. The RBI issues currency notes under the (1) Fixed Fiduciary System (2) Maximum Fiduciary System (3) Fixed Minimum Reserve System (4) Proportional Reserve System 200. Which of the following States has the highest number of slums as per the data recently released by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation ? (1) Uttar Pradesh (2) West Bengal (3) Maharashtra (4) Andhra Pradesh


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201. Who estimated the National Income for the first time in India ? (1) Mahalanobis (2) Dadabhai Naoroji (3) V.K.R.V. Rao (4) Sardar Patel 202. The Accounting Year of Reserve Bank of India runs from : (1) April to March (2) July to June (3) January to December (4) August to July (SSC Multi-Tasking (Non-Technical) Staff Exam. 27.02.2011) 203. The latest volume of foodgrains to be given per family as determined under 'Annapurna Scheme' is — (1) 35 kg (2) 20 kg (3) 10 kg (4) 40 kg

204. The fish catch by Indian fishermen in the international waters are part of the GDP of (1) Sri Lanka (2) India and Sri Lanka (3) India (4) India and Indonesia 205. While computing national income estimates, which of the following is required to be observed ? (1) The value of exports to be added and the value of imports to be subtracted (2) The value of exports to be subtracted and the value of imports to be added (3) The value of both exports and imports to be added


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(4) The value of both exports and imports to be subtracted 206. Which one of the following is not an objective of Fiscal Policy in India? (1) Full Employment (2) Price Stability (3) Equitable Distribution of Wealth and Incomes (4) Regulation of International Trade

207. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control measure of a Central Bank ? (1) Bank Rate Policy (2) Open Market Operations (3) Cash Reserve Ratio (4) Moral Suasion 208. Which of the following is deducted from NNP to arrive at Nl ? (1) Indirect Tax (2) Capital consumption allowance (3) Subsidy (4) Interest

209. The best example of a capital intensive industry in India is (1) Textile Industry (2) Steel Industry (3) Tourism Industry (4) Sports Goods Industry 210. India's Balance of Payments can be corrected through (1) Devaluation of currency


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(2) Vigorous export promotion (3) Import substitution (4) All of the above 211. After ONGC, OIC, NTPC and SAIL, the 'Navratna' PSU which was awarded 'Maharatna' status is (1) HAL (2) GAIL (3) Coal India Ltd (4) BHEL

212. Which of the following 'Public Undertakings has not been conferred with 'Maharatna' Status ? (1) SAIL (2) BHEL (3) ONGC (4) Coal India Limited 213. After ONGC, OIC, NTPC and SAIL, the 'Navratna' PSU which was awarded 'Maharatna' status is (1) HAL (2) GAIL (3) Coal India Ltd (4) BHEL

214. Which one of the following is not included while estimating national income through income method? (1) Rent (2) Mixed incomes (3) Pension (4) Undistributed profits 215. Taxation is a tool of


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(1) Monetary policy (2) Fiscal policy (3) Price policy (4) Wage policy 216. Which one is correct about the duration of the Eleventh Five Year Plan? (1) 01.01.2005 to 31.12.2010 (2) 01.04.2005 to 31.03.2010 (3) 01.01.2006 to 31.12.2011 (4) 01.04.2006 to 31.03.2011

217. Which of the following is an example of Joint-Sector enterprise in India? (1) Maruti Udyog Limited (2) The Indian Oil Corporation (3) Hindustan Antibiotics Ltd. (4) Bharat Aluminium Ltd. 218. In how many denominations is Indian paper currency printed at present ? (1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6

219. Who advocated the adoption of 'PURA' mbdel to eradicate poverty ? (1) M.S. Swarninathan (2) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (3) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (4) A.M.Khusro


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220. Monetary policy in India is formulated by: (1) Finance Ministry (2) RBI (3) SEBI (4) CLB 221. Who amongst the following has never been the Governor of Reserve Bank of India ? (1) D. Subbarao (2) C. Rangarajan (3) B.B. Bhattacharya (4) Y.V. Reddy 222. Which one of the following is an example for Non- Banking Financial institution ?. (1) RBI (2) SBI (3) IOB (4) LIC 223. The largest component of National Income in India is (1) Service Sector (2) Agriculture (3) Industrial Sector (4) Trade Sector 224. In a developing country like India, in which sector a high rate of disguised unemployment exists ? (1) Corporate Sector (2) House-hold Sector (3) Service Sector (4) Agricultural Sector


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225. The main difference between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) is (1) Transfer payments (2) Net foreign income from abroad (3) Capital consumption allowance (4) Capital gains

226. "NABARD" is a/an (1) Bank (2) Financial Institution (3) Insurance Corporation (4) Central Government Department

ANSWER

1.(4) 2.(3) 3. (4) 4.(3)

5.(4) 6.(1) 7.(4) 8.(3)

8.(1) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (3)

13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (3)

17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4)

21. (3) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (1)

25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3)


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33. (2) 34.(2) 35. (2) 36. (4)

37. (4) 38.(3) 39. (4) 40. (4)

41. (2) 42.(3) 43. (2) 44. (4)

45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48.(3)

49. (4) 50. (4) 51. (2) 52. (2)

53.(4) 54.(4) 55. (4) 56. (4)

57. (3) 58.(4] 59. (4) 60. (1)

61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (3) 64. (4)

65.(3) 66. (3) 67. (2) 68. (3)

69. (2) 70. (3) 71. (1) 72. (1)

73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (4) 76. (1)

77. (2) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (3)

81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (3) 84.(3)

85.(4) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88.(1)

89. (1) 90. (2) 91.(4) 92.(*)

93. (4) 94. (4) 95. (4) 96. (1)

97. (1) 98. 13) 99. (2) 100. (2)

101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (3) 104. (1)

105. (4) 109. (2)

106. (1) 110. (2)

107. (4) 111. (3)

108. (1) 112. (3)

113. (3) 114. (1) 115. (1) 116. (1)

117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (3) 120. (2)

121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (2)

125. (2) 126. (1) 127. (4) 128. (2)


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129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (1) 132. (3)

133. (*) 134. (2) 135. (3) 136. (3)

137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (3) 140. (3)

141. (4) 142. (4) 143. (2) 144. (2)

145. (*) 146. (2) 147. (3) 148. (3)

149. (4) 150. (2) 151. (3) 152. (4)

153. (1) 154. (4) 155. (4) 156. (3)

157. (2) 158. (2) 159. (3) 160. (3)

161. (3) 162. (4) 163. (3) 164. (3)

165.(3) 166. (1) 167. (1) 168. (2) -

169.(1) 170. (4) 171. (4) 172. (3)

173. (3) 174. (4) 175. (4) 176. (3)

177. (2) 178. (3) 179. (1) 180. (2)

181. (1) 182. (2) 183. (1) 184. (3)

185. (3) 186. (2) 187. (4) 188. (2)

189.( *) 190. (3) 191. (2) 192. (2)

193. (4) 194. (*) 195. (3) 196.( *)

197. (3) 198. (4) 199. (3) 200. (3)

201. (2) 202. (2) 203. (3) 204. (3)


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205. (1) 206. (4) 207. (4) 208. (1)

209. (2) 210. (4) 211. (3) 212. (2)

213. (3) 214. (4) 215. (2) 216.( *)

217. (1) 218. (3) 219. (3) 220. (2)

221. (3) 222. (4) 223. (1) 224. (4)

225. (2) 226. (2)

Economics 1. On the administered price of which of the following articles no subsidy is given ? (1) DAP (2) ATF (3) LPG (4) Kerosene oil 2. Which among the following statements is not true when there is an increase in interest rate in an economy ? (1) increase in saving (2) decrease in loan (3) increase in production cost (4) increase in capital return


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3. How the interest-level of a country is affected by FD1 ? (1) increases (2) decreases (3) remains unaffected (4) there is increase or decrease 4. Which among the following has the least possibility of globalisation? (1) selection of labour force (2) location of capital works (3) to manage resources for Investment (4) increase in infrastructure

5. Which among the following is not a non-customs duty obstacle in the world trade ? (1) Quantity restriction (2) Establishment of Standard of labour in manufacturing (3) Determination of import duty uniformly (4) Restrictions on goods quality

7. If people's income of a country is denoted in a curved line space that it has increased, then what does it denote? (1) the income is increasing (2) the income is decreasing (3) dissimilarity is decreasing in income distribution


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(4) dissimilarity in income distribution is increasing 8. Multiplier process in economic theory is conventionally taken to mean : (1) the manner in which prices increase (2) the manner in which banks create credit (3) income of an economy grows on account of an initial investment (4) the manner in which government expenditure increases

9. A financial instrument is called a 'primary security’ if it represents the liability of: (1) some ultimate borrower (2) the Government of India (3) a primary cooperative bank (4) a commercial bank 10. Personal disposable income is : (1) always equal to personal income. (2) always more than personal income. (3) equal to personal income minus direct taxes paid by household. (4) equal to personal income minus indirect taxes.

11. Which of the following most closely approximates our definition of oligopoly ? (1) The cigarette industry. (2) The barber shops (3) The gasoline stations (4) Wheat farmers


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12. Who said 'Supply creates its own demand'? (1) Adam Smith (2) J.B.Saw (3) Marshall (4) Ricardo 13. Agricultural Technology is hard to spread because : (1) it has to be adopted to local conditions. (2) rural people are not receptive (3) farmers are afraid to experiment on land for fear of failure. (4) all of the above. 14. Indirect tax means : (1) there is not direct relationship between the tax payer and the government. (2) direct relationship between tax payer and the government (3) tax base is income (4) the incidence and impact are on the same person on whom tax is imposed. 15. One of the essential conditions of perfect competition is : (1) product differentiation (2) multiplicity of prices for identical products at any one time. (3) many sellers and a few buyers. (4) Only one price for identical goods at any one time.


105


16. Investment is equal to : (1) gross total of all types of physical capital assets (2) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and tear (3) stock of plants, machines and equipments (4) None of the above 17. Which one of the following is NOT an example of indirect tax? (1) Sales tax (2) Excise duty (3) Customs duty (4) Expenditure tax

18. The major aim of devaluation is to : (1) encourage imports (2) encourage exports (3) encourage both exports and imports (4) discourage both exports and imports 19. Interest on public debt is a part of: (1) transfer payments by the enterprises (2) transfer payments by the Govt. (3) national income (4) interest payments by households

20. Structural unemployment arises due to :


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(1) deflationary conditions (2) heavy industry bias (3) shortage of raw materials (4) inadequate productive capacity

21, The theory of distribution relates to which of the following? (1) The distribution of assets (2) The distribution of income (3) The distribution of factor payments (4) Quality in the distribution of the income and wealth

22. If an industry is characterised by economies of scale then (1) barriers to entry are not very large (2) long run unit costs of production decreases as the quantity the firm produces increases (3) capital requirement are small due to the efficiency of the large scale operation (4) the costs of entry into the market are likely to be substantial

23. Say's Law of Market holds that (1) supply is not equal to demand (2) supply creates its own demand (3) demand creates its own supply (4) supply is greater than demand 24. Movement along the same demand curve is know as


107


(1) Extension and Contraction of Demand (2) Increase and Decrease of Demand (3) Contraction of supply (4) Increase of supply 25. What is USP in marketing field? (1) Uninterrupted power supply (2) Universal standards of production (3) US Programme based (4) Exclusive marketing features

26. A tax is characterised by horizontal equity if its liability is (1) proportional to the income of tax payers (2) similar for tax payers in similar circumstances (3) proportional to the expenditure of tax payers (4) the same for every tax payer

27. What does a Leasing Company provide ? (1) Machinery and capital equipment on hire (2) Legal guidance in establishing an enterprise (3) Office accommodation on hire (4) Technical consultancy and experts for a fee

28. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is


108


(1) deflation (2) inflation (3) recession (4) stagflation 29. When there is a change in demand leading to a shift of the Demand Curve to the right, at the same price as before, the quantity demanded will (1) decrease (2) increase (3) remain the same (4) contract

30. The income elasticity of demand being greater than one, the commodity must be (1) a necessity (2) a luxury (3) an inferior good (4) None of these 31. 'Marginal efficiency of capital’ is (1) expected rate of return on new investment (2) expected rate of return of existing investment (3) difference between rate of profit and rate of interest (4) value of output per unit of capital invested

32, Buoyancy of a tax is defined as (1) percentage increase in tax revenue/percentage in crease in tax base (2) increase in tax revenue/ percentage increase in tax coverage


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(3) increase in tax revenue/increase in tax base (4) percentage increase in tax revenue/ increase in tax coverage

33. The standard of living in a country is represented by its: (1) poverty ratio (2) per capita income (3) national income (4) unemployment rate 34. When there is one buyer and many sellers then that situation is called (1) Monopoly (2) Single buyer right (3) Downright (4) Double buyers right

35. The measure of a worker's real wage is (1) The change in his productivity over a given time (2) His earnings after deduction at source (3) His dairy earnings (4) The purchasing power of his earnings

36. Average Revenue means (1) the revenue per unit of commodity sold (2) the revenue from all commodities sold


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(3) the profit realised from the marginal unit sold (4) the profit realised by sale of all commodities 37. Economic rent refers to (1) Payment made for the use of labour (2) Payment made for the use of capital (3) Payment made for the use of organisation (4) Payment made for the use of land 38. What is referred to as "Depository Services" ? (1) A new scheme of fixed deposits (2) A method of regulating stock exchanges (3) An agency for safe-keeping of securities (4) An advisory service to investors

39. If the price of an inferior good fails, its demand (1) rises (2) falls (3) remains constant (4) can be any of the above

40 The Marginal Utility Curve slopes downward from left to right indicating (1) A direct relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity (2) A constant relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity


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(3) A proportionate relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity (4) An inverse relationship between marginal utility and the stock of commodity

41. Capital output ratio of a commodity measures (1) its per unit cost of production (2) the amount of capital invested per unit of output (3) the ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output (4) the ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output 42. In equilibrium, a perfectly competitive firm will equate (1) marginal social cost with marginal social benefit (2) market supply with market demand (3) marginal profit with marginal cost (4) marginal revenue with marginal cost

43.The existence of a Parallel Economy or Black Money (1) makes the economy more competitive (2) makes the monetary policies less effective (3) ensures a better distribution of income and wealth (4) ensures increasing productive investment

44. Which of the following groups suffer the most from inflation? (1) Debtros (2) Creditors


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(3) Business class (4) Holders of real assets

45. An economy is in equilibrium when (1) planned consumption exceeds planned saving (2) planned consumption exceeds planned investment (3) intended investment equals intended investment (4) intended investment exceeds intended savings 46. The incidence of sales tax falls on (1) Consumers (2) Wholesale dealers (3) Retail dealers (4) Producers

47. What is "book-building-? (1) Preparing the income and expenditure ledgers of a company (book-keeping) (2) Manipulating the profit and loss statements of a company (3) A process of inviting subscriptions to a public offer of securities, essentially through a tendering process (4) Publishers activity 48. The method of calculating the national income by the product method is otherwise known as :


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(1) Income method (2) Value added method (3) Expenditure method (4) Net output method

49. Government securities are considered liquid because they are (1) backed by the Government treasury (2) convertible into other types of saving deposits (3) quickly and easily marketable (4) stable in value 50. Equilibrium is a condition that can (1) never change (2) change only if some outside factor changes (3) change only if some internal factor changes (4) change only if government policies change

51. Enterpreneurial ability is a special kind of labour that (1) is hired out to firms at high wages (2) organizes the process of production (3) produces new capital goods to earn interest (4) manages to avoid losses by continual innovation

52. What is "narrow money"? (1) The sum of currency in circulation and the demand deposits in banks (2) The sum of M1 money and the time deposits


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(3) The sum of currency in circulation with the public and the cash reserves held by banks (4) The market value of the Stocks held by all the holders excluding the promoters

53. State which of (lie following is correct ? The Consumer Price Index reflects : (1) the standard of living (2) the extent of inflation in the prices of consumer goods (3) the increasing per capita income (4) the growth of the economy

54. The main source of long-term credit for a business unit is (1) sale of stocks and bonds to the public (2) borrowing from banks (3) loans from the Government (4) deposits from the public and financial institutions 55. Transfer earning or alternative cost is otherwise known as (1) Variable cost (2) Implicit cost (3) Explicit cost (4) Opportunity cost (economic cost)

56. Which natioalised bank of India has a shining star as its emblem? (1) Syndicate Bank (2) Indian Bank


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(3) Bank of India (4) Bank of Baroda 57. The best measure to assess a country's economic growth is (1) per capita income at constant prices (2) per capita income at current prices (3) gross domestic product at current prices (4) gross national product at current prices

58. Which of the following concepts are most closely associated with J.M. Keynes ? (1) Control of money supply (2) Marginal utility theory (3) Indifference curve analysis (4) Marginal efficiency of capital 59. Devaluation of money means : (1) decrease in the internal value of money (2) decrease in the external value of money (3) decrease in both internal and external value of money (4) the government takes back currency notes of any denominations

60. Demand of commodity mainly depends upon- (1) Purchasing will (2) Purchasing power (3) Tax policy (4) Advertisement


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61. What are the main components of basic social infrastructure of an economy ? (1) Education, Industry and Agriculture (2) Education. Health and Civil amenities (3) Transport. Health and Banks (4) Industry. Trade and Transport

62. Bank rate is that rate on which- (1) Any bank lends money to an individual (2) Slate Bank of India gives loan to the rural banks (3) Central Bank of Country lends money to the commercial banks (4) Rural bank gives loan to cooperative societies 63.Basic infrastructure facilities in Economics are known as : (1) Human capital (2) Physical capital (3) Social overheads capital (4) Working capital 64. Evaluating all the options to find out most suitable solution to business problems is inter-displinary activities, it is called (1) Professional research (2) Management research (3) Operational research (4) Commercial research


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65. A seller or buyer protects his business or holdings from changing prices and takes action against it. It is known as- (1) defence (2) betting (3) inter-trading (4) mortgage

66. Devaluation usually causes the internal prices to : (1) fall (2) rise (3) remain unchanged (4) None of the above 67. According to Keynesian theory of income determination, at full employment, a fall in aggregate demand causes (1) a fall in prices of output and resources (2) a fall in real gross National product and employment (3) a rise in real gross National product and investment (4) a rise in prices of output and resources

68. Who are the creditors of a Corporation ? (1) Bondholders (2) Stockholders (3) Both Bond and Stock holders (4) Holders of preferred stock 69. When aggregate supply exceeds aggregate demand


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(1) unemployment falls (2) prices rise (3) inventories accumulate (4) unemployment develops

70. Equilibrium price means (1) Price determined by demand and supply (2) Price determined by Cost and Profit (3) Price determined by Cost of production (4) Price determined to maximise profit 71. When marginal utility is zero, the total utility is (1) Minimum (2) Increasing (3) Maximum (4) Decreasing 72. Which one of the following taxes is collected and utilized by the State Governments ? (1) Personal income tax (2) Corporation tax (3) Land revenue (4) Custom duties 73. Which unit of valuation is known as "Paper gold"? (1) Eurodollar (2) Petrodollar (3) SDR (4) CDR


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74. Which amidst the following is not a credit rating agency ? (1) CRISIL (2) CARE (3) ICRA (4) IFCI

75. The ratio of a bank's cash holdings to its total deposit liabilities is called the (1) Variable Reserve Ratio (2) Cash Reserve Ratio (3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (4) Minimum Reserve Ratio 76. Investment is equal to (1) gross total of all types of physical capital assets (2) gross total of all capital assets minus wear and tear (3) stock of plants, machines and equipments (4) None of these

77. In a business, raw materials, components, work in progress and finished goods are jointly regarded as (1) capital stock (2) inventory (3) investment (4) net worth 78. The difference between the GNP and the NNP is equal to the (1) consumer expenditure on durable goods (2) direct tax revenue (3) indirect tax revenue


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(4) capital depreciation

79. Deficit financing is an instrument of (1) monetary policy (2) credit policy (3) fiscal policy (4) tax policy 80. A closed economy is one which (1) Does not trade with other countries (2) Does not possess any means of international transport (3) Does not have a coatastal line (4) Is not a member of the U.N.O.

81. Bank rate is the rate of interest: (1) At which public borrows money from Commercial Banks (2) At which public borrows money from R.B.I. (3) At which Commercial Banks borrow money from R.B.I. (4) At which Commercial Banks borrow money from the public 82. Operating Surplus arises in the (1) Government Sector (2) Production for self-consumption (3) Subsistence farming (4) Enterprise Sector


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83. Which of the following can be used for checking inflation temporarily ? (1) Increase in wages (2) Decrease in money supply (3) Decrease in taxes (4) None of these 84. Interest on public debt is part of (1) Transfer payments by the enterprises (2) Transfer payments by the government (3) National income (4) Interest payments by households

85. A commercial bank law creates credit only if it has (1) Cash in the vault (2) Excess reserves (3) Permission of Reserve Bank of India (4) Cooperation of other banks 86. Investment and savings are kept equal through a change in the level of (1) Consumption (2) Investment (3) Government expenditure (4) Income

87. Which of the following is not required while computing Gross National Product (GNP) ? (1) Net foreign investment (2) Private investment (3) Per capita income of citizens


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(4) Purchase of goods by government 88. "Dear Money" means (1) low rate of interest (2) high rate of interest (3) depression (4) inflation

89. Sellers market denotes a situation where : (1) commodities are available at competitive rates (2) demand exceeds supply (3) supply exceeds demand (4) supply and demand are evenly balanced 90. "Legal Tender Money" refers to: (1) Cheques (2) Drafts (3) Bill of exchange (4) Currency notes 91. The sum total of incomes received for the services of labour, land or capital in a country is called: (1) Gross domestic product (2) National income (3) Gross domestic income (4) Gross national income

92. Which of the following taxes is such which does not cause rise in price ?


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(1) Import duty (2) Income tax (3) Octoroi (4) Sales tax 93. Which of the following results by dividing national income by size of population ? (1) Per capita income (2) Subsistence level (3) Subsistence expenditure (4) Per capita production

94. Gresham's Law means (1) Good money replaces bad money in circulation (2) Bad money replaces good money in circulation (3) Good money promotes bad money in the system (4) Bad money promotes good money in the system 95. While determining income the expenditure on which of the following items is not considered as investment ? (1) Construction of factory (2) Computer (3) Increase in the stock of unsold articles (4) Stock and share in joint stock company

96. Bull and bear are related to which commercial activity ? (1) Banking (2) E-commerce


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(3) International trade (4) Stock market 97. The share broker who sells shares in the apprehension of falling prices of snares is called (1) Bull (2) Dog (3) Bear (4) Stag

98. Devaluation makes import (1) Competitive (2) Inelastic (3) Cheaper (4) Dearer

99. The fixed cost on such factors of production which are neither hired nor bought by the firm is called (1) social cost (2) opportunity cost (3) economic cost (4) surcharged cost 100. The break-even point' is where (1) marginal revenue equals marginal cost (2) average revenue equals average cost (3) total revenue equals total cost (4) None of these

101. Rate of interest is determined by


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(1) The rate of return on the capital invested (2) Central Government (3) Liquidity preference (4) Commercial Banks 102. NIFTY is associated with (1) Cloth Market Price Index (2) Consumer Price Index (3) BSE Index (4) NSE Index 103. One of the essential conditions of Monopolistic competition is (1) Many buyers but one seller (2) Price discrimination (3) Product differentiation (4) Homogeneous product

104. Gresham’s law is related to (1) Consumption and demand (2) Supply and demand (3) Circulation of money (4) Deficit financing 105. In a Laissez-faire economy (1) the customers take all the decisions regarding production of all the commodities


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(2) the Government does not interfere in the free functioning of demand and supply forces in the market (3) the private-sector takes all the decisions for price-determination of various commodities produced (4) the Government controls the allocation of all the factors of production 106. In calculating National Income which of the following is included? (1) Services of housewives (2) Pensions (3) Income of smugglers (4) Income of watchmen 107. Who among the following has suggested tax on expenditure? (1) Dalton (2) Kaldor (3) Musgrave (4) GautamMathur 108. Bank-rate is the rate at which (1) a commercial bank borrows loans from some other commercial bank (2) the central bank borrows loans from the Government (3) the commercial bank gives loans to the public (4) the central bank re-discounts the commercial bills brought to it by the commercial banks

109. The annual record for all the monetary transactions of a country with other countries of the world is known as


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(1) Balance of trade (2) Balance of monetary receipts (3) Balance of payments (4) Balance Sheet 110. A country's balance of trade is unfavourable when — (1) exports exceed imports (2) imports exceed exports (3) terms of trade become unfavourable (4) None of these

111. The data collection for national income estimation is conducted in India by— (1) The Finance Ministry of the Government of India (2) The RBI (3) The NSSO (National Sample Survey Organisation (4) None of these

112. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its (1) production (2) production and sale (3) production and transportations (4) production, transportation and sale

113. Which of the following is not viewed as national debt ? (1) Life Insurance Policies (2) Long-term Government Bonds


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(3) National Savings Certificates (4) Provident Fund 114. Scheduled Banks have to be registered with (1) SISBI (2) RBI (3) Finance Ministry (4) SB1 115. Which organisation collects data for the unorganised sector ? (1) NSSO (2) CSO (3) ASI (4) RBI

116. In the law of demand, the statement "Other things remain constant" means (1) income of consumer should not change (2) price of other goods should not change (3) taste of consumer should not change (4) All of the above 117. A firm is in equilibrium when its (1) marginal cost equals the marginal revenue (2) total cost is minimum (3) total revenue is maximum (4) average revenue and marginal revenue are equal

118. Given the money wages, if the price level in an economy increases, then the real wages will


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(1) increase (2) decrease (3) remain constant (4) become flexible 119. The difference between visible exports and visible imports is defined as (1) Balance of trade (2) Balance of payment (3) Balanced terms of trade (4) Gains from trade

120. What is Value Added Tax (VAT) ? (1) A simple, transparent, easy to pay tax imposed on consumers (2) A new initiative taken by the Government to increase the tax-burden of high income groups (3) A single tax that replaces State taxes like, surcharge, turnover tax, etc. (4) A new tax to be imposed on the producers of capital goods

121. The outcome of 'devaluation of currency' is (1) increased export and improvement in balance of payment (2) increased export and foreign reserve deficiency (3) increased import and improvement in balance of payment (4) increased export and import

122. The term 'Green GNP' emphasises (1) rapid growth of GNP


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(2) increase in per capita income (3) economic development (4) sustainable development

123. What is referred to as 'Depository Services? (1) A new scheme of fixed de posits (2) A method for regulating stock exchanges (3) An agency for safe-keeping of securities (4) An advisory service to investors 124. The 'Interest Rate Policy' is a component of (1) Fiscal Policy (2) Monetary Policy (3) Trade Policy (4) Direct Control

125. 'Gresham's Law’ in Economics relates to (1) supply and demand (2) circulation of currency (3) consumption of supply (4) distribution of goods and services 126. A mixed economy works primarily through the (1) market mechanism (2) central allocative machinery (3) market mechanism regulated by Government policy (4) market mechanism guided by Government participation and planning


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127. How will a reduction in Bank Rate' affect the availability of credit ? (1) Credit will increase (2) Credit will not increase (3) Credit will decrease (4) None of these 128. When a large number of investors in a country transfer investments elsewhere because of disturbed economic conditions, it is called (1) Transfer of Capital (2) Escape of Capital (3) Outflow of Capital (4) Flight of Capital

129. 'Golden Handshake Scheme' is associated with (1) inviting foreign companies (2) private investment in public enterprises (3) establishing joint enterprises (4) voluntary retirement 130. Inflation occurs when aggregate supply is (1) more than aggregate demand (2) less than aggregate demand (3) equal to aggregate demand (4) None of these

131. In Economics, production means (1) manufacturing (2) making (3) creating utility (4) farming


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132. According to modern thinking, the law of diminishing returns applies to (1) agriculture (2) industry (3) mining (4) all fields of production 133. The concept that under a system of free enterprise, it is consumers who decide what goods and services shall be produced and in what quantities is known as (1) Consumer Protection (2) Consumer's Decision (3) Consumer Preference (4) Consumers Sovereignty

134. Seawater, fresh air, etc., are regarded in Economics as (1) Giffen goods (2) inferior goods (3) free goods (4) normal goods 135. If the price of tea fails, demand for coffee will (1) increase (2) decrease (3) remain same (4) None of these 136. Which of the following does not determine supply of labour ? (1) Size and age-structure of population (2) Nature of work (3) Marginal productivity of labour (4) Work-leisure ratio


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137. Industrial exit policy means (1) forcing foreign companies to leave India (2) forcing business units to move out of congested localities (3) allowing manufacturers to shift their line of products (4) allowing business units to close down

138. Capital formation in an economy depends on (1) Total Income (2) Total demand (3) Total savings (4) Total production 139. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it shall be called (1) Proportional tax (2) Progressive tax (3) Lump sum tax (4) Regressive tax

140. Prime cost is equal to (1) Variable cost plus administrative cost (2) Variable cost plus fixed costs (3) Variable cost only (4) Fixed cost only 141. New capital issue is placed in (1) Secondary market (2) Grey market


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(3) Primary market (4) Black market 142. Bank deposits that can be with-drawn without notice are called (1) account payee deposits (2) fixed deposits (3) variable deposits (4) demand deposits

143. An expenditure that has been made and cannot be recovered is called (1) Variable cost (2) Opportunity cost (3) Sunk cost (4) Operational cost 144. The practice of selling goods in a foreign country at a price below their domestic selling price is called (1) 'diplomacy' (2) 'discrimination’ (3) 'dumping (4) 'double pricing'

145. Who propounded the 'market law? (1) Adam Smith (2) J.B. Say (3) T.R. Malthus (4) David Recardo

146. Which of the following is the classification of Industries on the basis of raw-materials ? (1) Small Scale - Large scale (2) Primary and Secondary


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(3) Basic and Consumer (4) Agro-based and Mineral based

147. What does ECS in banking transactions stand for ? (1) Excess Credit Supervisor (2) Extra Cash Status (3) Exchange Clearing Standard (4) Electronic Clearing Service

148. The national income consists of a collection of goods and services reduced to common basis by being measured in terms of money."— Who says this ? (1) Samuelson (2) Kuznets (3) Hicks (4) Pigxi

149. Capital: Output Ratio of a measures (1) its per unit cost of production (2) the amount of capital invested per unit of output (3) the ratio of capital depreciation to quantity of output (4) the ratio of working capital employed to quantity of output 150. Which one of the following items is not included in the current account of India's Balance of Payments ? (1) Short-term commercial borrowings (2) Non-monetary gold movements


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(3) Investment income (4) Transfer payments

151. Engel's Law states the relationship between (1) quantity demanded and price of a commodity (2) quantity demanded and price of substitutes (3) quantity demanded and tastes of the consumers (4) quantity demanded and income of the consumers

152. "Supply creates its own demand" - Who said this ? (1) J. B. Say (2) J. S. Mill (3) J. M. Keynes (4) Senior 153. The demand curve for a Giffen good is (1) upward rising (2) downward falling (3) parallel to the quantity axis (4) parallel to the price axis

154. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in (1) the Agricultural sector (2) the Factory sector (3) the Service sector (4) All these sectors 155. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called


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(1) Scarce currency (2) Soft currency (3) Gold currency (4) Hot currency

156. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development ? (1) GDP (2) Disposable income (3) NNP (4) Per capita income 157. All of the goods which are scarce and limited in supply are called (1) Luxury goods (2) Expensive goods (3) Capital goods (4) Economic goods

158. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which (1) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public (2) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks (3) Government loans are floated (4) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers 159. Which is the most essential function of an entrepreneur? (1) Supervision (2) Management (3) Marketing (4) Risk bearing

160. Knowledge, technical skill, education etc. in economics, are regarded as (1) social-overhead capital (2) human capital


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(3) tangible physical capital (4) working capital 161. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its (1) production (2) production and sale (3) production and transportation (4) production, transportation and sale

162. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with (1) Interest rate (2) Bank rate (3) Wage rate (4) Exchange rate 163. Imputed gross rent of owner-occupied buildings is a part of (1) capital formation (2) final consumption (3) intermediate consumption (4) consumer durable 164. Free Trade refers to (1) free movement of goods from one country to another (2) movement of goods free of cost (3) unrestricted exchange of goods and service (4) trade free of duty


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165. Economies of Scale means reduction in (1) unit cost of production (2) unit cost of distribution (3) total cost of production (4) total cost of distribution 166. The definition of 'small-scale industry' in India is based on (1) sales by the unit (2) investment in machines and equipments (3) market coverage (4) export capacity

167. When the total product rises at an increasing rate, the (1) marginal product is zero (2) marginal product is rising (3) marginal product is falling (4) marginal product remains constant 168. With which form of economy is the term 'Laissez-faire' associated? (1) Capitalist economy (2) Socialist economy (3) Mixed economy (4) Command economy 169. The supply of agricultural products is generally (1) elastic (2) inelastic


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(3) perfectly elastic (4) perfectly inelastic 170. Which of the following taxes is not collected by the Central Government ? (1) Income tax (2) Customs duty (3) Professional tax (4) Excise duty

171. The permission given to a bank customer to draw cheques in excess of his current account balance is called (1) a personal loan (2) an ordinary loan (3) discounting a bill of exchange (4) an overdraft 172. 'NABARD' is associated with the development of (1) agricultural sector and rural areas (2) heavy industries (3) banking sector (4) real estates

173. Government takes 'ways and means advances' from (1) RBI (2) IDBI (3) SBI (4) ICICI 174. Kisan Credit Card scheme was introduced in


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(1) 1991 (2) 1996 (3) 1998 (4) 2000 175. Compared to the rich the poor save (1) A larger part of their income (2) An equal part of their income (3) A smaller part of their income (4) All of their incomes

176. Cheap money means (1) Low rates of interest (2) Low level of saving (3) Low level of income (4) Low level of standard of living 177. One of the main factors that led to rapid expansion of Indian exports is (1) Imposition of import duties (2) Liberalisation of the economy (3) Recession in other countries (4) Diversification of exports

178. When too much money is chasing too few goods, the situation is (1) Deflation (2) Inflation (3) Recession (4) Stagflation


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179. The gradation and standardisation of agricultural products are conducted through (1) Food Corporation of India (2) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (3) Indian Standards Institution (4) Central Statistical Organisation

180. Which of the statements is correct about India's national income? (1) Percentage share of agriculture is higher than services (2) Percentage share of industry is higher than agriculture (3) Percentage share of services is higher than industry (4) Percentage share of services is higher than agriculture and industry put together 181. Who among the following is not a classical economist? (1) David Ricardo (2) John Stuart Mill (3) Thomas Malthus (4) John Maynard Keynes

182. According to the Employment Outlook 2007 reports of the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), the number of new jobs created in India every year from 2000 to 2005 is (1) 5 million (2) 8 million (3) 11 million (4) 13 million 183. Which of the following items is a major item of Indian export?


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(1) Computer chips (2) Potato chips (3) Textile garments (4) Car engines

184. Indian agriculture is typically characterised as (1) land surplus, labour scarce economy (2) land surplus, labour surplus economy (3) land scarce, labour surplus economy (4) land scarce, labour scarce economy 185. The process of curing inflation by reducing money supply is called (1) Cost-push inflation (2) Demand-pull inflation (3) Disinflation (4) Reflation

186. Long-term funds in the capital market can be raised either by borrowing from certain institutions or through (1) issue of note (2) taking loan from Government (3) issue of securities (4) taking loan from foreign institutions 187. How far does the Exclusive Economic Zone of a country extend from her coast?


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(1) 120 km (2) 220 km (3) 320 km (4) 420 km

188. Which of the following is not considered as National Debt ? (1) National Savings Certificates (2) Long-term Government Bonds (3) Insurance Policies (4) Provident Fund 189. The main determinant of real wage is (1) extra earning (2) nature of work (3) promotion prospect (4) purchasing power of money

190. Which of the following is not included in the National Income? (1) Imputed rent of owner -occupied houses (2) Government expenditure on making new bridges (3) Winning a lottery (4) Commission paid to an agent for sale of house 191. Personal disposable income is (1) always equal to personal income (2) always more than personal income (3) equal to personal income minus indirect taxes (4) equal to personal income minus direct taxes


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192. Who prepared the first estimate of National Income for the country ? (1) Central Statistical Organisation (2) National Income Committee (3) Dadabhai Naoroji (4) National Sample Survey Organisation 193. A refrigerator operating in a chemist's shop is an example of (1) free good (2) final good (3) producers good (4) consumer's good

194. Disinvestements is (1) offloading of shares of privates companies to government (2) offloading of government shares to private companies (3) increase in investment (4) closing down of business concerns (SSC CPO Sub-Inspector Exam. 09.11.2008) 195. Which one of the following is a developmental expenditure? (1) Irrigation expenditure (2) Civil administration (3) Debt services (4) Grant-in-aid


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196. When average cost production (AC) falls, marginal cost of production must be. (1) rising (2) Falling (3) Greater than the average cost (4) Less than the average cost 197. Green banking means (1) development of forestry by banks (2) financing of environmental friendly projects by banks (3) financing of irrigation projects by banks (4) None of the above

198. Which one of the following is not a quantitative credit control techniques ? (1) Bank Rate (2) Cash Reserve Ratio (3) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (4) Increase of interest rate on saving deposit 199. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (1) Good money drives bad money out of circulation (2) Bad money drives good money out of circulation (3) Good and bad money cannot circulate together (4) Cannot say


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200. Devaluation of currency leads to (1) expansion of export trade (2) contraction of import trade (3) expansion of import substitution (4) All of the above 201. Open market operations of RBI refer to buying and selling of (1) Commercial bills (2) Foreign exchange (3) Gold (4) Government bonds

202. Production function expresses (1) technological relationship between physical inputs and output (2) financial relationship between physical inputs and output (3) relationship between finance and technology (4) relationship between factors of production 203. "Interest is a reward for parting with liquidity" is according to (1) Keynes (2) Marshall (3) Haberler (4) Ohlin

204. Extension or contraction of quantity demanded of a commodity is a result of a change in the (1) unit price of the commodity


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(2) income of the consumer (3) tastes of the consumer (4) climate of the region 205. Cross elasticity of demand between petrol and car is (1) infinite (2) positive (3) zero (4) negative

206. 'Supply creates its own demand". This statement is related to (1) Prof. J.B. Say (2) John Robinson (3) Adam Smith (4) J.S.Mill 207. The Law of Demand expresses (1) effect of change in price of a commodity on Its demand (2) effect of change in demand of a commodity on its price (3) effect of change in demand of a commodity over the supply of its substitute (4) None of the above

208. A situation where we have people whose level of income is not sufficient to meet the minimum consumption expenditure is considered as (1) Absolute Poverty (2) Relative Poverty (3) Urban Poverty (4) Rural Poverty


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209. Full convertibility of a rupee means (1) purchase of foreign exchange for rupees freely (2) payment for imports in terms of rupees (3) repayment of loans in terms of rupees (4) determination of rate of exchange between rupee and foreign currencies freely by the market forces of demand and supply

210. An exceptional demand curve is one that moves (1) upward to the right (2) downward to the right (3) horizontally (4) vertically 211. Production function explains the relationship between (1) initial inputs and ultimate output (2) inputs and ultimate consumption (3) output and consumption (4) output and exports

212. The term stagflation refers to a situation where (1) growth has no relation with the change in prices 12) rate of growth and prices both are decreasing (3) rate of growth in faster than the rate of price increase (4) rate of growth is slower than the rate of price crease

213. In Economics the "Utility' and 'Usefulness’ have


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(1) same meaning (2) different meaning (3) opposite meaning (4) None of the above 214. Nature of unemployment in agriculture in India is (1) only seasonal (2) only disguised (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above 215. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is (1) zero (2) positive (3) negative (4) imaginary number

216. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is (1) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted (2) the cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production (3) the actual cost incurred (4) the next best alternative output 217. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period of referred to as (1) economic rent (2) net rent (3) quasi-rent (4) super-normal rent


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218. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ? (1) Saving increases (2) Lending decreases (3) Cost of production increases (4) Return on capital increases

219. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ? (1) Value Added Method (2) Income Method (3) Investment Method (4) Expenditure Method 220. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a (1) Labour Surplus Economy (2) Capital Surplus Economy (3) Developed Economy (4) Developing Economy

221. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ? (1) A teacher teaching students in his class (2) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (3) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home (4) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence

222. Net National Product of a country is


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(1) GDP minus depreciation allowances (2) GDP plus net income from abroad (3) GNP minus net income from abroad (4) GNP minus depreciation allowances 223. Which one of the following is not a method of estimating National Income ? (1) Expenditure method (2) Product method (3) Matrix method (4) Income method

224. The monetary policy is India is formulated by (1) Central Government (2) Industrial Financial Corporation of India (3) Reserve Bank of India (4) Industrial Development Bank of India 225. A short-term government security paper is called (1) Share (2) Debenture (3) Mutual fund (4) Treasury bill 226. Under which market condition do firms have excess capacity? (1) Perfect competition (2) Monopolistic competition (3) Duopoly (4) Oligopoly


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227. Price theory is also known as (1) Macro Economics (2) Development Economics (3) Public Economics (4) Micro Economics 228. At present, India is following (1) Fixed exchange rate (2) Floating exchange rate (3) Pegged up exchange rate (4) Pegged down exchange rate 229. National Income is the (1) Net National Product at market price (2) Net National Product at factor cost (3) Net Domestic Product at market price (4) Net domestic Product at factor cost 230. A want becomes a demand only when it is backed by the (1) Ability to purchase (2) Necessity to buy (3) Desire to buy (4) Utility of the product 231. The terms "Micro Economics" and "Macro Economics" were coined by (1) Alfred Marshall (2) Ragner Nurkse


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(3) Ragner Frisch (4) J.M. Keynes 232. During periods of inflation, tax rates should (1) increase (2) decrease (3) remain constant (4) fluctuate 233. "Economics is what it ought to be" - This statement refers to (1) Normative economics (2) Positive economics (3) Monetary economics (4) Fiscal economics 234. The excess of price a person is to pay rather than forego the consumption of the commodity is called (1) Price (2) Profit (3) Producers surplus (4) Consumer's surplus 235. The existence of a parallel economy or Black Money (1) makes the economy more competitive (2) makes the monetary policies less effective (3) ensures a better distribution of income and wealth (4) ensures increasing productive investment 236. Which of the following taxes are levied and collected by the centre but their net proceeds are wholly transferred to states ?


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(1) Expenditure Tax and Gift Tax (2) Additional Duties of Excise in lieu of Sales Tax (3) Stamps and Registration (4) Taxes on Advertisement 237. When the price of a commodity falls, we can expect (1) the supply of it to increase (2) the demand for it to fall (3) the demand for it to stay constant (4) the demand for it to increase 238. The bank cheques are processed by using (1) OCR (2) MICR (3) OMR (4) PMR 239. When was the Minimum Wages Act enacted in India ? (1) 1936 (2) 1948 (3) 1951 (4) 1956

240. Which one of the following does not deal with export promotion? (1) Trade Development Authority (2) Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (3) Cooperative Marketing Societies (4) State Trading Corporation of India


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241. Which of the following sets belongs to Central tax ? (1) Excise duty. Sales tax and Custom duty (2) Excise duty. Custom duty and Income tax (3) Income tax, Custom duty and House tax (4) Custom duty. Entertainment tax and Income tax

242. The most distinguishing feature of oligopaly is (1) number of firms (2) interdependence (3) negligible influence on price (4) price leadership 243. Who defined investment as "the construction of a new capital asset like machinery or factory building"? (1) Hansen (2) J.M. Keynes (3) Harrod (4) J.R. Hicks

244. 'Law of demand' implies that when there is excess demand for a commodity, then (1) price of the commodity falls (2) price of the commodity remains same (3) price of the commodity rises (4) quantity demanded of the commodity falls


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245. In the context of the stock market, IPO stands for (1) Immediate Payment Order (2) Internal Policy Obligation (3) Initial Public Offer (4) International Payment Obligation

246. Consequent upon the recommendations of the Working Group on Rural Banks, 5 Rural Regional Banks were initially set up in the year (1) 1973 (2) 1974 (3) 1975 (4) 1976 247. Poverty in less developed countries is largely due to (1) voluntary idleness (2) income inequality (3) lack of cultural activities (4) lack of intelligence of the people

248. Which one of I he following categories of workers is termed as cultivators ? (1) Those who own land and cultivate (2) Those who lease in land and cultivate (3) Those who cultivate the land of others (4) Those who own land and lease in from others or institutions and cultivate 249. Cheap Money means


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(1) Low Rate of Interest (2) Low level of Savings (3) Low level Income (4) Excess of Black Money

250. Disinvestment in Public Sector is called (1) Liberalisation (2) Globalisation (3) Industrialisation (4) Privatisation 251. An individual's actual standard of living can be assessed by (1) Gross National Income (2) Net National Income (3) Per Capita Income (4) Disposable Personal Income

252. When there is an official change in the exchange rate of domestic currency, then it is called : (1) Appreciation (2) Depreciation (3) Revaluation (4) Deflation 253. inflation redistributes income and wealth in favour of: (1) Pensioners (2) Poor (3) Middle class (4) Rich 254. The first computer made available for commercial use was : (1) MANIAC (2) ENIAC


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(3) UNTVAC (4) EDSAC

255. The reserves held by Commercial Banks over and above the statutory minimum, with the RBI are called (1) Cash reserves (2) Deposit reserves (3) Excess reserves (4) Momentary reserves 256. Who is authorised to issue coins in India ? (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) Ministry of Finance (3) State Bank of India (4) Indian Overseas Bank

257. The 'break-even' point is where (1) marginal revenue equals marginal cost (2) average revenue equals average cost (3) total revenue equals total cost (4) None of the above 258. Rate of interest is determined by (1) The rate of return on the capital invested (21 Central Government (3) Liquidity preference (4) Commercial Banks


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259. The total value of goods and services produced in a country during a given period is (1) Disposable income (2) National income (3) Per capita income (4) Net national income

260. Which one of the following is not a function of the central bank in an economy ? (1) Dealing with foreign exchange (2) Controlling monetary policy (3) Controlling government spending (4) Acting as a banker's bank

261. The government set up a committee headed by the Chairman, Central Board of Direct Taxes some lime back to go into - (1) codification of tax laws (2) the entire structure of tax laws including the question of imposition of bank tax (3) the concerns of the foreign investors in India with regard to taxation matters (4) aspects of generation of black money, its transfer abroad and bringing back such money into India's legitimate financial system 262. Per capita income is equal to (1) National Income Total Population of the country (2) National Income + Population (3) National Income - Population


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(4) National Income x Population 263. A favourable Balance of Trade of a country implies that (1) Imports are greater than Exports (2) Exports are greater than Imports (3) Both Imports and Exports are equal (4) Rising Imports and Falling Exports

264. The value of a commodity expressed in terms of money is known as (1) Price (2) Utility (3) Value (4) Wealth 265. Reserve Bank of India was nationalised in (1) 1948 (2) 1947 (3) 1949 (4) 1950 266. National Social Assistance Programme is aimed at providing (1) financial support to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (2) old age pension to very poor (3) insurance for the poor (4) All of the above

267. In a Capitalistic Economy, the prices are determined by : (1) Demand and Supply (2) Government Authorities


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(3) Buyers in the Market (4) Sellers in the Market 268. Tooth paste is a product sold under: (1) Monopolistic Competition (2) Perfect Competition (3) Monopoly (4) Duopoly

269. In a period of inflation and price rise the supply of money remains (1) the same (2) increases (3) decreases (4) increases or decreases proportionately. 270. 'Personal Income' equals (1) The household sector's income (2) Private income minus savings of the corporate sector minus corporation tax (3) Personal disposable income plus miscellaneous receipts of the Goverment (4) All of the above

271. What is dual pricing? (1) Wholesale price and Retail pricing (2) Pricing by agents and Pricing by retaliers (3) Price fixed by Government and Price in open market (4) Daily prices and Weekly prices


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272. If the price of Pepsi decreases relative to the price of Coke and 7-Up, the demand for (1) Coke will decrease (2) 7-Up will decrease (3) Coke and 7-Up will increase (4) Coke and 7-Up will decrease

273. The demand curve shows that price and quantity demanded are (1) directly related only (2) directly proportional and also directly related (3) inversely proportional and also inversely related (4) inversely related only 274. As output increases, average fixed cost (1) increases (2) falls (3) remains constant (4) first increases, then falls

275. Which of the following is a part of tertiary sector? (1) Power and transportation (2) Animal Husbandly (3) Cotton manufacturing (4) Cultivation of crops 276. Fixed cost is known as


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(1) Special cost (2) Direct cost (3) Prime cost (4) Overhead cost

277. What was the objective of Command Area Development Programme? (1) To ensure that land is given to die tillers (2) To ensure better utilisation of irrigation potential (3) To develop the areas under the command of Army (4) Poverty alleviation in selected areas

278. A mixed economy refers to an economic system where (1) The economy functions with foreign collaboration (2) Only the private sector operates under government control (3) Doth the government and the private sectors operate sectors operate simultaneously (4) No foreign investment is allowed 279. The demand for which of the following commodity will not rise in spite of a fall in its price? (1) Television (2) Refrigerator (3) Salt (4) Meat

280. In the long-run equilibrium, a competitive firm earns (1) Super-normal profit (2) Profits equal to other firms (3) Normal profit


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(4) No profit 281. Production function relates (1) Cost to output (2) Cost to input (3) Wages to profit (4) Inputs to output 282. According to the classical system, saving is a function of (1) Income (2) The interest rate (3) The real wage (4) The Price level

283. A Black Market is a situation wherein (1) Goods are loaded by the producers (2) Goods are sold secretly (3) Goods are sold at prices higher than what is fixed by the Government (4) Goods are made available (sold) only after there is a rise in prices 284. Distribution of food rains operates under a two tier system with the introduction of (1) Targetted Public Distribution System (2) The Consumers Cooperatives (3) The Cooperative Marketing Societies (4) The Service Cooperatives

285. If total utility is maximum at a point, then marginal utility is


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(1) positive (2) zero (3) negative (4) positive but decreasing 286. Which one of the following items is included in the national income account? (1) Services of housewives (2) Income of smugglers (3) Services of Sadhus (4) Services of night-watchmen 287. The situation in which total revenue is equal to total cost, is known as (1) monopolistic competition (2) equilibrium level of output (3) break-even point (4) perfect competition

288. The relationship between price of a commodity and the demand for it (1) is a positive relationship (2) is an inverse relationship (3) They are independent of each other (4) They do not have any relationship 289. An increase in national income because of an increase in price is called (1) an increase in national income in real terms (2) an increase in national income at constant prices (3) an increase in money national income (4) an increase in national income at base year prices


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290. Commercialisation of agriculture implies (1) cultivation of timbers (2) plantation (3) production of crops for sale (4) production of crops like wheat or rice 291. Payment of water charges by the farmers to the govern-ment represents (1) intermediate consumption (2) final consumption (3) fixed investment (4) inventory investment 292. In accounting terms, what constitutes the 'closing stock'? (1) Net Investment (2) Gross Investment-Capital Losses (3) Opening Stock-Capital Losses (4) Opening Stock + Net Investment - Capital Losses

293. 'Quota'is (1) tax levied on imports (2) imports of capital goods (3) limit on the quantity of imports (4) limit on the quantity of exports


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294. The 'Canons of Taxation’ were propounded by (1) Edwin Canon (2) Adam Smith (3) J.M. Keynes (4) Dalton

295. 'PROTECTION' means (1) Restrictions imposed on import trade (2) Protection to home industries (3) No free exchange of goods and services between two countries (4) All of the above 296. National income accounting is the study of the income and expenditure of the entire (1) family (2) state (3) economy (4) organisation

297. The problem of Economics arises from (1) Plenty (2) Scarcity of goods (3) More wants and less goods (4) AH of the above 298. Agricultural income tax is a source of revenue to (1) Central Government (2) State Government


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(3) Local Administration (4) Centre and State Governments 299. Beyond a certain point deficit financing will certainly lead to (1) inflation (2) deflation (3) recession (4) economic stagnation

300. In public budgets, zero-base budgeting was first introduced in (1) USA (2) UK (3) France (4) Sweden 301. Why is rent earned by land even in the long run ? (1) Land has original and indestructible power (2) Land is a man made factor (3) Its supply is inelastic in the short run (4) Its supply is inelastic in the long run

302. In a highly developed country the relative contribution of agriculture to GDP Is (1) relatively high (2) relatively low (3) the same as that of other sectors (4) zero 303. Who is called the Father of Economics?


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(1) J.M. Keynes (2) Malthus (3) Ricardo (4) Adam Smith 304. The term "marker in Economics means (1) A central place (2) Presence of competition (3) Place where goods are stored (4) Shops and super bazars 305. Division of labour is limited by (1) the number of workers (2) hours of work (3) extent of the market (4) working space 306. The four factors of production are (1) land, labour, capital, organisation, (2) land, electricity, water, labour (3) labour, capital, land, rainfall, (4) labour, climate, land, tools,

307. ISI mark is not given to which of the following products? (1) Electrical goods (2) Hosiery goods (3) Biscuits (4) Cloth 308. The term utility means


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(1) usefulness of a commodity (2) the satisfaction which a commodity yields (3) the service which a commodity is capable of rendering (4) None of these

309. Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by (1) the Central Bank of the country (2) the forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market (3) the price of gold (4) the purchasing power of currencies 310. The size of the market for a product refers to (1) the number of people in the given area (2) the geographical area served by the proudcers (3) the volume of potential sales of the product (4) the number of potential buyers of the product 311. Economic problem arises mainly due to (1) overpopulation (2) unemployment (3) scarcity of resources (4) lack of industries 312. Bank rate Is the rate of interest (1) at which public borrows money from Commercial Bank (2) at which public borrows money from RBI (3) at which Commercial Banks borrow money from RBI (4) at which Commercial Banks borrow money from public


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313. If the change in demand for a commodity is at a faster rate than change in the price of the commodity, the demand is (1) perfectly inelastic (2) elastic (3) perlectly elastic (4) inelastic

314. Which of the following are not fixed costs? (1) Rent on land (2) Municipal taxes (3) Wages paid to workers (4) Insurance charges 315. The demand for money, according to Keynes, is for (1) speculative motive (2) transaction motive (3) precautionary motive (4) All the above motives

316. The sale proceeds of Government Bonds come under the budget head of (1) Revenue Receipts (2) Current Expenditure (3) Capital Outlay (4) Capital Receipts

317. The tax levied on gross sales revenue from business transactions is called (1) Turnover Tax (2) Sales Tax (3) Capital Gains Tax (4) Corporation Tax


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318. Liquidity Preference means (1) holding assets in the form of bonds and shares (2) holding assets in the form of cash (3) creation of immovable property (4) assets in the form of jewellery 319. A currency having a falling exchange rate due to continuing balance of payments deficit is called a (1) Soft currency (2) Hard currency (3) Scarce currency (4) Surplus currency 320. Aggregate net value of the out-put in one year is the (1) National income at factor cost (2) Gross Domestic Product at market prices (3) Net National Product at market prices (4) Gross National Product at market prices

321. Product differentiation is the most important feature of (1) pure competition (2) monopolistic competition (3) monopoly (4) oligopoly 322. A speculator who enters into a purchase transaction with a view to sell in the near future when the price would have risen is called a


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(1) Bear (2) Bull (3) Bison (4) Boar 323. The smaller the Cash Reserve Ratio, the scope for lending by banks is : (1) greater (2) smaller (3) weaker (4) lesser 324. Division of labour is the result of (1) Complicated work (2) excessive pressure (3) excess supply of labour (4) specialisation 325. Malthusian theory of population explored the relationship between (1) food supply and techno-logy (2) food supply and popula-tion growth (3) population growth and development (4) optimum growth and resources

326. Speculative demand for cash is determined by (1) The rate of interest (2) the level of income (3) the general price level (4) the market conditions

327. Different firms constituting the industry, produce homogeneous goods under


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(1) monopoly (2) monopolistic competition (3) oligopoly (4) perfect competition 328. Which one of the following does not deal with export promotion? (1) Trade Development Authority (2) Mineral and Metal Trading Corporation (3) Cooperative Marketing Societies (4) State Trading Corporation of India

329. Gross National Product is the money measure of (1) all tangible goods produced in a country (2) final goods and services produced in the economy (3) services generated annually in the economy (4) all tangible goods available in the economy 330. Theoretically trade between two countries lakes place on account of (1) differences in costs (2) scarcity of goods (3) comparative differences in costs (4) need for exports

331. Gross Profit means (1) Total investment over total saving (2) Changes in methods of production


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(3) Changes in the form of business organisation (4) Total receipts over total expenditure

332. Net National Product in National Income Accounting refers to (1) Gross Domestic Product—Depreciation (2) Gross Domestic Product + Subsidies (3) Gross National Product- Depreciation (4) Gross National Product + Subsidies 333. Same price prevails throughout the market under (1) perfect competition (2) monopoly (3) monopolistic competition (4) oligopoly 334. The duties levied on alcoholic liquors, narcotic drugs and opium come under— (1) Central Excise Duty (2) Land Revenue (3) State Excise Duty (4) General Sales Tax 335. Short term loans to correct Balance of Payments problems is given by (1) I.M.F. (2) I.B.R.D (3) I.D.A (4) A.D.B

336. For channelising the unaccounted money for productive purposes the Government Introduced the scheme of:


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(1) Special Bearer Bonds (2) Resurgent India Bonds (3) Provident Funds (4) Market Loans 337. Selling cost means: (1) Cost of selling a product (2) Cost incurred in transportation (3) Cost Incurred in advertisement (4) Cost Incurred on factors of production

338. Funds which flow into a country ' to take advantage of favourable rates of interest in that country is called (1) Cold Money (2) Black Money (3) Hot Money (4) White Money 339. Ad Valorem tax is levied (1) according to value added by the Government. (2) according to value addition to a commodity (3) according to value given by producers (4) according to value added by the finance ministry

340. Legal Tender Money is (1) accepted only by Government' (2) accepted by people and Government as per the law (3) not accepted for business purposes by law (4) not accepted by Government


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341. A high Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (1) restricts lending (2) increases supply of cash (3) provides funds to the state (4) increases the strength of the banks

342. A situation of large number of firms producing similar goods is termed as : (1) Perfect competition (2) Monopolistic competition (3) Pure competition (4) Oligopoly 343. Multinational Corporation is also called (1) Trading Corporation (2) International Corporation (3) Finance Corporation (4) Trans-national Corporation

344. The difference between the price the consumer is prepared to pay for a commodity and the price which he actually pays is called (1) Consumer's Surplus (2) Producer's Surplus (3) Landlord's Surplus (4) Worker's Surplus


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345. A very high rise in National Income at current market prices and a low rise at constant prices reveals (1) the high rate of growth in the economy at the current period (2) the increased production in the current period (3) the improper growth of the economy (4) the high rate of inflation prevailing in the economy

346. Corporation tax is a tax imposed on (1) the net incomes of the companies (2) the corporate properties (3) the utilities provided by the corporation (4) tax imposed by the corporation on individual properties 347. Commercial banks create credit (1) on the basis of their securities (2) on the basis of their assets (3) on the basis of their reserve fund (4) on the basis of their deposits 348. Gross National Product means (1) gross value of finished goods (2) money values of the total national production for any given period (3) gross value of raw materials and semi-finished products (4) money value of inputs and outputs

349. Bank money refers to


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(1) currency notes (2) coins (3) gold bullions (4) cheques 350. What is 'AGMARK? (1) It is a marketing seal issued on the graded agricultural commodity (2) It stands for agricultural marketing (3) It represents agricultural management and regulation (4) None of these 351. The self-employed in a developing country who are engaged in small scale labour intensive work belong to the (1) Informal sector (2) Primary sector (3) Secondary sector (4) Tertiary sector

352. The Rajya Sabha should return the Money Bills to the Lok Sabha within...... (1) one month (2) three months (3) 14 days (4) six months 353. A speculator who sells stocks, in order to buy back when price falls, for gain is a (1) Bull (2) Bear (3) Boar (4) Bison 354. Paraellel economy emerges due to


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(1) Tax Avoidance (2) Tax Evasion (3) Tax Compliance (4) Tax Estimation

355. While estimating national income which of the following not taken into account? (1) Services of a teacher (2) Services of a doctor (3) Services of a housewife (4) Services of a maid servant 356. Under-writing refers to (1) underestimation (2) underselling (3) winding up the business (4) an act of insuring risk 357. Under Perfect Competition (1) Marginal Revenue is less than the Average Revenue (2) Average Revenue is less than the Marginal Revenue (3) Average Revenue is equal to the Marginal Revenue (4) Average Revenue is more than the Marginal Revenue

358. It is prudent to determine the size of the output when the industry is operating in the stage of (1) increasing returns (2) constant returns (3) diminishing returns (4) negative returns


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359. Freeing the economy from all unnecessary controls and regulations is referred to as (1) Freedom (2) Privatisation (3) Liberalisation (4) Globalisation 360. Inflation can be checked by (1) increasing exports (2) increasing money supply (3) increasing Government expenditure (4) decreasing money supply

361. Floating Exchange Rate is also referred to as (1) Flexible Exchange Rate (2) Fixed Exchange Rate (3) Real Exchange Rate (4) Controlled Exchange Rate 362. Consumptions function refers to (1) relationship between income and employment (2) relationship between savings and investment (3) relationship between input and output (4) relationship between income and consumption 363. The incidence of Tax refers to


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(1) Who pays the Tax? (2) Who bears the burden of Tax? (3) How Taxes can be shifted ? (4) Who transfers the Tax burden? 364. An Increase in per capital income is not an indication of an increase in the economic welfare of the people (1) When such increase is the result of an increased production of comforts (2) When such increase is the result of an increase in agricultural production (3) When it is the result of an increase in the production of industrial goods (4) When such increase is the result of increased production of intoxicants 365. Total fixed cost curve is (1) Vertical (2) Horizontal (3) Positively Sloping (4) Negatively sloping

366. Economic rent does not arise when the supply of a factor unit is (1) Perfectly inelastic (2) Perfectly elastic (3) Relatively elastic (4) Relatively inelastic 367. Perfect competition means (1) large number of buyers and less sellers (2) large number of buyers and sellers (3) large number of sellers and less buyers (4) None of these


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368. The Imperial Bank of India, after its nationalisation came to be known as : (1) Reserve Bank of India (2) State Bank of India (3) United Bank of India (4) Indian Overseas Bank

369. Bread and butter, car and petrol are examples of goods which have (1) composite demand (2) joint demand (3) derived demand (4) autonomous demand

370. "Bad money will drive out good money from circulation. 'This is known as: (1) Engle's Law (2) Gresham's Law (3) Say' Law (4) Wagner's Law 371. If the main objective of the government is to raise revenue, it should tax commodities with (1) high elasticity of demand (2) low elasticity of supply (3) low elasticity of demand (4) high income elasticity of demand

372. Core Industries are (1) Basic industries


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(2) Consumer goods industries (3) Capital goods industries (4) Government industries 373. The functional relationship between income and consumption expenditure is explained by (1) Consumer Surplus (2) Law of Demand (3) Law of Supply (4) Keynes's psychological law of consumption

374. Full employment is a situation where (1) there is no involuntary unemployment (2) there is involuntary unemployment (3) there is no voluntary unemployment (4) there is voluntary unemployment

375. If the Central Bank wants to encourage an increase in the supply of money and decrease in the cost of borrowing money, it should (1) lower cash reserve ratio (2) raise discount rates (3) sell government securities (4) All of the above

376. Monopoly means (1) single buyer (2) many sellers


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(3) single seller (4) many buyers 377. Regulated markets aim at the development of the marketing structure to (1) widen the price spread between the producer and the consumer (2) narrow down the price spread between the producer and the consumer (3) increase the non-functional margins of the traders (4) maximise the non-functional margins of the commission agents 378. Marginal cost is the (1) cost of producing a unit of output (2) cost of producing an extra unit of output (3) cost of producing the total output (4) cost of producing a given level of output 379. Under full cost pricing, price is determined (1) by adding a margin to the average cost (2) by comparing marginal cost and marginal revenue (3) by adding normal profit to the marginal cost (4) by the total cost of production 380. Economic growth is dependent mainly on (1) level of consumption (2) price stability (3) level of Investment (4) population growth

381. Interest paid by the government on the loans raised is called


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(1) Debt Servicing (2) Deficit Financing (3) Discounted Budgeting (4) Bridge-loan 382. The 'sunrise industries' imply (1) petrochemicals and electronics industry (2) sunflower oil industry (3) computer industry (4) chemical industry

383. Regional Rural Banks are sponsored by (1) Nationalised Commercial Bank (2) Reserve Bank of India (3) State Bank of India (4) Government of India 384. What is selling cost ? (1) Cost incurred on transportation of commodities to market (2) Cost incurred on promoting the sale of the product (3) Cost incurred on commission and salaries personnel (4) Cost incurred on advertisement

385. Countries that depend mainly on the export of primary products for their income, are prone to


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(1) inflation (2) economic instability (3) increasing unemployment (4) stable economic growth 386. A Trade Policy consists of (1) Export-Import Policy (2) Licencing Policy (3) Foreign Exchange Policy (4) Balance of Payment Policy 387. What Is needed for creating demand ? (1) Production (2) Price (3) Income (4) Import

388. Who said, "Economics is the Science of Wealth"? (1) Robbins (2) J.S. Mill (3) Adam Smith (4) Keynes 389. A fall in demand or rise in supply of a commodity- (1) Increases the price of that commodity (2) decreases the price of that commodity (3) neutralises the changes in the price (4) determines the price elasticity


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390. The relationship between the value of money and the price level in an economy is (1) Direct (2) Inverse (3) Proportional (4) Stable

391. Depreciation is equal to — (1) Gross national product —Net national product (2) Net national product — Gross national product (3) Gross national product —Personal income (4) Personal income—Personal taxes

392. In an economy, the sectors are classified into public and private on the basis of (1) employment conditions (2) nature of economic activities (3) ownership of enterprises (4) use of raw materials 393. Stagflation is a situation of (1) stagnation and deflation (2) stagnation and recession (3) stagnation and inflation (4) stagnation and recovery 394. National Income Estimates in India are prepared by: (1) National Development Council


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(2) National Productivity Council (3) National Income Committee (4) Central Statistical Organisation

395. The best Index of Economic Development is provided by: (1) Growth in Percapita Real Income from year to year. (2) Growth in National Income at Current Prices. (3) Growth in savings ratio. (4) Improvement in the Balance of Payments Position. 396. Consumer s sovereignty means: (1) consumers are free to spend their income as they like. (2) consumers have the power to manage the economy. (3) consumer's expenditures influence the allocation of resources. (4) consumer goods are free from government control.

397. National Income include: (1) Financial help to earthquake victims (2) Pocket money of a child (3) Winning of a lottery prize (4) Construction of a new house 398. The situation in which total Revenues equals total cost, is known as: (1) Monopolistic competition (2) Equilibrium level of output (3) Break even point (4) Perfect competition


191


399. Demand curve of a firm under perfect competition is: (1) horizontal to ox-axis (2) negatively sloped (3) positively sloped (4) U - shaped

400. Value of out put and value added can be distinguished if we know: (1) the value of intermediate consumption (2) the value of net indirect taxes (3) the value of the sales (4) the value of consumption of fixed capital 401. Transfer payments include : (1) Gifts received from a friend (2) rent free accommodation by the employer (3) net factor income from abroad (4) Employee's contribution to social security

402. The marginal revenue of a monopolist is: (1) more than price (2) equal to price (3) less than price (4) less than marginal cost 403. A horizontal demand curve is


192


(1) relatively elastic (2) perfectly inelastic (3) perfectly elastic (4) of unitary elasticity 404. The theory of monopolistic competition has been formulated in the United States of America by (1) Joan Robinson (2) Edward Chamberlin (3) John Bates Clark (4) Joseph Schumpeter 405. Production Function relates to: (1) costs to outputs (2) costs to inputs (3) inputs to outputs (4) wage level to profits

406. What type of products, does CACP recommend minimum support price for ? (1) Industrial products (2) Agricultural products (3) Pharmaceutical products (4) None of the above 407. Under increasing returns the supply curve is (1) positively sloped from left to right


193


(2) negatively sloped from left to right (3) parallel to the quantity-axis (4) parallel to the price -axis

408. The degree of monopoly power is to be measured in terms of the firm's (1) normal profit (2) supernormal profit (3) both normal and supernormal profit (4) selling price 409. Who propounded the Innovation theory of profits ? (1) J.A.Schumpeter (2) P.A. Samuelson (3) Alfred Marshall (4) David Ricardo

410. Under perfect competition, the industry does not have any excess capacity because each firm produces at the minimum point on its (1) long-run marginal cost curve (2) long-run average cost curve (3) long-run average variable cost curve (4) long-run average revenue curve 411. Which one of the following is not a 'canon of taxation' according to Adam Smith?


194


(1) Canon of certainty (2) Canon of simplicity (3) Canon of convenience (4) Canon of economy

412. Effective demand depends on (1) capital-output ratio (2) output-capital ratio (3) total expenditure (4) supply price 413. Exploitation of labour is said to exist when (1) Wage = Marginal Revenue Product (2) Wage < Marginal Revenue Product (3) Wage > Marginal Revenue Product (4) Marginal Revenue Product = 0

414. A rising Per Capita Income will indicate a better welfare if it is accompanied by (1) unchanged Income distribution overall. (2) changed Income distribution in favour of rich. (3) changed Income distribution in favour of poor. (4) changed Income distribution in favour of Industrial Labour.

415. Indirect taxes by nature are


195


(1) degressive (2) regressive (3) progressive (4) proportional 416. Which one of the following is an example of optional money? (1) Currency note (2) Coins (3) Cheque (4) Bond

417. Those payments which the firms make to outsiders for their goods and services are called (1) Real costs (2) Economic costs (3) Explicit costs (4) Implicit costs 418. Special Economic Zone (SEZ) concept was first introduced in (1) China (2) Japan (3) India (4) Pakistan 419. Economic development depends on : (1) Natural resources (2) Capital formation (3) Size of the market (4) All of the above


196


420. National Income is generated from; (1) any money-making activity (2) any laborious activity (3) any profit-making activity (4) any productive activity

421. Money supply is governed by the (1) Planning Commission (2) Finance Commission (3) Reserve Bank of India (4) Commercial Banks 422. The food stocks that are built up during the years of bumper harvest are called : (1) Capital stock (2) Buffer stock (3) Production stock (4) Grain stock

423. The Minimum Wages Act was first passed in India in the year: (1) 1947 (2) 1948 (3) 1950 (4) 1951 424. Human Development Index was developed by : (1) Amartya Sen (2) Mahbub-ul-Haq


197


(3) Friedman (4) Montek Singh 425. 'Hire and Fire' is the policy of (1) Capitalism (2) Socialism (3) Mixed Economy (4) Traditional Economy

426. A tree like structure of records in a database in — (1) Network model (2) Hierarchical model (3) Relational model (4) Multi-dimensional model 427. Cost of production of the producer is given by: (1) sum of wages paid to labourers. (2) sum of wages and interest paid on capital. (3) sum of wages, interest, rent and supernormal profit. (4) sum of wages, interest, rent and normal profit.

428. AGMARK is a guarantee of standard : (1) quality (2) quantity (3) weight (4) size 429. The market price is related to: (1) very short period (2) short period


198


(3) long period (4) very long period

430. Equilibrium price is the price when : (1) supply is greater than demand (2) supply is less than demand (3) demand is very high (4) supply is equal to demand 431. Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a goods to a (1) change in the price of the goods (2) change in the price of substitutes (3) change in the price of the complements (4) change in the price of joint products 432. Consumption function expresses the relationship between consumption and (1) savings (2) income (3) investment (4) price 433. 'Mixed economy' refers to (1) the co-existence of heavy, small scale and cottage industries (2) the promotion of agriculture as well as cottage industries (3) the co-existence of rich as well as poor


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(4) the co-existence of public as well as private sector 434. Which of the following is not a fixed cost ? (1) Salaries of administrative staff (2) Rent of factory bidding (3) Property taxes (4) Electricity charges

435. Which of the following would not constitute an economic activity in Economics ? (1) A teacher teaching students in his college (2) A teacher teaching students in a coaching institute (3) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home (4) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abbiyan Scheme 436. In which market structure is the demand curve of the market represented by the demand curve of the firm ? (1) Monopoly (2) Oligopoly (3) Duopoly (4) Perfect Competition

437, Per capita income = (1) Net National Product __________________ Total Population (2) Total Population


200


___________________ National Income (3) Gross National Product ____________________ Total Population (4) National Income ______________________ Total Population 438. Which of the following is an inverted 'U’ shaped curve ? (1) Average cost (2) Marginal cost (3) Total cost (4) Fixed cost

.

439.Golden Handshake Scheme is associated with (1) Inviting foreign companies (2) Private investment in public enterprises (3) Establishing joint enterprises (4) Voluntary retirement

440. Which one of the following is not included while estimating national income through income method? (1) Rent (2) Mixed incomes (3) Pension (4) Undistributed profits


201


441. Taxation is a tool of (1) Monetary policy (2) Fiscal policy (3) Price policy (4) Wage policy

442. Globalisation means (1) Integration of economy (2) Integration of financial market (3) Integration of the domestic economy with the world economy (4) Integration of the various sectors of economy 443. Income and consumption are : (1) inversely related (2) directly related (3) partially related (4) unrelated.

444. Which one of the following is having elastic demand ? (1) Electricity (2) Medicines (3) Rice (4) Matchboxes 445. Globalisation means (1) Integration of economy (2) Integration of financial market


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(3) Integration of the domestic economy with the world economy (4) Integration of the various sectors of economy

446. Which of the following is deducted from GNP to arrive at NNP? (1) Depreciation (2) Interest (3) Tax (4) Subsidy

447. For an inferior good, demand falls when (1) price rises (2) income rise (3) price falls (4) income falls 448. The marginal propensity to consume lies between (1) 0 to 1 (2) 0 tooo (3) 1 to (4) װ <*> to <~

449. Wage fund theory was propounded by (1) J.B. Say (2)J.S. Mill (3) J.R. Hicks (4) J.M. Keynes

450. The expenses on advertising is called (1) Implicit cost (2) Surplus cost (3) Fixed cost (4) Selling cost


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451. Price mechanism is a feature of (1) Capitalist economy (2) Barter economy (3) Mixed economy (4) Socialist economy

452. The most accessible medium in India is (1) Television (2) Radio (3) Cinema (4) Newspapers 453. Name the curve which shows the quantity of products a seller wishes to sell at a given price level. (1) Demand curve (2) Cost curve (3) Supply curve (4) None of these

454. The supply of labour in the economy depends on (1) Population (2) National income (3) Per capita income (4) Natural resources 455. The main feature of a capitalist economy is (1) Administered prices (2) Public ownership (3) Economic planning (4) Private ownership 456.A ‘Transfer Income’ is an (1) Income which is not produced by any production process


204


(2) Income taken away from one person and given over to another (3) Unearned income (4) Earned income 457. Capital Market Regulator is: (1) NSE (2) RBI (3) SEBI (4) IRDA

458. Which one of the following pairs of goods is an example for Joint Supply? (1) Coffee and Tea (2) Ink and Pen (3) Tooth brush and Paste (4) Wool and Mutton 459. Consumer's surplus is the highest in the case of: (1) durable goods (2) luxuries (3) comforts (4) necessities

460. Real wage is : (1) Profit __________ price level (2) Rent


205


__________ price level (3) Interest ___________ price level (4) Money wage _____________ price level

461. Which of the following cost curve is never 'U’ shaped ? (1) Marginal cost curve (2) Average variable cost curve (3) Average fixed cost curve (4) Average cost curve

462. National Income is also called as : (1) GNP at Factor Cost (2) GNP at Market Price (3) NNP at Factor Cost (4) NNP at Market Price

463. Kinked demand curve is a feature of (1) Monopoly (2) Oligopoly (3) Monopsony (4) Duopoly


206


464. Which one of the following is the most appropriate reason for Inequalities in Income ? (1) Racial factors (2) Lack of opportunities (3) Inheritance from family Environment (4) Differences in Ability

465. Demand for complementary goods is known as (1) Joint demand (2) Derived demand (3) Direct demand (4) Cross demand

466. Plant and machinery are (1) Producers' goods (2) Consumers' goods (3) Distributors' goods (4) Free goods 467. Which one of the following is not a dimension of human development index ? (1) Life expectancy (2) Knowledge (3) Social status (4) Standard of living


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468. Which one of the following is not included in current revenue of the Union Government ? (1) Tax revenue (2) Non-tax revenue (3) Loans (4) Interest payments 469. Transfer payments-mean (1) Old age pensions (2) Unemployment compensations (3) Social security payments (4) All the above

470. A holding which will yield the farmers at least a subsistence is known as (1) Optimum holding (2) Marginal holding (3) Economic holding (4) Subsistence holding

471. Which activity is not included in production ? (1) Production of wheat by a farmer (2) Production of medicines by a company (3) Services given by a nurse in hospital (4) Services done by a house-wife in her own house

472. The addition to total cost by producing an additional unit of output by a firm is called


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(1) Variable cost (2) Average cost (3) Marginal cost (4) Opportunity cost 473. In a perfectly competitive market, a firm's (1) Average Revenue is always equal to Marginal Revenue (2) Marginal Revenue is more than Average Revenue (3) Average Revenue is more than Marginal Revenue (4) Marginal Revenue and Average Revenue are never equal

Answers

1.(2) 2.(4) 3.(2) 4.(2)

5.(3) 6.(3) 7. (3) 8.(3)

9.(1) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (2)

13. (4) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16. (2)

17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4)

21. (4) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (2)

25. (*) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)

29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (3)

33. (2) 34.(2) 35. (4) 36.(1)

37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (4)


209


41. (2) 42. (4) 43. (2) 44. (2)

45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (4)

49. (3) 50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1)

53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (4) 56. (3)

57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2)

61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (3) 64.(3)

65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (3)

69. (3) 70. (1) 71. (3) 72. (3)

73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2)

77. (2) 78. (4) 79. (3) 80.(1)

81. (3) 82.(1) 83. (2) 84.(2)

85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (2)

89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (3) 92.(2)

93. (1) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96.(4)

97. (3) 98. (4) 99. (1) 100. (2)

101. (3) 102. (4) 103. (3) 104. (3)

105. (2) 106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (4)

109. (3) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112. (1)

113. (1) 114. (2) 115. (1) 116. (4)

117. (1) 118. (2) 119. (1) 120. (3)

121. (1) 122. (4) 123. (3) 124. (2)

125. (2) 126. (4) 127. (1) 128. (4)

129. (4) 130. (2) 131. (3) 132. (4)


210


133. (4) 134. (3) 135. (2) 136. (3)

137. (4) 138. (3) 139. (2) 140. (1)

141. (3) 142. (4) 143. (3) 144. (3)

145. (2) 146. (4) 147. (4) 148. (3)

149. (2) 150. (2) 151. (4) 152. (1)

153. (1) 154. (1) 155. (4) 156. (4)

157. (4) 158. (2) 159. (4) 160. (2)

161. (1) 162. (4) 163. (2) 164. (1)

165. (1) 166. (2) 167. (2) 168. (1)

169. (2) 170. (3) 171. (4) 172. (1)

173. (1) 174. (3) 175. (3) 176.(1)

177. (4) 178. (2) 179. (2) 180. (4)

181. (4) 182. (3) 183. (4) 184. (3)

185. (3) 186. (3) 187. (*) 188. (3)

189. (4) 190. (3) 191. (4) 192. (3)

193. (2) 194. (2) 195. (1) 196. (4)

197. (2) 198. (4) 199. (2) 200. (4)

201. (4) 20 2. (1) 203. (1) 204.(1)

205. (4) 206.(1) 207. (1) 208. (1)

209. (4) 210. (2) 211. (1) 212. (4)

213. (2) 214. (3) 215. (3) 216. (4)

217. (3) 218.14) 219. (3) 220. (1)

221. (3) 222. (4) 223. (3) 224. (3)


211


225. (4) 226. (2) 227. (4) 228. (2)

229. (2) 230. (1) 231. (3) 232. (1)

233. (1) 234. (3) 235. (2) 236. (4)

237. (4) 238. (2) 239. (2) 240. (3)

241. (2) 242. (2) 243. (2) 244. (3)

245. (3) 246. (3) 247. (2) 248. (3)

249. (1) 250. (4) 251. (3) 252. (3)

253. (4) 254, (3) 255. (3) 256. (2)

257. (3) 258. (4) 259. (2) 260. (3)

261. (4) 262. (1) 263. (2) 264. (1)

265. (3) 266. (2) 267. (1) 268. (3)

269. (2) 270. (3) 271. (3) 272. (4)

273. (3) 274. (2) 275. (1) 276. (4)

277. (2) 278. (3) 279. (3) 280. (3)

281. (4) 282. (1) 283. (2) 284. (1)

285. (2) 286. (4) 287. (3) 288. (2)

289. (4) 290. (3) 291. (1) 292. (4)

293. (3) 294. (2) 295. (4) 296. (3)

297. (3) 298. (2) 299. (1) 300. (1)

301. (4) 302.(2) 303. (4) 304. (1)

305. (3) 306.(1) 307. (3) 308. (2)

309. (2) 310. (4) 311. (3) 312. (3)

313. (3) 314. (3) 315. (3) 316. (4)


212


317. (1) 318. (2) 319. (1) 320. (3)

321. (2) 322. (2) 323. (1) 324. (4)

325. (2) 326. (1) 327. (4) 328. (3)

329. (2) 330. (3) 331.(4) 332. (3)

333. (1) 334. (1) 335.(1) 336. (1)

337. (3) 338. (3) 339. (3) 340. (2)

341. (1) 342. (1) 343. (4) 344. (1)

345. (4) 346. (1) 347. (4) 348. (2)

349. (4) 350. (2) 351. (2) 352. (3)

353. (2) 354. (2) 355. (3) 366. (4)

357. (3) 358. (3) 359. (3) 360. (4)

361. (1) 362. (4) 363.(2) 364. (4)

365. (2) 366. (2) 367. [2) 368. (2)

369. (3) 370. (2) 371. (3) 372. (1)

373. (4) 374. (2) 375. (1) 376. (3)

377. (2) 378. (2) 379. (1) 380. (3)

381. (1) 382. (1) 383. (1) 384. (2)

385. (3) 386. (1) 387. (1) 388. (3)

389. (2) 390. (2) 391. (1) 392. (3)

393. (3) 394. (4) 395. (1) 396. (1)

397. (4) 398. (3) 399. (1) 400. (1)


213


401. (4) 402. (3) 403. (3) 404. (2)

405. (3) 406. (2) 407. (1) 408. (2)

409. (1) 410. (2) 411. (2) 412. (4)

413. (2) 414. (3) 415. (2) 416. (3)

417. (3) 418. (1) 419. (4) 420. (2)

421. (3) 422. (2) 423. (2) 424. (2)

425. (3) 426. (2) 427. (4) 428. (1)

429. (1) 430. (4) 431. (1) 432. (2)

433. (4) 434. (1) 435. (3) 436. (1)

437. (3) 438. (1) 439. (4) 440. (3)

441. (2) 442. (3) 443. (2) 444. (1)

445. (3) 446. (1) 447. (2) 448.(1)

449. (2) 450. (4) 451. (1) 452. (4)

453. (3) 454.(1) 455. (4) 456. (1)

457. (3) 458. (4) 459. (4) 460. (4)

461. (3) 462. (1) 463. (2) 464. (2)

465.(1) 466. (1) 467. (3) 468. (3)

469. (4) 470. (3) 471. (4) 472. (3)

473. (1)


214


OTHER NATIONAL & INTERNATIONAL INFORMATION

1. World Buddhist Property Organisation is situated at (1) New York (2) London (3) Paris (4) Zeneva 2. Which among the following is the most competitive country, according to World Economic Forum? (1) USA (2) England


215


(3) Singapore (4) Switzerland 3. Which among the following 'Entrance Test’ is essential to get admission in the educational institutions of America ? (1) TOFEL (2) GRE (3) GMAT (4) SAT

4. In India 'Siberian Crane' can be found in (1) Sasangir Bird Sanctuary (2) Rathambhore Bird Sanctuary (3) Dachigham Park (4) Keoladeva Ghana Bird Sanctuary 5. Which among the following correctly represents the 'Icebird' ? (1) It is a ship which was used in the melting of ice and carried the 14th Indian Antarctica Research team (2) This is a Chinese Research Centre in Antarctica (3) It is name of a new missile of the US which is capable of attacking from surface to water (4) This is the largest passenger plane of Ukraine 6. Three of the following pairs are wrong. Find out the correct one : (1) Written Constitution — England (2) Unitary State — USA (3) UN General Assmbly — Veto power


216


(4) SAARC—No bilateral issues 7. The district Primary Education Programme—a Centrally Sponsored Programme in India is supported by : (1) International Monetary Fund (2) World Bank (3) UNESCO (4) Japanese Government 8. George Bernard Shaw, the great dramatist, was (1) An Irishman (2) An Englishman (3) A Scotsman (4) A Welsh

9. The Trade Union Affiliated with the Congress Party is (1) All India Trade Union Congress (2) Indian National Trade Union Congress (3) Centre for India Trade Unions (4) Hind Mazdoor Sabha 10. One of the following is an an odd combination- Which is that? (1) Fascism - Dictatorship (2) Individualism - State control (3) IBRD - Loans (4) Mahatma Gandhi - Non-violence


217


11. The Upper House of the LegiSlature is more powerful than the Lower Hosue in (1) Britain (2) France (3) Sri Lanka (4) United States of America

12. What is "Oval Office"? (1) The place where England's Cricket Control Board is head-quartered (2) UN Security Council meeting room (3) The personal office or the US President (4) The place where the Queen of England gives personal audience 13. Where was electricity supply first introduced in India ? (1) Kolkata (2) Darjeeling (3) Mumbai (4) Chennai 14. Who introduced broadcasting in India first ? (1) Government of India (2) Government of Bombay Presidency (3) Government of Bengal Presidency (4) Private entities 15. Which of the following is NOT an Indo-Nepal Cooperation Project ? (1) Sarada Barrage (2) Tanakpur Barrage (3) Pancheswar Project (4) Chukka Project

16. Which amongst the following currencies the costliest ?


218


(1) French Franc (2) Swiss Franc (3) Euro (4) Pound Sterling

17, Which state has benefitted the most with the Asian Development Bank (ADB) loans for improvement of National Highways? (1) West Bengal (2) Andhra Pradesh (3) Maharashtra (4) Uttar Pradesh 18. To which of the following States the 'Special Marriage Act, 1954' does not apply? (1) Meghalaya (2) Nagaland (3) Jammu & Kashmir (4) Tripura

19. Who designed the St. Peter's Square? (1) Leonardo da Vinci (2) Michelangelo (3) Bernini (4) Borromini 20. What is "Kitty Hawk'? (1) A submarine (2) A fighter aircraft (3) An aircraft carrier (4) A lady American Senator

21. Which is situated on the "Capital Hill"?


219


(1) Legislative Office of United States General Assembly (2) A peak of Kargil region won again by India in June 1999 (3) A mountainous peak from where Jesus gave sermons (4) The biggest stock market of the world 22. Who composed the memorable literary character named Winston Smith? (1) George Orwell (2) E.M. Foster (3) Rudyard Kipling (4) R.C.Sheridon

23. Which part of India is linked to the border by the Hindustan-Tibet road ? (1) Shimla (2) Garhwal (3) North Bengal (4) Kashmir Valley 24. The lengthiest Constitution in the world is (1) Indian (2) American (3) British (4) French 25. Which amidst the SAARC countries rank highest in the Human Development Index released by the UNDP in 2002? (1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Bangladesh (4) Sri Lanka

26. Which country/countries started privatisation of State-owned enterprises as a major State Policy?


220


(1) U.K. under Mrs. Margaret Thatcher (2) Russia in the C.LS. (3) Mexico/Argentina/ Brazil (4) Italy/France/Malaysia 27. Which is the earliest Engineering Educational Institution in India ? (1) Birla Institute of Technology & Science, Pilani (2) I.I.T., Kharagpur (3) Roorkee Engineering College, (I.I.T. Roorkee) (4) BHU (IT), Varanasi

28. Which is the Agency the Government has engaged to grade the standardise various agricultural products ? (1) Food Corporation of India (2) Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (3) Bureau of Indian Standards (4) Central Statistical Organisation

29. Which is the fastest running train on Indian Railways ? (1) Mumbai-Goa Superfast Express (2) New Delhi- Lucknow Shatabdi Express (3) New Delhi-Mumbai & Rajdhani Express (4) New Delhi-Chandigarh Shatabdi Express 30. Persons of Indian origin (PIOs) from which country amidst the following are proposed to be considered for dual citizenship of India ?


221


(1) Fiji (2) U.S. (3) Zimbabwe (4) Sri Lanka

31. Who provides fixed line telephone services with numbers starting with 5? (1) Hutchison — Essar (2) BPL - Telenet (3) Tata Indicom (4) MTNL 32. Which from the following towns is not on the "Golden Quadrilateral being created for the roads- infrastructure of the country? (1) Ajmer (2) Ahmedabad (3) Jabalpur (4) Gaya

33. Who provides fixed line telephone serivces with numbers starting with 3? (1) BSNL (2) Reliance Infocom (3) Bharati Telenet - Touchtel (4) Tata Indiacom 34. People of Indian Origin (PIOs) from which country amongst the following are proposed to be considered for dual citizenship with India? (1) Uganda (2) Myanmar (3) Trinidad and Tobago (4) Singapore


222


35. Which TV Channel broadcasts the programme “Gyan Darshan"? (l)Zee (2) Sony (3) Doordarshan (4) Star 36. Who was the first Indian to be a Fellow of the Royal Society of London? (1) Srinivas Ramanujan (2) A.C. Wadia (3) C.V. Raman (4) P.C. Mahalanobis 37. Broadly, what percentage of doctors in USA were Indians in 2002? (1) 38 (2) 30 (3) 20 (4) 15

38. The song "Candle in the Wind" was sung by Elton John in honour of (1) Elizabeth Taylor (2) Princess Diana (3) Ava Gardner (4) Audrey Hephurn 39. Whose sales-line is "Owner's pride, neighbour's envy”? (1) BPLTV (2) Samsung TV (3) Videocon TV (4) Onida TV

40. For oil and gas security India has invested in production fields abroad. In which of the following production companies do the Indian PSUs hold shares ?


223


(1) Saudi Aram Co. (2) Sakhalin-I (3) Petronas (4) Chevron Texa Co. 41. Of the oil refineries at the following locations which one is still under construction ? (1) Jamnagar (2) Bhatinda (3)Tatipaka (4) Haldia

42. Which State does not yet have a Software Technology Park ? (1) UP (2) Orissa (3) Bihar (4) Rajasthan

43. Which Group of Companies purchased the shares of VSNL diversted by the Government of India, in 2002, for a strategic partner? (1) Bharati Enterprieses (2) RIL (3) TCIL (4) Aditya Birla Group 44. Which is the hub of the global trade in 'cut -flowers' ? (1) Netherlands (2) Germany (3) Japan (4) Colombia

45. Which one of the following has facilitated globalisation of international trade the most?


224


(1) Lowering of the tariff barriers (2) Foreign Direct Investment (3) Business Processes Outsourcing (4) E-Commerce 46. What has been a major feature of successful businesses in the past decade ? (1) Parcelling out the components for production at the cheapest cost worldwide (2) Subsidies to protect domestic production of the goods (3) Web-enabled production and trade (4) Lowering the tax slabs to make trade competitive 47. Which amidst the big league companies mentioned below has escaped from nearly going bank- rupt? (1) Enron (2) World Com (3) Daewoo (4) Compaq

48. Which among the following Indian Universities has the jurisdiction all over India ? (1) Delhi University (2) JNU (3) Vishva Bharti—Shanti Niketan (4) Sampurnananda Sanskrit University—Varanasi 49. Cannes, Venice. Carlovi Berry and Montreal are famous for international film festivals. In which of the following Countries Carlovi Berry is located?


225


(1) Spain (2) Switzerland (3) Czech Republic (4) Russia 50. What is the ratio of English and Hindi speaking people in the world ? (1) 65 : 35 (2) 60 : 40 (3) 51 : 49 (4) 45 : 35 51. Who was the first woman prime minister in the world ? (1) Goldameer (2) Margaret Thacher (3) Srimao Rhandarnaike (4) Indira Gandhi 52. Which among the following a unit of measurement is known as papergold ? (1) Euro- dollar (2) Petro-dollar (3) G. D. R (4) S. D. R.

53. Which among the following fishes lives mostly in the ocean but during reproduction goes to fresh water stream ? (1) Hilsa and Herring (2) Hilsa and Salmon (3) Hilsa and Eel (4) Eel and Chod 54. In which of the following cities the first private channel of FM Radio was started ?


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(1) Chennai (2) Mumbai (3) Kolkata (4) Bangalore

55. Which among the following institutions takes a decision regarding fee collection in the private commercial colleges that this fee is justifiable and not a money made in an enterprise or per capita fee ? (1) State Government (2) University Grant Commission (3) A committee of retired judges appointed for this purpose which includes a representative from State education department and a representative from college management and an accountant (4) Union of the private commercial college after State Government approval

56. Why did the Supreme Court, in their judgment of September 2003, hold that privatisation of HPCL and BPCL was not permissible ? (1) Due process of law for disinvestment had not been followed. (2) It is against the interest of the capital asset in the form of their employees. (3) It had not been recommended by the Disinvestment Commission, (4) It is in conflict with the statues that created HPCL and BPCL.

57. Who arc Mohajirs ? (1) Minority Ahmadia Muslisms of Pakistan (2) Tribesmen of North-west Frontier Province (3) Muslims of undivided India from the part now outside Pakistan but opted to live in Pakistan (4) Pakistanis of Sindh region


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58. Ikebana is a Japanese form of: (1) modern painting (2) martial art (3) flower arrangement (4) agricultural practice

59. Who was the first woman to become the Prime Minister of a country ? (1) Golda Meir (2) Margaret Thatcher (3) Indira Gandhi (4) Sirimavo Bandaranaike 60. As of 2002. the Indian Dairy Industry in terms of world production, has been placed (1) second (2) third (3) fourth (4) first

61. When was the mandate that a candidate at an election should file with his nomination papers an affidavit recording his criminal antecedents, if any, enforced at a general election for the first time? (1) Assembly elections held in Himachal Pradesh in 2003. (2) By-elections to the Lok Subha and the Vidhan Sabhas held in September 2003. (3) Assembly elections held in Mizoram in November 2003. (4) Assembly elections held in Madhya Pradesh/Chhattisgarh/Rajasthan/Delhi in December 2003.


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62. Which amidst the following sites/monuments in India is not on the UNESCO's list of World Cultural Heritages ? (1) Tirupathi-Tirumala temples (2) Agra Fort (3) Humayun's tomb at Delhi (4) Keoladeo National Park 63. Which of the following are correctly matched ? A. Jamini Roy - Painter B. Bhuvaneshvari Kumari- Squash-player C. Alia Rakha-Tabla instru-men-talfst D. Medha Patkar-Environmen- tal Activist (1) All (2) Only (A) and (D) (3) Only (A), (C) and (D) (4) Only (B) and (C) 64. Mount Everest is named alter (1) The King of England (2) The first climber of the peak (3) A Surveyor General of India (4) The Viceroy of India 65. A country has sufficient international liquidity if it can cover any balance of payment deficit with enough of (1) its own money (2) tax revenue


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(3) natural resources (4) gold and/or convertible currency

66. Match List I (Newspapers) with List II (Country) arid select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists, List I A. Al Ahram B. Izvestia C. The Daily News D. Peoples Dairy List II 1. Moscow 2.New York 3. Beijing 4. Cairo Codes:

(A) (B)

(C)

(D)

(1) 1 2

3 4

(2) 4 1 2 3

(3) 4 1 3 2 (4) 1 4 2 3

67. What percentage of our exports in 2002-2003 was from Information Technology?


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(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 15 (4) 20 68. What is the age upto which children are prohibited from employment in any factory/mine/hazardous work ? (1) 10 years (2) 12 years (3) 14 years (4) 16 years

69. What is the criterion laid down by the Supreme Court, in August 2003, for selecting candidates for admission to private professional colleges from the management quota from the academic session 2004-2005 ? (1) From the CET. conducted by the State/Centre (2) From the CET conducted by the institution (3) From the CET conducted by an association of private professional colleges in each State under a Committee headed by a retired High Court Judge (4) (1) and/or (3) above

70. Which are the cities connected by "Sada-e-Sarhad" bus services? (1) Aligarh :Amritsar (2) Delhi : Lahore (3) Suchetgarh: Sialkot (4) Srinagar: Muzzaffarabad


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71. Which of the following is true about the "World intellectual Property Organisation" ? (1) It protects the rights of the third world countries in the field of global communication (2) It protects the copyright materials in inventions, trademarks, literary works, etc. (3) It promotes the collaboration among countries in the field of education, science and culture (4) It helps the countries in the development of human resources

72. Who broadcasts with the bye-line “Sabse Tej"? (1) Zee News (2) NDTV (3) Star News (4) Aaj Tak 73. Which of the following nations has the largest Muslim population? (1) Saudi Arabia (2) Bangladesh (3) Iran (4) Indonesia

74. Who gifted the "Statue of Liberty", standing off the New York port, to the United States on the first centenary celebrations of the US? (1) People of New York (2) France (3) Great Britain (4) Germany 75. Which city is also known as the "Big Apple"?


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(1) Madrid. Spain (2) Lausanne, Switzerland (3) Canberra. Australia (4) New York, USA 76. Who recently sold 125 of his/her paintings for Rs.100 crores? (1) Anjolie IIa Menon (2) F.N. Souza (3) M.F. Hussain (4) Manjit Bawa

77. Where was hundreds of school children of Russia taken hostage by armed militants ? (1) Irkutsk (2) Beslan (3) Moscow (4) Grozny 78. Which country now has the longest ruling Head of government ? (1) U.K. (2) Saudi Arabia (3) Cuba (4) Peoples Republic of China

79. Which of the following gifted Statue of Liberty, established near port of New York, to the United States of America on the occasion of its first centenary celebrations? (1) Citizens of New York (2) France (3) Great Britain (4) Germany


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80. According to Indus Water Treaty of 1960 which rivers were given to India and Pakistan respectively? To India To Pakistan (1) Jhelum, Indus, Satlej, Chenab, Yamuna Beas

(2) Ravi, Satlej, Indus, Beas Chenab, Jhelum (3) Satlej. Jhelum. Ravi, Beas, Indus Chenab (4) Indus, Jhelum, Satlej, Chenab. Yamuna Ravi 81. Why was Abu Ghraib in news ? (1) Due to car bomb explosion against security forces led by the United Nations in Iraq (2) Due to misbehaviour of prisoners by allied forces in Iraq (3) Due to making captive of truck drivers from India and other countries by Black Banner (4) Due to excesses on Arab militants by Sudan

82. The Constitution of which country has provision that a neutral non-political government will be established three months before the election ?


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(1) Australia (2) Bangladesh (3) Canada (4) Switzerland 83. If an Indian citizen hires a Hat on rent in New York then it is included in (1) GNP of India (2) GDP of India (3) GNP of USA (4) None of these 84. South -South dialogue is associated with (1) Co-operation among developing nations (2) Arms conference (3) Summit meeting between developed and developing countries (4) All of the above 85. With which of the following fields is Ben Kingsley associated ? (1) Sports (2) Medical Science (3) Motion Picture (4) Social Service

86. When was colour TV transmission introduced in India ? (1) 1980 (2) 1981 (3) 1982 (4) 1984 87. Who was the founder Director of the TIFR ? (1) S. S. Bhatnagar (2) H.J. Bhabha


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(3) M. N. Saha (4) Vikram Sarabhai 88. When was ISRO set up ? (1) 1965 (2) 1969 (3) 1971 (4) 1976

89. How many com lines have exploded the atom bomb before India ? (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3 90. Which is not included in the private income arising in a country ? (1) Factor income from net domestic product (2) Net factor income from abroad (3) Current transfers from Government (4) Current payments on foreign loans

91. The name Pierre Cardin is associated with which of the following fields ? (1) Pop music (2) Fashion designing (3) Painting (4) Motion picture 92. Where was the first Engineering College of India located ? (1) Bombay (2) Roorkee (3) Varanasi (4) Calcutta


236


93. What facility is provided by ‘Edu- sat’ launched by ISRO in September 2004 ? (1) Satellite-based multimedia link (2) Remote sensing (3) Intelligence data (4) Educational connectivity 94, The term "dialectics' refers to (1) ideological conflicts (2) unification of opposites (3) deriving the truth after debates and discussions (4) materialist decision

95. The term 7/7 is related with which of the following terrorist attack in the history of terrorist at- tacks? (1) Underground rail and bus in London (2) World Trade Centre in New York (3) Ram Mandir in Ayodhya (4) Railway network in Madrid, Spain 96. The Supreme Court of India has declared the IMDT Act null and void recently. With which of the following this Act was associated? (1) Industrial management and development in India and attracting uncontrolled foreign investment


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(2) To determine the status of illegal immigrants from Bangladesh in North-East (3) To determine the status of illegal immigrants both from Nepal and Bhutan (4) To provide statutory status to Indian Meterological Department 97. Which state of India was recognised recently by China as part of India? (1) Bhutan (2) Sikkim (3) Nagaland (4) Arunachal Pradesh

98. The ONGC oil platform which caught fire in Mumbai in July 2005 is known as (1) Bombay High (North) (2) Sugar Samrat Platform (3) Sagar Suraksha (4) Bombay High (South)

99. Which two of the following places in India and Pakistan are to be linked by Rail as part of Confidence Building Measure under Indo-Pak Peace initiative ? (1) Munabo and Khokrapar (2) Amritsar and Sialkot (3) Jammu and Sialkot (4) Jaipur and Karachi

100. Which sportsperson has been designated by India's Union Ministry of Health as Goodwill Ambassador for "Save the girl child" campaign ? (1) P.T. Usha (2) Anju Bobby George (3) Sania Mirza (4) Anjali Bhagwat


238


101. ECOMARC is a symbol related to : (1) Exported goods (2) Imported goods (3) Goods safe for environment (4) Best quality

102. The term 'boat people' refers to the migrants from (1) Sri Lanka to India (2) China to USA (3) Vietnam to Thailand (4) Vietnam to USA 103. According to AT Kearney Inc, which country is the hottest destination for foreign direct investment? (1) India (2) China (3) Malaysia (4) Mauritius 104. The country with which India has decided to exchange its border maps is-. (1) Bangladesh (2) China (3) Bhutan (4) Nepal

105.The first Guinness Book of World Records appeared in the year (1) 1950 (2) 1954 (3) 1960 (4) 1963 106. The Atomic Energy Commission was constituted in


239


(1) August, 1948 (2) October, 1955 (3) December, 1962 (4) September, 1965 107. Who of the following is not amongst the top five richest persons in the world as per the latest annual Forbes magazine's 2006 rankings ? (1) Bill Gates of USA (2) Lakshmi Mittal of India (3) Carlos Slim Helu of Mexico (4) Lika-Shing of Hong Kong

108. Vintage cars are those cars which were built between (1) 1945 and 1960 (2) 1939 and 1945 (3) 1930 and 1939 (4) 1918 and 1930

109. Which country of the following has the largest Muslim population? (1) India (2) Pakistan (3) Indonesia (4) Saudi Arabia 110. Arrange the following countries of South Asia in descending order of their population literacy : A. Bangladesh B. India C. Pakistan D. Sri Lanka (1) A.D.C.B (2) C.B.D.A


240


(3) D.B.C.A (4) D.C.B.A

111. The common currency which has been introduced among 11 European Nations is known as (1) Euro Pound (2) Euro (3) Euro Dollar (4) None of these

112. An expert in precious stones and the art of stone cutting is known as a (1) Gemsmith (2) Jeweller (3) Gemmidary (4) Lapidary 113. The disputed coastal strip off the Gujarat coast on which India and Pakistan are holding talks is known as (1) Gulf of Cambay (2) Sir Creek (3) Gulf of Khambhat (4) Mouth of Indus

114. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) has not yet been signed by (1) Canada (2) China (3) India (4) United Kingdom

115. Which one of the following countries is not a member of SAARC ? (1) Bhutan (2) Nepal


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(3) Singapore (4) Maldives 116. Chandigarh's ‘Rock Garden’ is the creation of (1) Kishan Chand (2) Nek Chand (3) Gyan Chand (4) Mool Chand 117. Of which country is bull-fighting the national game ? (1) Spain (2) Portugal (3) Hungary (4) Poland

118. Mr. Shaukat Aziz is (1) Prime Minister of Pakistan (2) Foreign Minister of Pakistan (3) Pakistan's Ambassador to India (4) Finance Minister of Pakistan 119. Maruti Suzuki Automobile India is setting up another (second) car manufacturing facility in which of the following States ? (1) Haryana (2) West Bengal (3) Gujarat (4) Tamil Nadu

120. The name 'Wall Street' is associated with (1) the newspaper centre of Britain (2) the financial centre of USA


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(3) the great wall of China (4) a renowned street in France 121. After the gap of 44 years, border trade between India and China has been resumed at a point known as (l) Bomdi-La (2) Mansarovar (3)Thanga (4) Nathu-La

122. The Nuclear Policy of Which of the following countries has invited a lot of attention at international level as it is assumed that the country has a good stock of enriched uranium ? (1) Pakistan (2) Russia (3) Iran (4) France 123. Who is the chairman of the Prime Minister's Scientific Advisory Committee ? (1) Dr. R. A. Mashelkar (2) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan (3) Dr. V. S. Arunachalam (4) Dr. C. N. R. Rao 124. The concept of 'General Will' was advocated by (1) Hume (2) Hegel (3) Kant (4) Rousseau

125. Which of the following is not a member of SAARC?


243


(1) India (2) Myanmar (3) Maldives (4) Bhutan 126. Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market is (1) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metal (2) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metal (3) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metal (4) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metal

127. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member ? (1) Cambodia (2) China (3) Laos (4) Philippines 128. The Ad Line 'Connecting People' is linked with (1) Sony Ericsson (2) Nokia (3) Motorola (4) Airtel

129. Match the personalities mentioned below with the activity they are associated with: (i) Rod Laver (ii) Chanda Kochar (iii) Birju Maharaj (iv) Bala Murlikrishnan a. Kathak Dancing b. Music c. Lawn Tennis d. Banking


244


(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) c d a b (2) a c b d (3) b a d c (4) d b c a

130. Find the odd one. (1) J.R. Hicks (2) Richard Stone (3) Friedrich August von Hayek (4) Amartya Sen 131. Match the following political leaders of India with their respective political parties: (i) Sharad Pawar a. CPI (ii) Sharad Yadav b. BSP (iii) Mayawati c. JD (U) (iv) A.B, Bardhan d. NCP (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) c d b a (2) d c b a (3) d c a b (4) b a c d

132. Where was wildlife institute of India established in 1982 for research and training programmes?


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(1) Bhubaneswar (2) Delhi (3) Dehradun (4) Nilgiri

133. The full form of IRDA is (1) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (2) International Reconstruction and Development Association (3) India Road Development Agency (4) International Refinance and Development Association

134. Match the personalities mentioned below, with the Activity(ies) they are associated with : List-I (i) PankajAdwani (ii) Kiran Majumdar Shaw (iii) Mallika Sarabhai (iv) Anjolie Ela Menon List-II a. Dancing b. Painting c. Snooker d. Biotechnology

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) d a b c (2) a b c d


246


(3) b c d a (4) c d a b

135. STTP stands for (1) Special Thermal Power Project (2) Semi Thermal Power Plant (3) Super Thermal Power Plant (4) Super Thermal Power Production

136. Who is the C.E.O. of Infosys Technologies? (1) Narayan Murthy (2) Azim Premji (3) Nandan M. Nilekani (4) E. Shreedharan

137. Find the odd one : (1) George W Bush (2) Bill Clinton (3) Jimmy Carter (4) Tony Blair 138. TRAI stands for (1) Trans-Roadways Authority of India (2) Telephone Regulatory Authority of India (3) Transport & Roads Authority of India (4) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India


247


139. The Catch-line The Joy of Flying" is associated with (1) Jet Airways (2) Sahara Airlines (3) Indian (4) Air India 140. Shri M. Damodaran is (1) Chairman, Unit Trust of India (2) Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India (3) Chairman, Securities and Exchange Board of India (4) Chairman, Life Insurance Corporation of India

141. Where is the largest reflecting telescope of Asia ? (1) Kodaikanal (2) Ooty (3) Kavalur (4) Naini Tal 142. CTBT denotes (1) arms control measure (2) drugs control measure (3) financial control measure (4) trade control and regulation 143. Name the State carved out of Madhya Pradesh after the Parliament passed the legislation in the year 2000


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(1) Vananchal (2) Chhattisgarh (3) Vidarbha (4) Uttaranchal

144. Salim Ali was an eminent (1) Urdu poet (2) Ornithologist (3) Ghazal singer (4) None of these 145. 'Survey of India’ is under the Ministry of (1) Defence (2) Environment and Forests (3) Home Affairs (4) Science and Technology

146. Which of the following organisations is the oldest ? (l) IMF (2) WHO (3) ILO (4) FAO

147.Which of the following is not correctly matched? (1) Indonesia – Jakarta (2) Maldives - Male (3) North Korea – Seoul (4) Zimbabwe - Harare 148.The "Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty" came into force in (1) 1967 (2) 1970


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(3) 1971 (4) 1974

149. Which group of the following countries participated in the "Malabar 07," a six days joint naval exercise (September 4-9) involving 25 warships, in the Bay of Bengal? (1) India, U.S., Japan, Australia and South Korea (2) India, U.S., Australia, Singapore and South Korea (3) India. U.S.. Japan, Singapore and Australia (4) India, U.S., Japan, Singapore and South Korea. 150. The three day VIII World Hindi Conference was held in July 2007 at (1) New Delhi (2) London (3) New York (4) Kathmandu

151. The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) consists of (1) China, Russia, Kazha kistan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan (2) China, Russia, Mongolia, Kazhakistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan (3) China, Russia, Mongolia, Iran, Kazhakistan and Uzbekistan (4) China, Russia, Iran, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan 152.Which of the following companies has become the highest ranked Indian company in the Fortune Global 500 list (at 135th position) in terms of sales? (1) Wipro (2) Reliance (3) Indian Oil Corporation (4) ONGC


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153.Which one of the following has not been included in the list of new seven wonders? (1) Roman Colosseum (Italy) (2) Machu Picchu (Peru) (3) Eiffel Tower in Paris (France) (4) Chirst the Redeemer (Brazil) 154. The Chairman of the Indian Censor Board of Film is (1) Shri Anupam Kher (2) Shri Gulzar (3) Smt. SharmilaTagore (4) Shri Sanjeev Kumar

155.Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the SAARC? (1) Bangladesh (2) Bhutan (3) Maldives (4) Myanmar

156. The World's largest biofuel plant with production capacity of 110 million litres of fuel annually has been set up in (1) China (2) India (3) Brazil (4) U.S.A.

157. Where was Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit, 2007 held ? (1) New Delhi (2) New York (3) Singapore (4) Sydney


251


158. Who among the following is a non-resident Indian ? (1) An Indian tourist in America (2) A person of Indian origin working as a Computer Engineer in America (3) A person of Indian origin employed in the U.N.O. office at New Delhi (4) The Indian manager of State Bank of India branch in London 159. Where is the National Academy of Agricultural Research Management located ? (1) Dehradoon (2) Hyderabad (3) New Delhi (4) ltanagar 160. Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is located at (1) Secunderabad (2) Rae Bareilly (3) Jodhpur (4) Delhi

161. Who was the first woman in the world to scale the Mount Everest? (1) Bachendri Pal (2) Junko Tabei (3) Yoko Ono (4) Aung Sung 162. The pair which is not a twin-city is (1) Hyderabad-Secunderabad (2) Durgapur - Asansol (3) Calcutta-Howrah (4) Delhi-New Delhi


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163. Who was the second man to land on the Moon ? (1) Yuri Gagarin (2) Neil Armstrong (3) Buzz Aldrin (4) Michael Collins 164. Match the following cities and their airports : A. Chhatrapati 1. Singapore Shivaji B. Heathrow 2. Hong Kong C. Payalebar 3. London D. Kaitak 4. Mumbai

A

B

C

D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 3 2 4 1

(3) 1 3 2 4

(4) 4 3 1 2

165. Who is the first Asian to become the Head of the prestigious Trinity College of Cambridge University ? (1) Amartya Sen (2) Mahendra Chaudhury (3) Nirod C. Chaudhury (4) Ketaki Mushari Dyson


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166. The Indian actor who played a prominent role in the Hollywood production: The Ghost and The Darkness" is (1) Om Puri (2) Naseeruddin Shah (3) Amitabh Bachchan (4) Anil Kapoor

167. Where is the Headquarter s of Zoo- logical Survey of India located ? (1) Mumbai (2) Delhi (3) Kolkata (4) Chennai 168. What is the name given to the common currency of the European Union? (1) Rupee (2) Euro (3) Rouble (4) Franc

169. 'Mandi House' in New Delhi houses the (1) Office of the Chairman, DTC (2) Office of the NDFC (3) Office of the CPWC (4) Office of the Director General of Doordarshan 170. The train Service- Thar Express" between India and Pakistan, originates in India from (1) Jaisalmer (2) Jodhpur (3) Bikaner (4) Banner


254


171. Which one of the following countries has become the world leader in the carbon credit business in 2007? (1) India (2) Brazil (3) Mexico (4) China

172. Brain drain (1) is a disease (2) refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions (3) is fruitless expenditure on scientific and industrial research (4) refers to emigration of skilled persons

173. 'India Today’ is (1) a staggering mass of problems (2) former British India minus Pakistan (3) a News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs (4) the Union of India, a member of United Nations

174. Teen Bigha Corridor links (1) India and Pakistan (2) India and China (3) Bangladesh and Pakistan (4) Bangladesh and India


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175. The venue of the Energy Summit. 2008 was (1) Jeddah (2) Tehran (3) Riyadh (4) Tripoli

176. CTBT stands for (1) Continued Test Ban Treaty (2) Continued Test Based Treatments (3) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (4) Commercial Test Based Tariff 177. Pull form of MCA is (1) Ministry of Company Affairs (2) Master of Computer Application (3) Member Chartered Accountant (4) Master of Commerce and Arts

178. Formalised system of trading agreements with groups of countries is known as (1) Trading blocks (2) Trade ventures (3) Trade partners (4) Trade organisations 179. What was the name of" the ship that sank near the Paradip Port in September, 2009 causing an oil spill ?


256


(1) Red Rose (2) Black Rose (3) White Rose (4) Green Rose 180. Which of the following Indonesian regions was a victim of massive earthquake in 2004? (1) Irian Jaya (2) Sumatra (3) Kalibangan (4) Java 181. India and U.S. have decided to finalise agreements related to which of the following? (1) Trade and investment (2) Intellectual Property (3) Traditional Knowledge (4) All of the above 182. Which of the following countries has recently become the third largest market for Twitter? (1) China (2) India (3) Brazil (4) Indonesia

183. The exchange of commodities between two countries is referred as (1) Balance of trade (2) Bilateral trade (3) Volume of trade (4) Multilateral trade


257


184. TRIPS and TRIMS are the terms associated with (1) IMF (2) WTO (3) IBRD (4) IDA 185. In India ‘NDDB' means (1) National District Development Board (2) National Demand Development Board (3) National Dairy Development Board (4) National Deposit Development Board 186. Match the personalities mentioned below with the activity they are associated with : (a) Mark Spitz (b) Sabeer Bhatia (c) Shovana Narayan (d) Adoor Gopalakrishnan (1) Kathak Dancing (2) Films (3) Swimming (4) Software Industry

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 1 3 2 4 (2) 2 4 3 1

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 4 2 1 3 187. Which one of the following cities has the maximum number of registered vehicles on the road ? (1) Mumbai (2) Kolkata (3) Delhi (4) Chennai


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188. India recently signed an agreement in the field of energy with a country, which is considered world leader in the field of 'Renewable Energy'. Which is that country?

(1) China (2) Spain (3) Japan (4) South Africa 189. Red data book gives information about species which are : (1) extinct (2) endangered (3) dangerous (4) rare 190. The world's only floating national park is sistuated in : (1) Manipur (2) Kuala Lumpur (3) Bilaspur (4) Dispur

191.Accordlng to the latest 'Education Development Index’ based on a series of surveys conducted by the National University of Education, Planning and Administration and released in February, 2011, the state with the highest Development Index is : (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Kerala (3) Punjab (4) Gujarat


259


192. In the budget speech on February 28, 2011, the Finance Minister has announced that an international award with prize money of Rs. 1 crore is being instituted in the memory of Rabindranath Tagore for promoting (1) international peace (2) emancipation of underprivileged (3) universal brotherhood (4) human rights 193. 'Nomadic Elephant' was the joint military exercise held some time back in India between India and (1) China (2) U.S.A. (3) Russia (4) Mongolia

194. South-South dialogue is associated with (1) Co-operation among developing nations (2) Arms conference (3) Summit meeting between developed and developing countries (4) Ail the above 195. When did India join the Inter- national Tsunami Warning Sys- tem? (1) 2004 (2) 2005 (3) 2006 (4) 2007

196. Who is the Supreme Commander-in-Chief of armed forces of the country ?


260


(1) Defence Minister (2) Prime Minister (3) Senior-most among the three Service Chiefs (4) President 197. Who among the following advocated the "Labour Theory" of Property"? (1) Thomas Hobbes (2) John Locke (3) J.J. Rousseau (4) J.S. Mill

198. The Asian Development Bank has its headquarters at (1) New Delhi (2) Tokyo (3) Colombo (4) Manila 199. Who amongst the following is associated with "Microsoft"? (1) Andrew Grove (2) Bill Gates (3) Ted Turner (4) Rupert Murdoch 200. Which of the following is the Japanese currency? (l)Taka (2) Lira (3) Mark (4) Yen

201. Where is the lotus-shaped marble house of worship located? (1) Mumbai (2) Pune (3) Delhi (4) Agra


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202. Which fighting force of India will benefit from the LCA project? (1) Army (2) Navy (3) Air Force (4) BSF

203. The world's first woman Prime Minister was (1) Smt. Indira Gandhi (2) Smt. Sirimao Bandarnayake (3) Smt. Benazir Bhutto (4) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

204. Match the following : Countries Sports (i) Australia (a) Bullfighting (ii) U.S.A. (b) Ice hockey (iii) Spain (c) Cricket (iv) Japan (d) Baseball (e) Ju Jitsu (1) i-c, ii-d, iii-b. iv-a (2) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-e (3) i -c ii-d, iii-a. iv-e (4) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-e


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205. The origin of the phrase "United Nations" is associated with one of the following personalities- (1) Jawaharlal Nehru (2) Franklin Roosevelt (3) Charles de Gaulle (4) Woodraw Wilson

206. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at (1) Kuala Lumpur (2) Bangkok (3) Manila (4) Singapore 207. Which of the following is called the 'Mother of Parliaments'? (1) The German Parliament (2) The American Parliament (3) The French Parliament (4) The British Parliament

208. The abbreviation TRP denotes (1) Technical Research Project (2) Trade Related Procedures (3) Tax Related Protocols (4) Television Rating Point 209. Who said, 'Man is a Social Animal? (1) Plato (2) Aristotle (3) Rousseau (4) Socrates


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210. The abbreviation (TRAI) stands for (1) Taxation Research and Analysis Institute (2) Tourist Resort's Agents of India (3) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (4) Trade-Ralated Accounts and Indices

211. In Jabbar Patel's feature film on the life of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the role of Dr. Ambedkar was enacted by (1) Kamal Hassan (2) Mammoothy (3) Mohan Lal (4) Govinda 212. In international disputes over air rights, which among the following acts as an Arbitrator ? (1) ILO (2) ICAO (3) WMO (4) 1TO 213. Now the released public Europiean currency is (1) Euro (2) Pound Sterling (3) Dollar (4) Frank

214. Which country is not a member of SAARC? (1) India (2) Pakistan


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(3) Myanmar (4) Bangladesh

215. Which amidst the following countries of the European Union has not adopted the single currency Euro? (1) Denmark (2) The Netherlands (3) Portugal (4) Spain 216. The main advocate of Utilitarianism is (1) Herbert Spencer (2) J.S. Mill (3) Abraham Lincoln (4) Jeremy Bentham

217. TRIPS stands for (1) Trade related investment property rights (2) Trade related inherited property rights (3) Trade related intellectual property rights (4) Trade related interest property rights 218. Who conquered Mt. Everest ten times? (1) Rita Ang (2) Nawang Gombu (3) Yasuo Kato (4) Tenzing Norgay

219. Which of the following events occurred first?


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(1) Man landed on moon (2) Dolly is produced by cloning (3) Human Genome Project is completed (4) Integrated Chip is invented 220. What was the original name of the "Shaheed Minar" in Kolkata? (1) Victoria Memorial (2) Ochtorloney Memorial (3) Hastings Square (4) Chowringhee

221. Which of the following rivers is causing dispute among Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra? (1) Kaveri (2) Tapti (3) Kosi (4) Krishna 222. The World's First Test Tube Dolphins were born in (1) Singapore (2) Beijing (3) Hong Kong (4) Seoul 223. The first example of an enacted Constitution is (1) the American Constitution (2) the Chinese Constitution (3) the Russian Constitution (4) the french Constitution


266


224. NASDAQ stands for (1) National Association of Shares Dealers Automated Quotation (2) National Association of Stock Dealers Automated Quotation (3) National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation (4) National Association of Small Units Automated Quotation 225. Which of the following is a wonder of the ancient world? (1) The Great Wall of China (2) The Taj Mahal (3) The Hanging Gardens of Babylon (4) The Catacombs of Alexandria

226. In which country people participate in the amendment of the Constitution? (1) France (2) England (3) Switzerland (4) U.S.A. 227. What is the new name of the 'Prince of Wales' museum in India? (1) Chhatrapathi Shivaji Museum (2) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Museum (3) Indira Gandhi Museum (4) Rabindranath Tagore Museum

228. Who created 'Hotmail'? (1) Sabeer Bhatia (2) Bill Gates (3) Jack St. Clair Kilby (4) Donald W. Davies


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229. Referendum and initiative are practised in (1) Great Britain (2) India (3) America (4) Switzerland 230. Green Land belongs to which European country? (1) Denmark (2) Norway (3) Sweden (4) Finland

231. In which country there is no difference between Constitutional Law and Ordinary Law? (1) UK (2) USA (3) Germany (4) India 232. Which country started competitive examination for civil service for the first time? (1) Britain (2) France (3) China (4) United States

233. Where is the Church of Nativity located? (1) Jerusalem (2) Bethelhem (3) Nazareth (4) Rome


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234. Where are the world famous Pyramids found ? (1) Egypt (2) Persia (3) Arabia (4) Italy 235. Who was responsible for the Nationalisation of the Suez Canal in 1956? (1) King Farouk (2) General Naguib (3) King Abdullah (4) Gamal Abdul Nasser 236. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at (1) Delhi (2) Bangalore (3) Madras (Chennai) (4) Lucknow

237. With which brand or product, the slogan 'Connecting India' is associated ? (1) BSNL (2) MTNL (3) Airtel (4) Nokia

238. The currency of Myanmar is (1) Dollar (2) Rupee (3) Taka (4) Kyat

239. Which is the smallest country (in population) ?


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(1) Vatican City (2) Nauru (3) Monaco (4) Palau 240. The World Trade Organisation was formed in (1) 1991 (2) 1995 (3) 1997 (4) 1999

241. With which brand or product, is the slogan 'Just do it’ associated? (1)Bata (2) Power (3) Wood land (4) Nike 242. Silicon Valley of India is located in (1) Dehradun (2) Bangalore (3) Hyderabad (4) Srinagar 243. In India FERA has been replaced by (1) FEMA (2) FETA (3) FENA (4) FELA 244. Right to Information Act was passed in the year (1)2001 (2)2005 (3) 2004 (4) 2002


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245. Which is the administrative capital of Malayasia ? (1) Putrajaya (2) Seremban (3) Taiping (4) Ipoh

246. Which of the following schools is associated with Jawaharlal Nehru ? (1) NAVYUG School (2) NAVODAYA School (3) SARVODAYA (4) None of the above 247. Which of the following organisations prepares topographical maps of India? (1) Geographical Survey of India (2) Survey of India (3) Geological Survey of India (4) Archaeological Survey of India.

248. The height of the World's tallest tower, the ‘Burj Dubai’ (renamed ‘Burj Khalifa') is (1) 740 metres (2) 818 metres (3) 848 metres (4) 903 metres 249. The country having the largest rail network in the world is (1) Russia (2) U.S.A. (3) China (4) India


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250. The headquarters of WTO is at: (1) New York (2) Uruguay (3) Doha (4) Geneva 251. Yuan is the currency of: (1) Japan (2) China (3) Italy (4) Yugoslavia 252. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at: (1) Delhi (3) Bangalore (2) Chennai (4) Lucknow 253. National Institute of Rural Development is located at: (1) New Delhi (2) Mumbai (3) Hyderabad (4) Kanpur 254. Yen is the currency of: (1) Yugoslavia (3) Mexico (2) Japan (4) Thailand

255. The National Tree of India is (1) Neem (2) Peepal (3) Banyan (4) Mango


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256. The Central Leather Research Institute (CLRI) is located at (1) Pune (2) Guwahati (3) Chennai (4) Srinagar 257. First United Nations Conference on Environment was held in (1) Montreal (2) Stockholm (3) London (4) Paris

258. 'Multinational' is (1) a person who has visited several countries (2) a company operating in several countries (3) a person having citizenship of several countries (4) an organisation set up to help developing countries

259. Which city of India is called as the "Silicon Valley of India'? (1) Bengaluru (2) Chennai (3) Hyderabad (4) Mumbai

260. Near which one of the following cities are Palitana temples located? (1) Bhavnagar (2) Mount Abu (3) Nasik (4) Ujjain


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261. The first President of India who made a 30-minute sortie in the Sukhoi fighter aircraft of the In-dian Air Force is (1) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (2) Smt. Pratibha Patil (3) KR. Narayanan (4) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

262. 'Juno1 is the name of NASA's mission to (1) Saturn (2) Mars (3) Jupiter (4) None of these

263. Which one of the following is known as the 'Pearl City' ? (1) Kandla (2) Tuticorin (3) Kochi (4) Hyderabad 264. The latest and the largest Shipyard set up with Japanese collaboration is: (1) Hindustan Ship-yard in Vishakhapatnam (2) Kochi Ship-yard (3) Garden Reach Workshops at Kolkata (4) Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai

265. 'Rail Bandhu' is : (1) Web site of each railway division (2) the onboard medical officer in every train to attend to medical emergencies


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(3) security guard in every A.C.coach of Rajdhani/Shatabdi and A.C, Duronto Express (4) an onboard magazine of Indian Railways to be available in Rajdhani/Shatabdi/A.C. Duronto Express 266. Coffee Research Institute of India is located at: (1) Yercaud (2) Wayanad (3) Coorg (4) Coimbatore

267. Which one of the following is an example for Monopoly ? (1) SP1C (2) Indian Railways (3) HMT (4) Hindustan Unilever Limited

268. WTO came into existence in the year : (1) 1977 (2) 1985 (3) 1995 (4) 1950

269. Earth Summit was held in (1) Chicago (2) Adelaide (3) London (4) Rio de Janeiro 270. In the first expansion of SAARC which one of the following countries joined as eighth member of SAARC?


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(1) Myanmar (2) Iran (3) Afghanistan (4) Thailand

271. 'SCOPE' is the abbreviated form (1) Standing Conference of Public Enterprises (2) Selection Commission of Public Enterprises (3) Specialist Committee of Public Enterprises (4) None of the above 272. Metric system of measurement started in the country in : (1) 1954 (2) 1955 (3) 1956 (4) 1957

ANSWER

1.(4) 2.(4) 3. (1) 4.(4)

5.(1) 6.(4) 7.(2) 8.(1)

9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3)

13. (2) 14. (4) 15. (4) 16. (4)

17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (1)

21. (*) 22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1)

25. (4) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2)


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29. (*) 30, (2) 31. (3) 32. (4)

33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (3) 36. (2)

37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (2)

41. (*) 42. (3) 43. (3) 44.(1)

45. (1) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48.(4)

49. (3) 50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (4)

53. (2) 54. (4) 55. (4) 56. (4)

57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (4)

61. (4) 62. (4) 63. (1) 64. (3)

65. (4) 66. (2) 67. (4) 68. (3)

69. (1) 70. (2) 71. (2) 72. (4)

73. (4) 74. (2) 75. (4) 76. (3)

77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (2) 80. (4)

81. (2) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84.(1)

85. (3) 86. (3) 87. (2) 88. (2)

89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (2) 92. (2)

93. (4) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (2)

97. (2) 98. (1) 99. (1) 100. (3)

101. (3) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (2)

105. (2) 106. (1) 107. (4) 108. (4)

109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (2) 112. (4)

113. (2) 114. (3) 115. (3) 116. (2)

117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (1) 120. (2)

121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (4) 124. (4)

125. (2) 126. (3) 127. (2) 128. (2)

129. (1) 130. (4) 131. (2) 132. (3)


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133. (1) 134. (4) 135. (3) 136. (3)

137. (4) 138. (4) 139. (1) 140. (3)

141. (4) 142. (1) 143. (2) 144. (2)

145. (2) 146. (3) 147. (3) 148. (2)

149. (3) 150. (3) 151. (1) 152. (3)

153. (3) 154. (3) 155. (4) 156. (3)

157. (4) 158. (2) 159. (2) 160. (2)

161. (2) 162. (4) 163. (3) 164. (4)

165. (1) 166. (1) 167. (3) 168. (2)

169. (4) 170. (2) 171. (4) 172. (4)

173. (3) 174. (4) 175. (1) 176. (3)

177. (2) 178. (1) 179. (2) 180. (2)

181. (4) 182. (4) 183. (2) 184. (2)

185. (3) 186. (3) 187. (3) 188. (2)

189. (2) 190. (1) 191. (2) 192. (3)

193. (4) 194. (1) 195. (2) 196. (4)

197. (2) 198. (4) 199. (2) 200. (4)

201. (3) 202. (3) 203. (2) 204. (3)

205. (2) 206. (2) 207. (4) 208. (4)

209. (2) 210. (3) 211. (2) 212. (2)

213. (1) 214. (3) 215. (1) 216. (4)

217. (3) 218. (1) 219. (4) 220. (2)

221. (4) 222. (3) 223. (1) 224. (3)

225. (3) 226. (3) 227. (1) 228. (1)


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229. (4) 230. (1) 231. (1) 232. (3)

233. (2) 234. (1) 235. (4) 236. (4)

237. (1) 238. (4) 239. (1) 240. (2)

241. (4) 242. (2) 243. (1) 244. (2)

245. (1) 246. (2) 247. (2) 248. (*)

249. (2) 250. (4) 251. (2) 252. (4)

253. (3) 254. (2) 255. (3) 256. (3)

257. (2) 258. (2) 259. (1) 260. (1)

261. (1) 262. (3) 263. (4) 264. (2)

265. (4) 266. (*) 267. (2) 268. (3)

269. (4) 270. (3) 271.(1) 272. (3)

UNO, OTHER INTERNATIONAL & NATIONAL ORGANISATION

1. Where was the first regular session of UN General Assembly held ?


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(1) San Francisco (2) New York (3) London (4) Paris

2. Which among the following institutions is not related to United Nations ? (1) Universal Postal Union (UPU) (2) International Finance Commission (IFC) (3) World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) (4) International Confederation of Free Trade Union (ICFTU)

3. The main function of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is : (1) enforcing of Uruguay Round Agreements (2) facilitating multi-lateral trade relations of member countries and reviewing trade policies (3) administering trade dispute settlement procedures (4) None of the above 4. The World Bank normally gives: (1) short term loans (2) medium-term loans (3) long-term loans (4) medium and long-term loans

5. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) came into existence with: (1) Berlin Conference (2) London Conference


280


(3) Brettonwoods Conference (4) Rome Conference

6. Structural adjustment loans given by the World Bank are meant for : (1) increasing employment in agriculture (2) increasing export-earning capacity of the borrower country (3) reducing inequalities of income distribution (4) encouraging capital-intensive industries 7. India's share in world trade since 1950. (1) has been rising (2) has been constant (3) has been declining (4) has shown a mixed trend

8. The Secretary - General of the UNO is appointed by the : (1) General Assembly (2) Security Council (3) Trusteeship Council (4) World Bank 9. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade was replaced by: (1) North American Free Trade Association (2) South Asian Free Trade (3) World Trade Orgaisation (4) None of these 10. Who is the Chairprerson of the United Nations Human Rights Committee?


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(1) Mrs. Many Robinson (2) Ms. Sadaka Ogata (3) Mr. Justice P.N. Bhagawati (4) Ms. Gro Harlem Brundtland 11. Which country is the latest to join the U.N. as a member ? (1) Switzerland (2) Hong Kong (3) Taiwan (4) East Timor

12. Which of the following is the latest from India to be recognized by the UNESCO's World Heritage Committee for its "outstanding universal value" ? (1) Siliguri-Darjeeling Himalayan Railway (2) Mahabodhi temple complex at Bodhgaya (3) Sarnath (4) Kushinagar 13. Who were made the permanent members of the U.N. Security- Council ? (1) One representative from each continent (2) Five major powers of the Allied Forces in the Second World War (3) Five members elected by the U.N. General Assembly at the initial Constitution (4) Funding members of the U.N.

14. According to the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child which of the following is not a right? (1) Safe drinking water


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(2) Adequate standard of living (3) Employment (4) Protection from exploita-tion 15. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) facility is available at (1) International Monetary Fund (IMF) (2) World Bank (IBRD) (3) International Develop-ment Association (IDA) (4) Organisation of Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

16. The headquarters of UNESCO is in (1) New York (2) The Hague (3) Paris (4) Moscow

17. Which country decided to Join the United Nations, as a Member, on the basis of the results of a referendum held in the country? (1) Belgium (2) Austria (3) Finland (4) Switzerland 18. Where was the CHOGM held in 2002? (1) Brisbane (2) Durban (3) Coolum (4) Kuala Lumpur 19. The UN Secretary-General holds office for a period of


283


(1) 3 years (2) 4 years .(3) 5 years (4) 6 years 20. Which among the following is not a specialised agency of UNO ? (1) FAO (2) UNESCO (3) Universal Postal Union (4) WHO

21. Which among the following continent does not have any world cultural heritage site recognised by the UNESCO ? (1) North America (2) Africa (3) Australia (4) South America 22. According to the UN convention on the rights of the child which amidst the following is NOT a right? (1) Social security (2) Employment (3) Protection from exploitation (4) Education 23. In which year did the UN General-Assembly adopt the Universal Declaration of Human Rights? (1) 1945 (2) 1948 (3) 1952 (4) 1955


284


24. Which of the following is not associated with the UN organisation? (1) ILO (2) WHO (3) FAO (4) ASEAN

25. Who was the chief weapons inspector of the United Nations in Iraq? (1) Hans Blix (2) Mohammed Ei Baradei (3) David Kelly (4) Davis Kay 26. The International Criminal Police Organsiation (INTERPOL) has its headquarters at (1) London (2) Paris (3) Bonn (4) Montreal 27. Once elected for a full term, a judge serves on the International Court of Justice for (1) five years (2) six years (3) nine years (4) ten years

28. Which Indian city has been chosen by the World Bank for setting up its back office operations? (1) New Delhi (2) Kolkata (3) Chennai (4) Bangalore


285


29. The UN flag was adopted by the General Assembly on (1) October 20, 1947 (2) January 1. 1952 (3) June 24, 1973 (4) August 15, 1982 30. Which amidst the following is not a specialised agency of the UN ? (1) International Maritime Organisation (2) World Intellectual Property Organisation (3) International Telecommunication Union (4) FAO

31. Which region of the Americas has the highest concentration of World Heritage Sites on the list of the UNESCO? (1) USA and Canada (2) Brazil and Argentina (3) Chile (4) Central Americas (Between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn)

32. Identify the goodwill ambassador for the UNICEF from the following: (1) Amitabh Bachchan (2) N.R. Narayana Murthy (3) Vijay Amritraj (4) Michael Schumacher 33. Which from the following sites/ monuments in India is on the UNESCO's list of World Cultural Heritages ? (1) Kashi Viswanath Temple


286


(2) Red Fort, Delhi (3) Agra Fort (4) Golconda Fort 34. Which from the following countries is not a member of the European Union ? (1) Norway (2) Sweden (3) Finland (4) Lithuania 35. According to the UN convention on the rights of the child which of the following is not a right? (1) Safe drinking water (2) Adequate standard of living (3) Education (4) Employment 36. Where is the oldest continuously functioning World Bank country office? (1) Tokyo (2) Bonn (3) Paris (4) New Dell 37. Where is headquarters of European Union located ? (1) London (2) Paris (3) Brussels (4) Bonn 38. Who among the following is the Director-General of the world Trade Organisation?


287


(1) Chris Patten (2) Supachai Panichtchpakdi (3) Robert Joelick (4) Dunkel 39. Where is the headquarters of Botanical Survey of India located ? (1) Lucknow (2) Darjeeling (3) Kolkata (4) Ootacmund 40. Decisions of the Security Council on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative votes of ---------------------- members. (1) Eleven (2) Ten (3) Eight (4) Nine 41. Who is the President of the World Bank ? (1) Paul Wolfowitz (2) dames Wolfensohn (3) Rodrigo De Rato (4) Allen Greenspan 42. IMF was established to meet which of the following objectives? (A) Promoting International Monetary Cooperation (B) Expanding International trade (C) Lessening the disequilibrium in balance of trade (D) Avoiding competitive exchange depreciations (1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (AUC) and (D) (3) (B) and (D) (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)


288


43. The International Court of Justice sits in (1) Geneva (2) Hague (3) Vienna (4) Rome 44. Which institution is known as 'soft loan window' of the World Bank? (1) International Finance Corporation (2) International Development Agency (3) International Monetary Fund (4) Indian Development Forum 45. The Security Council of UN consists of (1) 5 permanent and 10 non- permanent members (2) 10 permanent and 5 non- permanent members (3) 15 permanent members (4) 15 non-permanent members 46. The Secretary General of UNO is appointed by (1) the General Assembly (2) the Security Council (3) the International Court of Justice (4) the General Assembly on the recommendations of the Security Council 47. The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was earlier known as (1) GATT (2) UNICEF


289


(3) UNCTAD (4) FAO 48. Who is the present Secretary General of the United Nations ? (1) Javier Perez de Cuellar (2) Kofi Annan (3) U.Thant (4) Boutros Boutros-Ghali 49. The headquarters of World Health Organisation (WHO) is at (1) London (2) Genera (3) Paris (4) Washington 50. International Monetary Fund helps India with (1) short term capital to hide over any temporary difficulty in Balance of Payments (2) long term capital for purposes of reconstruction and development (3) medium term capital to build up infrastructure (4) grants at subsidised rates to stimulate private investment 51. How many permanent members are there in the Security Council? (1) Three (2) Five (3) Six (4) Four 52. Which one country is not a permanent member of the Security Council of the United Nations ? (1) France (2) Germany (3) Russia


290


(4) United States of America 53. The latest addition to the list of UNESCO's world heritage sites in India is (1) Qutab Minar (2) Humayun'sTomb (3) Khajuraho Temple (4) Red Fort 54. Under the rules of the IMF, each member is required to declare the par value of its legal lender money in terms of U.S. dollars and (1) Silver (2) Gold (3) Pound sterling (4) Diamond 55. Who of the following has been appointed as the eleventh President of the World Bank for a five year term with effect from Jury 1, 2007? (1) John Wolfensohn (2) Paul Wolfowitz (3) Robert Zoellick (4) David Morgan 56. The headquarters of Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries is located in (1) Vienna (2) Riyadh (3) Kuwait City (4) Abu Dhabi 57. 'World Bank' is also known as (1) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (2) International Bank for Rehabilitation and Development


291


(3) International Bank for Refinance and Development (4) International Bank for Research and Development 58. As required by the WTO agreement, the Indian Patent Act was amended in 1999. The Act first came into force in the year (1) 1965 (2) 1970 (3) 1975 (4) 1980 59. The capital of IMF is made up by contribution of the (1) credit (2) deficit financing (3) member nations (4) borrowings 60. Which country from the following is a permanent member of UN Security Council ? (1) Switzerland (2) People's Rupublic of China (3) Japan (4) Ukraine 61. According to a resolution adopted by the United Nations General Assembly, 'International Day of Peace' is observed every year on (1) September 1 (2) September 14 (3) September 21 (4) September 30 62. Where was the last Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit held ?


292


(1) Sydney (2) Auckland (3) New York (4) Beijing 63. According to the UN Convention on the rights of children, which of the following is not a right ? (1) Safe drinking water (2) Adequate standard of living (3) Education (4) Marriage

64. The Headquarters of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) is at (1) New York (2) Paris (3) Geneva (4) Rome 65. World Bank helps countries with loans for the purpose of (1) reconstruction and development (2) stimulating private investment (3) tackling foreign exchange crisis (4) meeting deficits in government budget 66. The United Nations officially came into existence on (1) January 1, 1942 (2) October 3, 1944 (3) October 24, 1945 (4) June 26, 1945


293


67. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the Security Council of the UNO? (1) China (2) France (3) Japan (4) United Kingdom 68. What is the full form of NATO (1) North African Treaty Organisation (2) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (3) North Asian Treaty Organisation (4) North American Treaty Organisation 69. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by (1) UNESCO (2) UNCED (3) WHO (4) UN1CEF 70. WTO basically promotes (1) Financial support (2) Global peace (3) Unilateral trade (4) Multilateral trade 71. The non-permar.ent members of the Security Council are elected for (1) One year (2) Two years (3) Three years (4) Six months 72. The International Court of Justice sits in


294


(1) Geneva (2) The Hague (3) Vienna (4) Rome 73. World Trade Organization (WTO) was started in the year (1) 1984 (2) 1994 (3) 1995 (4) 1996 74. Which one of the following is not a function of International Monetary Fund ? (1) It provides short term credit to its members (2) It arranges for conversion of currencies (3) It secures stability in the rates of foreign exchange (4) It can create new money for stabilising exchange rate 75. When did India join the United Nations? (1) 1945 (2) 1947 (3) 1950 (4) 1954 76. The Headquarters of Inter-national Atomic Energy Agency is in (1) Geneva (2) Paris (3) Vienna (4) Washington 77. The member states of the U.N.O. have delegated the primary responsibility for maintaining world peace and security to the- (1) General Assembly


295


(2) Economic and Social Council (EcoSoc) (3) Security Council (4) International Court of Justice 78. Which country from the following is a permanent member of the U.N. Security-Council? (1) Switzerland (2) Peoples Republic of China (3) Japan (4) Ukraine 79. According to the U.N. Convention on the rights of children which of the following is not a right? (1) Safe drinking water (2) Adequate standard of living (3) Education (4) Marriage 80. The Headquarters of the International Monetary Fund is located at (1) Paris (2) Vienna (3) Washingtan D.C. (4) Geneva 81. When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the U.N. General Assembly? (1) 24 October, 1945 (2) 10 December, 1948 (3) 25 June, 1950 (4) 1 January, 1953


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82. Who among the following Indians has presided over the UNESCO? (1) Dr. Zakir Hussain (2) Dr. Ramaswami Mudaliar (3) Dr. S. Radhakirshnan (4) MaulanaAzad 83. Which of the following is the headquarters of the World Bank? (1) The Hague (2) Washington (3) Paris (4) London 84. The number of non-permanent members of the Security Council is (1) 5 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 12 85. Which of these countries is not a member of the U.N. ? (1) Turkey (2) Sweden (3) Syria (4) Switzerland 86. International Finance Corporation is an affiliate of (1) I.M.F. (2) I.B.R.D. (3) I.D.A. (4) A:D.B 87. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the U.N.O. on (1) 15th August 1947 (2) 24th October, 1945


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(3) 10th December, 1948 (4) 20th December, 1948 88. The main objective of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is to (1) establish a harmonious atmosphere in the world market (2) encourage international trade (3) increase the volume of international trade through the removal of restrictions on trade gradually (4) establish a centre for trading 89. G-15agroupof (1) Developed countries (2) Developing countries (3) Companies (4) Non-Mgned developing countries 90. UN emblem is in (1) white centred on a light blue ground (2) green centred on a bright yellow ground (3) black centred on a light blue ground (4) blue centred on a light white ground 91. Permanent members of U.N. Security Council are (1) U.S.A.. U.K., Russia. Germany, China (2) U.S.A.. Russia. U.K.. France. China (3) Canada. China, U.K., U.S-A., Russia (4) U.S.A Russia. U.K., China. Japan


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92. The Headquarters of the International Monetary Fund is located at (1) New York (2) London (3) Washington (4) Geneva 93. Which one of the following countries is NOT a permanent member of the UN Security-Council? (1) Germany (2) Russia (3) United Kingdom (4) United States of America

94. I.B.R.D. is also known as (1) International Bank (2) World Bank (3) Asian Development Bank (4) Bank of America 95. The General Assembly of the United National meets (1) several times a year (2) once a year (3) twice a year (4) continuously 96. Whose cremation site has been named as "Shakti Sthal" ? (1) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (2) Lai Bahadur Shastri (3) Indira Gandhi (4) Rajiv Gandhi


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97. Which from the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council ? (1) France (2) Russia (3) USA (4) Italy 98. Which from the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council ? (1) USA (2) UK (3) France (4) Spain 99. The Headquarters of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) is located at (1) Paris (France) (2) Geneva (Switzerland) (3) New York (USA) (4) Bangkok (Thailand) 100. When was the 'League of Nations' formed ? (1) 10th February, 1920 (2) 10th December, 1919 (3) 10th January, 1920 (4) l st January, 1920 101. The Headquarters of International Court of Justice is located in (1) Paris (France) (2) Geneva (Switzerland) (3) New York (USA) (4) The Hague (Netherlands)


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102. Which of the following organization declared October 2, as the International day of Non-Violence? (1) U.N. General Assembly (2) World Peace Forum (3) Gandhi Peace Foundation (4) UNESCO 103. October 2nd of every year has been declared by UNO as: (1) International Non-violence day (2) International heritage day (3) International Moral Values day (4) International anti-terrorism day 104. The first African National to become Secretary General of UNO was (1) Kofi Annan (2) Butros Gali (3) Nelson Mandela (4) Winni Mandela 105. The number of Judges in the International Court of Justice is (1) 11 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 7 106. The five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council are (1) Canada, China, France, US.A., UK. (2) China, France, Russia, U.S.A.. UK.


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(3) Japan, Germany, Russia. U.S.A., U.K. (4) Germany, China. Russia. U.S.A.. UK. 107. World Trade Organisation has replaced (1) UNICEF (2) GATT (3) UNIDO (4) UNESCO 108. Non-alignment basically implies : (1) choosing its own policy (2) neutrality towards power blocks (3) bringing peace and unity to the world (4) being a third world power 109.Which of the following countries is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) ? (1) France (2) Russia (3] USA (4) Iran 110. Find the odd one out: (1) NAFTA (2) NATO (3) EEC (4) ASEAN 111. Headquarters of World Health Organisation are situated at (1) Hague (2) Oslo (3) Geneva (4) New York


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112. Where is the headquarters of INTERPOL ? (1) Paris (2) London (3) Lyons (4) Geneva 113. Which was the latest country to be admitted as a new member State of U.N. ? (1) Switzerland (2) East Timor (3) South Sudan (4) Montenegro 114. ban Ki Moon, the present Secretary General of U.N.O belongs to (1) Austria (2) China (3) Republic of Korea (4) Japan 115. Which one of the following rep resents the correct sequence of the countries included in the BRICS ? (1) Brazil, Russia, Indo China. South Africa (2) Brazil, Russia, India. South Africa (3) Brazil, Romania. India, Spain (4) Brazil, Russia. Indo China, Sudan


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ANSWERS

1.(3) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2)

5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (3) 8.(1)

9. (3) 10.(1) 11. (4) 12. (2)

13. (2) 14.(1) 15. (1) 16.(3)

17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (*)

21. (*) 22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (4)

25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (1) 30. (*) 31. (4) 32. (1)

33. (*) 34.(1) 35. (4) 36.(4)

37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40.(4)

41. (1) 42. (1) 43. (2) 44. (2)

45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (*)

49. (2) 50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (2)

53. (*) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56.(1)

57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (2)

61. (3) 62. (*) 63. (4) 64. (4)

65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68.(2)

69. (2) 70. (4) 71. (2) 72. (2)

73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (1) 76. (3)

77. (3) 78. (2) 79. (4) 80.(3)

81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (2)

85. (*) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (3)


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89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (2) 92. (3)

93. (1) 94.(2) 95. (2) 96.(3)

97. (4) 98. (4) 99. (1) 100. (3)

101. (4) 102. (1) 103. (1) 104. (2)

105. (2) 106. (2) 107. (2) 108. (2)

109. (4) 110. (2) 111. (3) 112.(3)

113. (3) 114. (3) 115. (2)

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