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IDBI Banking Executive Mock Test 1 1 All ixamBee Mock Tests are FREE. Please visit www.ixamBee.com Contact us at 92055 24028 (SMS/WhatsApp/call) or [email protected] The answers along with explanations are given at the end of the question paper Section: Working English Language Directions (Q.1 -5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. The Cabinet’s nod for a new law that allows the government to take over all assets of loan defaulters and economic offenders who flee the country to evade criminal prosecution is pragmatic. Called the Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill (FEOB), the proposed law is meant to coerce such offenders to return to India, face prosecution and repay debts by doing business here. Else, they would lose all their domestic assets. A retrospective enforcement of the law makes sense, although absconding millionaires are likely to cry foul. Presumably, the government hopes to recover significant amounts from outstanding loans through confiscation and subsequent auction of assets of those declared as fugitive offenders by Special Courts. The threshold value for cases to come under the FEOB is a sensible Rs 100 crore. The need is to vastly improve our legal infrastructure for speedy completion of criminal investigation into frauds, and confiscation and sale of assets. A 180-day window during which the property will remain attached, and a provision for appeal against an order of confiscation appear reasonable. But cases should not drag on in the courts. The administrator appointed by Special Courts (read: the Insolvency Professional) to deal with the confiscated assets must ensure that the fair market value is determined properly. The goal should be to minimise the haircuts that lenders need to take. Already, different agencies have powers to seize assets of economic offenders. The draft FEOB Bill says it will override anything inconsistent in any other law in force. The need is for better coordination among enforcement agencies to ensure that they do not work at cross purposes. Systemic ills in the banking system must be fixed to prevent frauds. Question No. 1 Which of the following words seems most nearly the same in meaning to the word coerce as used in the passage? Options : 1. discourage 2. permit 3. compel 4. assist 5. release

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IDBI Banking Executive Mock Test 1

1 All ixamBee Mock Tests are FREE. Please visit www.ixamBee.com Contact us at 92055 24028 (SMS/WhatsApp/call) or [email protected]

The answers along with explanations are given at the end of the question paper

Section: Working English Language

Directions (Q.1 -5): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given

below them. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them

while answering some of the questions.

The Cabinet’s nod for a new law that allows the government to take over all assets of loan

defaulters and economic offenders who flee the country to evade criminal prosecution is

pragmatic.

Called the Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill (FEOB), the proposed law is meant

to coerce such offenders to return to India, face prosecution and repay debts by doing

business here. Else, they would lose all their domestic assets.

A retrospective enforcement of the law makes sense, although absconding millionaires are

likely to cry foul.

Presumably, the government hopes to recover significant amounts from outstanding loans

through confiscation and subsequent auction of assets of those declared as fugitive offenders

by Special Courts. The threshold value for cases to come under the FEOB is a sensible Rs

100 crore.

The need is to vastly improve our legal infrastructure for speedy completion of criminal

investigation into frauds, and confiscation and sale of assets. A 180-day window during

which the property will remain attached, and a provision for appeal against an order of

confiscation appear reasonable. But cases should not drag on in the courts.

The administrator appointed by Special Courts (read: the Insolvency Professional) to deal

with the confiscated assets must ensure that the fair market value is determined properly. The

goal should be to minimise the haircuts that lenders need to take.

Already, different agencies have powers to seize assets of economic offenders. The draft

FEOB Bill says it will override anything inconsistent in any other law in force. The need is

for better coordination among enforcement agencies to ensure that they do not work at cross

purposes. Systemic ills in the banking system must be fixed to prevent frauds.

Question No. 1

Which of the following words seems most nearly the same in meaning to the word coerce as used in the passage?

Options :

1. discourage

2. permit

3. compel

4. assist

5. release

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Question No. 2

What should the administrator appointed by the Special Courts ensure? Options :

1. that the fair market value of the seized assets should be fixed at a proper rate.

2. that the market value of all kinds of assets should be decided with the consent of the government officials.

3. that the value of the assets should not be prefixed.

4. both 2&3

5. none of these

Question No. 3

What does the Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill (FEOB) say?

Options :

1. that it will add on and modify all other bills' guidelines.

2. that it will nullify anything in any other existing law that doesn't match with the current bill's guidelines.

3. that it will quash all the present laws and formulate new ones.

4. all of these.

5. none of these. Question No. 4

Why is the FEOB willing to "override anything inconsistent in any other law in force"? Options :

1. to make sure that all the other law enforcement agencies work with good coordination and and maintain what they promise.

2. to assure the success of the new bill that they are planning to enforce.

3. to exercise dominance on other agencies.

4. all of these.

5. none of these.

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Question No. 5

The proposed FEO Bill has been brought into action to force such offenders to return to India,and face all the procedures in order to give back to the country,otherwise__________________. Options :

1. they would not be accepted back in the country.

2. they should be ready to face strict actions.

3. they would lose all their assets back home.

4. both 1&3

5. both 2&3

Directions (6-10): Four sentences are given in the options. Out of these four sentences, one may be grammatically incorrect. You have to find that sentence which is grammatically incorrect. If all the sentences are grammatically correct, mark option 5 i.e. ‘All are correct’ as your answer. Question No. 6

Find the appropriate answer.. Options :

1. Don’t forget to check that your carpenter is giving you solid wood, and not a veneer or a less expensive varieties that he has stained.

2. We passed nomads’ dark tents pitched in splendid isolation, usually with a huge black dog.

3. The lower atmospheric pressure was allowing the fuel to expand.

4. My headache soon cleared as we careered down the other side of the pass.

5. All are correct. Question No. 7

Find the appropriate answer. Options :

1. While a variety of softwoods are available, hardwoods are preferred for their durability.

2. Plumes of dust billowed into the crisp, clean air.

3. As hills started to push up once more from the rocky wilderness, we passed solitary ‘drokbas’ tending their flocks.

4. These shaggy monsters, more blacker than the darkest night, usually wore bright red collars and barked furiously with massive jaws.

5. All are correct.

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Question No. 8

Find the appropriate answer.

Options :

1. While the simplest way to bring wood into your home is to opt for wooden furniture, there are other sneaky ways you can adapt.

2. When we drew near, I could see the herd galloping en masse, wheeling and turning in tight formation as if they were practicing maneuvers on some predetermined course.

3. The dogs were completely fearless of our vehicle, shooting straight into our path, causing our driver to brake and swerve.

4. He backed up and drove towards the dirty snow, eased the car on to its icy surface and slowly drove its length without apparent difficulty.

5. All are correct. Question No. 9

Find the appropriate answer. Options :

1. Wood may have been around for centuries, but it continues to remain a staple of interior design.

2. The snow didn’t look too deep to me, but the danger wasn’t its depth, Daniel said, so much as its icy top layer.

3. It was two o’clock by the time we stop for lunch.

4. Ancient Hindu and Buddhist cosmology pinpoints Manasarovar as the source of four great Indian rivers.

5. All are correct. Question No. 10

Find the appropriate answer. Options :

1. We ate hot noodles inside a long canvas tent, part of a work camp erected besides a dry salt lake.

2. We had suffered two punctures in quick succession on the drive down from the salt lake and our driver was eager to have them fixed since they left him with no spares.

3. We were within striking distance of the great mountain and I was eager to forge ahead.

4. I’d grown accustomed to these nocturnal disturbances by now, but they still scared me.

5. All are correct.

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Directions (11-15):

In the following passage, some of the words have been left out, each of which is

indicated by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given against each

number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph

meaningfully complete.

The festival of Holi is observed as a celebration of fertility, love and joy that can be culturally

__(11)__to be a virtual New Year, in the spirit of spring and in the colours and contours of

devotion. The bonfire of dry sticks to __(12)__off all inauspiciousness, is to be understood as

being symbolic of a deeper philosophy. Burning a bonfire symbolises the sublimation of the

coarse human nature.

Since it is the dryness, hardness and harshness of human propensities that perpetrate pain

unto the self and others, these need to be sublimated in the subtle bonfire of divine

knowledge and meditation on God. The __(13)__and promotion of Holy communion with the

Supreme Soul holds the key not only to get rid of innate evil, but also to __(14)__and enrich

the self and others with positive qualities, character and conduct.

Traditionally, chanting Vedic hymns and making a bonfire to burn away evil only enjoins the

participants to desist from demonic thoughts by lighting the inner fire of spiritual wisdom,

values and meditation. Colours are thrown on each other to __(15)__decorating self and

others with the divine colours of universal peace, love, purity, amity and brotherhood.

Question No. 11

Select the appropriate word. Options :

1. disregard

2. respected

3. understood

4. obscure

5. secure Question No. 12

Select the appropriate word.

Options :

1. stand

2. close

3. guise

4. ward

5. remove

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Question No. 13

Select the appropriate word. Options :

1. scene

2. practice

3. customary

4. usual

5. similarity Question No. 14

Select the appropriate word. Options :

1. forgive

2. release

3. reprimand

4. Empower

5. undermine Question No. 15

Select the appropriate word. Options :

1. organize

2. symbolize

3. restrict

4. Promote

5. encouraging

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Directions (Q. 16-20): In each of the questions below, the sentences have a pair of words that are highlighted. From the highlighted words, select the most appropriate word (A or B) to form correct sentence. The sentences are followed by options that indicate the words, which may be selected to correctly complete the sentences. From the options given, choose the most appropriate one. Question No. 16

Juries are adjured (A) / abjured (B) to consider only the evidence presented at trial as they attempt to reach a verdict in an action.

The fever effected (A) / affected (B) her health to a great extent.

Our college professor accepted (A) / excepted (B) the award reluctantly.

Options :

1. ABB

2. BBA

3. ABA

4. BAA

5. BAB Question No. 17

The ending of the movie was utterly ambiguous (A) / ambivalent (B) as it was totally out of context.

A mirage is an allusion (A) / illusion (B) that we see in a desert.

The lunch was already (A) / all ready (B) prepared much before the guests arrived.

Options :

1. BBA

2. ABB

3. BAB

4. ABA

5. AAB

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Question No. 18

All of the group members reached an amicable (A) / amiable (B) agreement.

Everyone gave their ascent (A) / assent (B) after listening to the complete proposal.

The two of them complement (A) / compliment (B) each other well and make a lovely couple.

Options :

1. ABB

2. BAB

3. BBA

4. AAB

5. ABA Question No. 19

My conscious (A) conscience (B) didn't allow me to take such a wrongful step.

My friend's father is a memeber of the bar council (A) / counsel (B).

The teacher tried hard to elicit (A) / illicit (B) the correct response from the child.

Options :

1. BBB

2. AAA

3. BAA

4. AAB

5. ABA Question No. 20

If you do not work hard,you might loose (A)/ lose (B) the chance of winning the competition.

We require some stationery (A) / stationary (B) for our new office.

You need a through (A) / thorough (B) preparation in order to qualify an all-India level examination.

Options :

1. BAB

2. BBA

3. AAB

4. ABA

5. AAA

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Directions (21-25):

Out of the five alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given

sentence.

Question No. 21

Someone who can be easily duped or fooled. Options :

1. gullible

2. audacious

3. incorrigible

4. insensitive

5. belligerent Question No. 22

One who does not believe in the existence of God. Options :

1. arrogant

2. atheist

3. nasty

4. anarchist

5. apostate Question No. 23

One who often talks of his achievements. Options :

1. Egoist

2. Apathetic

3. Egotist

4. Fastidious

5. Fanatic

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Question No. 24

One who lives in solitude..

Options :

1. gregarious

2. innocuous

3. eavesdropper

4. recluse

5. philanthropist Question No. 25

A man who is womanish in his habits and behaviour. Options :

1. eminent

2. effeminate

3. patriarchal

4. familial

5. heretic Directions(26-30):

Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, mark "No Error" as your answer. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). Question No. 26

They looked like little flags (A) / floating everywhere in the (B) / school-room, hung from the rod (C) / at the top in our desks. (D) / No Error (E) Options :

1. A

2. BB

3. C

4. D

5. E

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Question No. 27

I was timid (A) / for going in (B) / alone, so I sat on the side (C) / of the pool to wait for others. (D) / No Error (E) Options :

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. E Question No. 28

The news of Gandhi’s advent (A) / and of the nature of his mission (B) / spreaded quickly through (C) / Muzzafarpur and to Champaran. (D) / No Error (E) Options :

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. E Question No. 29

I was in a hurry to get (A) / uptown to my apartment so I decided (B) / to take the subway from Grand Central (C) / because they are faster than the bus. (D) / No Error (E) Options :

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. E

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Question No. 30

If at the end of the day we (A) / can feed our families and go in bed without (B) / an aching stomach, we would rather live (C) / here than in the fields that gave us no grain. (D) / No Error (E) Options :

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

5. E

Directions(31-35):

In the sentence given below, an idiom/phrasal verb has been highlighted in bold. Given

below it are five options, out of which you need to find the one which has the same

meaning as the idiom/phrasal verb used in the sentence and can successfully replace the

idiom/phrasal verb without changing the meaning of the sentence.

Question No. 31

All my protesting over the decision to fire Jeff was to no avail. Options :

1. of no use

2. unsuccessful

3. very useful

4. taken for granted

5. considered Question No. 32

Unfortunately that whole study was just retracted, and now my thesis doesn't have a leg to stand on. Options :

1. is defintely being accepted

2. is flawless

3. is now trash

4. has no proof

5. has been acknowledged

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Question No. 33

If he thinks we can get this done by next week, he's living in never-never land. Options :

1. place where things don't happen

2. world of past

3. ideal world

4. place where nothing is possible

5. bad imaginary world Question No. 34

Thinking of getting an officer's job with so ordinary a qualification is to cry for the moon. Options :

1. work very hard

2. ask for the unattainable

3. set difficult targets

4. cry for no reason

5. ask for someone's help Question No. 35

She felt like a voice in the wilderness as she tried to warn others about the impending economic collapse. Options :

1. the one who is negative

2. the only one with ideas

3. the one who expresses unpopular opinion

4. the only one speaking

5. the one who is learned and intelligent

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Directions (36-40): The following question contains five parts out of which, four parts when unjumbled and joined together form a meaningful sentence. You have to find the sequence in which the four parts should be joined in order to form a meaningful sentence.

Question No. 36

A. the 2019 Lok Sabha election

B. not amount to a formal alliance

C. declaration of support is a recognition

D. and is no pointer to a tie-up for

E. she made it clear this does

Options :

1. CDEB

2. DECA

3. EBDA

4. BAEC

5. CEDA Question No. 37

A. in average temperature in recent decades has resulted in a higher probability

B. a spike in summer temperatures in India is not new,

C. can lead to fatal heat stroke in a small

D. of extreme heat waves and caused a lot of deaths

E. but some scientists contend that a half-degree rise

Options :

1. ADCB

2. EDAC

3. DBAC

4. BEAD

5. CDEB

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Question No. 38

A. the end-result might be more

B. in the 16th Lok Sabha

C. beginning of a political churn

D. if the party does well,

E. than an additional two members

Options :

1. DAEB

2. CEAB

3. CBAD

4. BADC

5. BADE Question No. 39

A. the health-care system, are prepared

B. it is vital for governments to ensure

C. to deal with the phenomenon

D. health-related problems during a

E. that all stakeholders, including

Options :

1. BDAE

2. ACEB

3. BEAC

4. CDAB

5. DEAC Question No. 40

A. notes issued by the RBI to banks and non-performing asset accounts

B. from applicants concerning bank regulatory functions after they

C. reports on banks, details of action taken against

D. the information sought comprised copies of their inspection

E. banks in breach of the relevant laws and regulations, and advisory

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Options :

1. EBAC

2. DAEC

3. BCAD

4. DCEA

5. ADEB

Directions (41-45):

In the following question a short passage is given with one of the lines in the passage

missing and represented by a blank. Select the best out of the five choices given to make

the passage complete and coherent (Coherent means logically complete and sound)

Question No. 41

Given the apparent ease with which economic offenders flee India and cock a snook at the banking and judicial systems, the proposed law to seize their wealth is undoubtedly a welcome measure. In fact, given the public disquiet over the apparent impunity enjoyed by billionaire fraudsters living in the safety of foreign climes, any new law is likely to be viewed in a positive light. However, its success rides on the slim hope that the threat of confiscation of property will act as a serious deterrent to those seeking to flee or as a big incentive for fugitives to return. _______________. The Fugitive Economic Offenders Bill, which has been cleared by the Cabinet, aims to make up for the shortcomings and provide a fresh legal framework that would enable the confiscation of the property of those evading prosecution by fleeing the country or remaining abroad. Options :

1. Such clauses are liable for legal challenge, especially if there are third party interests and doubts about real ownership.

2. Experience has shown that disposal of confiscated assets is not easy, especially at a price sufficient to recoup losses or pay off all creditors.

3. Legal provisions to confiscate the assets of offenders already exist, but these are regarded as somewhat inadequate.

4. But laws deemed draconian, such as the Smugglers and Foreign Exchange Manipulators (Forfeiture of Property) Act, 1976, have not exactly been a success.

5. Care must be taken to draft a law that is free from legal infirmities from the point of view of fundamental rights and due process.

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Question No. 42

World leaders did well to avoid protectionist trade policies in the aftermath of the Great Recession of 2008. After all, they had learned their lessons from the global trade war of the 1930s which deepened and prolonged the Great Depression, or so it was thought. American President Donald Trump last week announced that his administration would soon impose tariffs on the import of steel and aluminium into the U.S. for an indefinite period of time. The European Union, one of the largest trading partners of the U.S., has since vowed to return the favour through retaliatory measures targeting American exporters. _______________________. For his part, Mr. Trump has justified the decision to impose protective tariffs by citing the U.S.’s huge trade deficit with the rest of the world. Options :

1. This is not to deny that there are definitely some losers.

2. The EU is expected to come out with a list of over 100 items imported from the U.S. that will be subject to scrutiny.

3. Despite the global backlash, it is unlikely that Mr. Trump will walk back on his decision, especially given its populist resonance.

4. Steelworkers in key States in the U.S. played a significant role in Mr. Trump’s election win in 2016.

5. The President’s desire to appeal to populist sentiment also explains why his protectionist turn comes in the midst of steadily improving economic growth.

Question No. 43

Once a fraud on a financial institution has been established or a borrower declared a wilful defaulter (one who fails to honour his repayment commitments despite having the capacity to do so), or absconds, complete transparency concerning the amount involved as well as the factors and persons responsible for the loss become a matter of larger public interest. _______________________________. The argument that information concerning such matters is the exclusive preserve of those in the government and regulatory bodies, and that people do not have the ability to comprehend and appraise it smacks of elitism. It could not be anyone’s case that the confidence of people in financial institutions should be sustained by hiding information concerning their wrongdoings. On the contrary, people ought to have all the information, good or bad, concerning such institutions so that they can make informed decisions about dealing with them. Options :

1. If there are indeed any legal provisions that prevent disclosure of full details of loans of wilful defaulters and absconders, they ought to be suitably modified.

2. The goal should be complete transparency in such matters.

3. The law on the issue would be clarified further as a result of future judicial pronouncements.

4. Notwithstanding the gains mentioned, transparency in the banking sector is still work in progress.

5. Institutions that take the responsibility of managing public funds have to be answerable to the people.

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Question No. 44

It was a milestone achievement of the UPA government when the historic Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act was passed in September 2013 with the full support of all political parties, including the Bharatiya Janata Party. In fact, amendments suggested by the then Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, Sushma Swaraj, were readily accepted and made part of the law. ________________________. The law provided for greatly enhanced compensation, consent of those whose land was sought to be acquired, and detailed rehabilitation and resettlement provisions (including employment, land for land, and other beneficial schemes). In other words, it changed the relationship between the state and the individual by empowering the latter against the former. Options :

1. How the government acquired land from private parties had long been the subject of heated dispute, often resulting in violent conflict.

2. The opening speaker in the debate was Rajnath Singh who welcomed the new law.

3. Section 24 was upheld and imbued with substance by several judges of the Supreme Court and various High Courts.

4. Data are being compiled, but it would be correct to say that thousands of families who had previously given up all hope had their acquisition proceedings set aside and their land returned under Section 24.

5. Several previous governments had made attempts to amend the Land Acquisition Act, 1894, but none had met with much success.

Question No. 45

Let us imagine that I am the boss constructing my office space and I am wheelchair-bound. I will ensure that the switches are at reachable level, that there are minimum numbers of steps up and down, that the doors are wide enough for me to be propelled and most important of all, I will ensure that there are rest rooms for persons like me. ____________________________ Should the leader be a woman to think of the changes that are necessary or can the leader walk in a woman’s shoes? Options :

1. Is the office space equal?

2. How do you make the working place equal?

3. She behaves like a man to prove she is equal.

4. Should I be wheelchair-bound to make this change or can I do it even if I am not?

5. We see this escape route translated into other spaces even today, and women adopt the garb of a surrogate male.

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Directions (46-50): In the following question, choose the grammatically correct sentence from among the four options given for each question. If none of the sentences are grammatically correct, choose 'None of these' as your answer.

Question No. 46

Choose the grammatically correct sentence.. Options :

1. Through the window I saw my classmate, already in their places, and M. Hamel walking up and down with his terrible iron ruler under his arm.

2. Through the window I saw my classmates, already in there place, and M. Hamel walking up from down with his terrible iron ruler under his arm.

3. Through the window I saw my classmate, already in their places, and M. Hamel walking up from down with his terrible iron ruler under his arm.

4. Through the window I saw my classmates, already in their places, and M. Hamel walking up and down with his terrible iron ruler under his arm.

5. None of these Question No. 47

Choose the grammatically correct sentence. Options :

1. Sometimes I think Grand Central is growing like a tree, pushing out new corridors and staircases like roots.

2. Sometime I think Grand Central is growing like a tree, pushing out new corridors and staircases like roots.

3. Some times I think the Grand Central is growing like a tree, pushing out new corridors and staircases like roots.

4. Some time I think the Grand Central is growing like a tree, pushing out new corridors and staircases like roots.

5. None of these Question No. 48

Choose the grammatically correct sentence. Options :

1. I flail on the surface of the water, swallow and choked.

2. I flailed on the surface of the water, swallowing but choked.

3. I flail at the surface of the water, swallowed but choked.

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4. I flailed at the surface of the water, swallowed and choked.

5. None of these Question No. 49

Choose the grammatically correct sentence. Options :

1. They can take a leave out of the books of major global central banks which have shown enough maturity in avoid using currency wars as a means to settle disputes.

2. They can take a leave out of the books of major global central banks which have showed enough maturity to avoid using currency wars as a means to settle disputes.

3. They can take a leaf out of the books of major global central banks which have shown enough maturity to avoid using currency wars as a means to settle disputes.

4. They can take a leaf out of the books of major global central banks which have showed enough maturity in avoid using currency wars as a means to settle disputes.

5. None of these Question No. 50

Choose the grammatically correct sentence. Options :

1. The most slightest exertion upsetted me, making me wobbly on the knees and sick to my stomach.

2. The slightest exertion upset me, making me wobbly in the knees and sick to my stomach.

3. The slightest exertion upsetted me, making me wobbly in the knees and sick on my stomach.

4. The most slightest exertion upset me, making me wobbly in the knees and sick on my stomach.

5. None of these

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Section: Quantitative Aptitude Direction (51-55):

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question? Question No. 51

40% of 920 - (21)2 + (40 × 30) = ? + (25% of 140) ÷ 5 Options :

1. 1050

2. 1120

3. 1220

4. 2240

5. None of these Question No. 52

33 (1/3)% of 27900 + (42)² = ? + (40 × 12 ) - 50% of 720 Options :

1. 12542

2. 12426

3. 11420

4. 10944

5. None of these Question No. 53

+ (18)2 = ? - 20% of 420 - (81 × 21) Options :

1. 3127

2. 2317

3. 1228

4. 2129

5. None of these

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Question No. 54

5/8 of 24/30 of 15/12 of 24% of 4200 = ? Options :

1. 360

2. 630

3. 710

4. 560

5. None of these Question No. 55

(19)² + (21) ² - (23) ² + (17) ² + (31) ² = ? Options :

1. 1235

2. 1523

3. 1453

4. 1621

5. None of these Direction (56-60):

In each of these questions two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer Question No. 56

I. 2x2 + 21x + 49 = 0

II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established

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Question No. 57

I. 24y2 +55y - 24 = 0

II. 16x2 + 46x + 15 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y Question No. 58

I. 6y2 - 19y + 10 = 0

II. 9x2 - 27x + 14 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y Question No. 59

I. 6x2 + 37x + 45 = 0

II. 6y2 + 19y + 10 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y

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Question No. 60

I. y2 - 4y - 77 = 0

II. x2 - 25x + 156 = 0

Options :

1. If x > y

2. If x ≥ y

3. If x < y

4. If x ≤ y

5. If x = y or the relationship cannot be established between x and y Direction (61-65):

What will come in place of question marks ‘?’ in the following questions? (You do not

have to calculate the exact value)

Question No. 61

(11.033)2 × (20.72) 2 ÷ (6.87) 2 + 20.21% of 419.88 = ? - 429.88 Options :

1. 1560

2. 1414

3. 1307

4. 1216

5. 1603 Question No. 62

(41.22)2 + (38.78)2 + (32.11)2 = ? - (42.88)2 Options :

1. 7205

2. 5285

3. 6075

4. 7155

5. 5255

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Question No. 63

30.102% of 449.88 + 19.77% of 849.78 = ? - 484.80 × 7.88 Options :

1. 2970

2. 3485

3. 5125

4. 3925

5. 4185 Question No. 64

× = ? + 24.88% of 980.22 - 60.32 × 42.32 Options :

1. 2181

2. 2779

3. 1289

4. 3137

5. 4153 Question No. 65

5/12 × 3/8 × 30% of 850 = ? - 400 Options :

1. 340

2. 530

3. 610

4. 440

5. 540

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Direction (66-70):

What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

Question No. 66

81 68 94 ? 107 42 Options :

1. 75

2. 65

3. 55

4. 60

5. None of these Question No. 67

20 11 9.5 16.25 30 ? Options :

1. 64

2. 58

3. 68

4. 78

5. None of these Question No. 68

0 9 26 ? 124 217 Options :

1. 60

2. 65

3. 75

4. 50

5. None of these

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Question No. 69

8 13 31.5 ? 119.625 180.4375 Options :

1. 38.50

2. 45.75

3. 52.50

4. 48.25

5. None of these Question No. 70

21 32.5 84.25 ? 1356.4375 7469.40625 Options :

1. 315.755

2. 279.75

3. 309.525

4. 299.875

5. None of these Question No. 71

An alloy of zinc and silver has 60% zinc. Another alloy of zinc and carbon has zinc and carbon in the ratio 4: 5. These two alloys are mixed in ratio 3:1. Quantity of silver is what percent more/less than the quantity of zinc in final alloy. Options :

1. 25%

2. 15%

3. 12.5%

4. 35%

5. None of these

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Question No. 72

20 men, working 4 hours a day can do a piece of work in 15/2 days. Find the number of days in which second group of 30 men working 2 hrs a day can do twice the work. Assume that 6 men of the first group do as much work in 2 hour as 8 men of the second group do in 3 hrs. Options :

1. 30 days

2. 40 days

3. 60 days

4. 80 days

5. None of these Question No. 73

A shopkeeper marks up the price of his product by 20%. If he increases the discount from 10% to 15%,the profit would decrease by Rs 36. How much LOSS would he earn if he gives a discount of 30% on the marked price? Options :

1. Rs 264

2. Rs 242

3. Rs 210

4. Rs 216

5. None of these Question No. 74

Sunil borrowed a certain sum of money from Kanchan under the following repayment scheme based on simple interest. 10% p.a. for the initial 2 years, 8% p.a. for the next 2 years, 6% p.a. for the next 2 years, 12% p.a. after the first 6 years. Find the amount which a sum of Rs. 8000 taken for 12 years becomes at the end of 12 years? Options :

1. Rs 14260

2. Rs 16430

3. Rs 15680

4. Rs 16440

5. None of these

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Question No. 75

Rinku and Tinku are travelling from point P to Q, which are 30 km apart. Travelling at a certain speed Rinku takes 1/2 hour more than Tinku to reach point Q. If Rinku doubles his speed he will take 15 minutes less than Tinku to reach point Q. At what speed was Rinku driving from point P to Q? Options :

1. 20 km/hr

2. 30 km/hr

3. 25 km/hr

4. 40 km/hr

5. None of these

Directions (76-80): Study the graphs carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Total number of Government employees in six different cities and the percentage male employees and female employees.

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Question No. 76

Find the ratio between the number of male employees in Chandigarh and Kolkata together to the number of female employees in Bhopal and Kanpur together. Options :

1. 23:17

2. 11:9

3. 85:27

4. 23:21

5. None of these Question No. 77

What is the average number of female employees in Ahemdabad and Pune and male employees in Bhopal and Kanpur together? Options :

1. 1056.25

2. 1025.50

3. 872.75

4. 914.50

5. 780.20

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Question No. 78

The total number of Government employees in Chandigarh is approxiamtely what percent of the number of female employees in Bhopal and number of male employees in Pune together? Options :

1. 87%

2. 91%

3. 98%

4. 108%

5. 84% Question No. 79

What is the total approximate percentage of female employees in Chandigarh and Kanpur together? Options :

1. 69%

2. 76%

3. 54%

4. 79%

5. 62% Question No. 80

What is the total number of female employees in Ahemdabad, Kolkata and Bhopal together? Options :

1. 2175

2. 2275

3. 2250

4. 1575

5. 2125

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Directions (81-85): Study the following Pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below. The percentage –wise distribution of candidates (Boys and Girls) studying in six different video courses and the percentage –wise distribution of boys in each video course.

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Question No. 81

What is the number of girls studying in video class of SSC CGL? Options :

1. 750

2. 800

3. 1050

4. 950

5. 850 Question No. 82

What is the ratio of the number of girls in IBPS PO video class to that of boys in SBI PO video class? Options :

1. 211:112

2. 193:154

3. 193:145

4. 112:211

5. None of these Question No. 83

The number of girls in IBPS SO video class is approximately what percent of the total number of students studying in that video class? Options :

1. 52%

2. 61%

3. 58%

4. 63%

5. 69%

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Question No. 84

What is the approximate average number of students studying in video class IBPS PO, RBI Grade B and SSC CGL together? Options :

1. 1230

2. 1620

3. 1413

4. 1380

5. 1420 Question No. 85

The number of boys studying in RBI Grade B video class is what percent of the number of girls in IBPS PO? Options :

1. 42%

2. 26%

3. 40%

4. 36.5%

5. None of these

Directions(86-90): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. Number of employees in the given six shifts of different BPO’s of different companies.(in thousands)

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Question No. 86

The total number of employees from Dial America are approximately what percent of the total number of employees from Data Group? Options :

1. 84%

2. 74%

3. 68%

4. 76%

5. 88% Question No. 87

What is the approximate average number of employees working in the different shifts from Genpact? Options :

1. 7242

2. 7316

3. 6694

4. 6822

5. 6674 Question No. 88

What is the difference in the total number of employees in different shifts from NCO Group and total number of employees in different shifts from Dial America? Options :

1. 3200

2. 2800

3. 2400

4. 3000

5. 2900

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Question No. 89

What is the ratio of the total number of employees from Data FGroup and NCO Group working in the shift of 10 am to 2 pm and the total number of employees working in the same shift from Dial America and Genpact? Options :

1. 127:136

2. 137:144

3. 152:141

4. 126:155

5. None of these Question No. 90

What is the total of the average number of employees working in the shift of 6 pm to 10 pm from all the BPOs and the average number of employees working in the shift of 6 am to 10 am from all the BPOs? Options :

1. 14350

2. 14260

3. 15640

4. 13420

5. None of these

Directions (91-95):

In each of the following questions, a question is followed by information given in three statements. You have to study the question along with the statements and decide that the information given in which of the statements is necessary to answer the question. Question No. 91

What is the speed of a bus?

I. The bus crosses a pole in 10 seconds.

II. The length of the bus is 250 metres.

III. The bus crosses a bus stand of equal length in 25 seconds.

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only II and III

3. All I, II and III

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4. Any two of three

5. II and either I or III Question No. 92

What is the speed of a boat in still water?

I. The boat covers 24 km in 4 hours downstream.

II. The boat covers the same distance in 8 hours upstream.

III. The speed of the stream is one –fourth that of boat in still water.

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only II and III

3. All I, II and III

4. I and either II or III

5. The question cannot be answered even with the information in all the three statements.

Question No. 93

In how many days can 16 men and 8 women together complete a piece of work?

I. 8 men complete the piece of work in 10 days.

II. 16 women complete the piece of work in 10 days.

III. 5 women take 32 days to complete the piece of work.

Options :

1. Only I and II

2. Only I and III

3. Only II and III

4. Only II and III

5. Any two of the three Question No. 94

What is the area of a square?

I. The perimeter of the square is given.

II. The measure of diagonal of the square is given.

III. The measure of one side of the square is given.

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Options :

1. Only II

2. Only III

3. Only I and III

4. Only II and III

5. Any one of the three Question No. 95

What is the age of a class teacher?

I. There are 14 students in the class.

II. The average age of students and the teacher is 18 years.

III. The average age of the teacher and the students is 4 years more than that of the students.

Options :

1. Only II and III

2. Only I and II

3. Only II

4. All I, II and III

5. None of these Question No. 96

Find the ratio of the total tyres manufactured by Yokohama and Bridgestone to the total sale of the same companies. Options :

1. 15:22

2. 8:15

3. 25:18

4. 11:12

5. None of these

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Question No. 97

The total tyres sold by Seat, Bridgestone and Yokohama is approximately what percent of the total tyres manufactured by these companies? Options :

1. 73%

2. 59%

3. 61%

4. 82%

5. 67% Question No. 98

What is the average number of Tyres manufactured by all the companies together? (approximately) Options :

1. 478

2. 524

3. 558

4. 486

5. 612 Question No. 99

The tyres sold by Yokohama is what percent of the tyres manufactured by the Yokohama? Options :

1. 55%

2. 45%

3. 60%

4. 75%

5. None of these Question No. 100

Which company had the least percentage of sale with respect to its manufacturing? Options :

1. MRF

2. Yokohama

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3. Ceat

4. TVS

5. Bridgestone

Section: Reasoning Directions(101-105): In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of given conclusions definitely logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer.

Question No. 101

Statements : Some Germans are Japanese.

No Japanese is a Chinese.

All Chinese are Spanish.

Conclusions : I. All Japanese being Chinese is a possibility.

II. Some Spanish are definitely not Japanese.

III. All Germans are Chinese.

Options :

1. Only I follows

2. Only II follows

3. Only III follows

4. Only I and II follow

5. All follow Question No. 102

Statements: All burgers are noodles.

Some sandwiches are noodles.

No sandwich is a momo.

Conclusions: I. Some burgers are noodles.

II. Some momos are not sandwiches.

III. All momos being sandwiches is a possibility.

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Options :

1. None follows

2. Only II follows

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only I and III follow

5. All follow Question No. 103

Statements: All inputs are outputs.

All processes are outputs.

Some process are scanners.

Conclusions: I. No input is a process.

II. Some outputs being scanners is a possibility.

III. Some outputs are inputs.

Options :

1. All follow

2. Only II follows

3. Only I and II follow

4. Only II and III follow

5. None of these Question No. 104

Statements: Some roofs are floors.

No floor is a terrace.

No terrace is a stair.

Conclusions: I. Some floors are not stairs.

II. All roofs are terraces.

III. No roof is a terrace.

Options :

1. Only II follows

2. Either II or III follows

3. Only I and Either II or III follows

4. Only II and III follows

5. None follows

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Question No. 105

Statements: No car is a bus.

All buses are trains.

All trains are scooters.

Conclusions: I. Some cars are not trains .

II. All scooters are buses.

III. No car is a scooter.

Options :

1. Only I follows

2. Only III follows

3. Only II follows

4. Only II and III follow

5. None follows

Directions (106-110): Study the following information carefully and answer the following question given below:

An input-output is given in different steps. Some mathematical operations are done in each step.

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Question No. 106

Find the difference between the sum of digits of the numbers obtained in step 1 and sum of digits if the numbers obtained in all other steps. Options :

1. (8)

2. (6)

3. (2)

4. (7)

5. None of these Question No. 107

Find the product of the numbers obtained in step 3. Options :

1. (3)

2. (4)

3. (8)

4. (9)

5. None of these Question No. 108

Find the sum of the digits of the numbers obtained in step 1. Options :

1. (31)

2. (35)

3. (23)

4. (40)

5. None of these

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Question No. 109

Find the product of the digits of the numbers obtained in step 2. Options :

1. 152

2. 145

3. 160

4. 140

5. None of these Question No. 110

Find the sum of the digits of the numbers obtained in step 3 and 4. Options :

1. (7)

2. (15)

3. (3)

4. (10)

5. None of these

Directions(111-115): In the following question, the symbols $, @, & , % and # are used with the following meanings as illustrated below:

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller to B’

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B

‘A & B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B

‘A % B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’

‘A # B’ means ‘A is not greater than B

Now, in each of the following question assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is / are definitely true. Give answer.

Question No. 111

Statements: D % F, F & H, H @ I, I # J

Conclusions: I. J & H II. D # I

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

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2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusion I and II are true. Question No. 112

Statements: Q @ R, R $ T, T & U, U % X

Conclusions: I. R @ U II. X & Q

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusion I and II are true. Question No. 113

Statements: M & O, O # P, P $ W, W @ S

Conclusions: I. W $ O II. W & O

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusion I and II are true. Question No. 114

Statements: Y % Z, Z & A, A $ H, H # K

Conclusions: I. Y & A II. A # K

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

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3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusion I and II are true. Question No. 115

Statements: M & N, N # O, O @ P, P % R

Conclusions: I. N & R II. P # M

Options :

1. If only conclusion I is true.

2. If only conclusion II is true.

3. If either conclusion I or II is true.

4. If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

5. If both conclusion I and II are true.

Directions(116-120): Each of the questions below consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the question and both the statements and give answer:-

Question No. 116

What is the code for ‘central’ in a code language?

I. In the code language ‘lo ko no so’ means ‘city on the central’ and ‘jo ta no ft’ means ‘railway has found central’.

II. In the same language ‘bg yt no hk’ means ‘country would be central’ and ‘gh on ed no’ means ‘central commercial and departments’.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data in both statement I an II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

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Question No. 117

Six person K , L, M, N, O and P are sitting around a circular table. Are they all, facing the centre?

I. K sits second to the left of P. N sits second to the right of P. Both O and M are immediate neighbours of K. P facing the centre.

II. L sits second to the left of O. Only N sits between L and O. M sits on the immediate left of P. L sits opposite K. M sits third to the left of N. O sits second to the right of L and second to the left of M.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Question No. 118

Is D sister- in- law of E?

I. G and D are sister of H and J is husband of D.

II. E is father of M and husband of H’s sister.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Question No. 119

Who has secured the minimum marks among six students I, J, K, L, M and N?

I. M secured more marks than I and N, but not more than J, K and L.

II. K secured more marks than M but not as much as L.

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Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question. Question No. 120

P, Q, R, S and T are sitting in a straight line facing north. Who sit the extreme ends of the row?

I.T is an immediate neighbour of Q and P. Neither Q nor P sits at the extreme ends of the row.

II. S sits second to the right of T, who sits second to the right of R.

Options :

1. If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the questions.

3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4. If the data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. If the data in both statement I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

Directions (121-125): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

In a certain code language some statements are coded as follows:-

‘Company should be reasonable’ is coded as ‘X7@, H6*, Y2&, I10&’,

‘Financial health of organisation is coded as ‘U9$, S6%, L2#, L12©’,

‘Air India issue share’ is coded as ‘Z3¥, R5β, R5&, H5&’,

‘Return for equity capital’ is coded as ‘I6©, U3¥, V6@, X7$’

Question No. 121

Which of the following will be the code for ‘customer experience brand value’? Options :

1. T8* R3% Y8# K6$

2. X8¥ V10& Y5* E5&

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3. Y4# K8$ S7$ O11$

4. K6@ G3$ S6$ Y4#

5. None of these Question No. 122

What does the code ‘W11& , X10@’ represent? Options :

1. Dashboard Commercial

2. Determine Centroid

3. Demonstrate Centricity

4. Dependent Collector

5. None of these Question No. 123

Which of the following will be the code for ‘beer was aspiration’? Options :

1. Y4¥ W11# O8$

2. O7$ W10# N4#

3. Y11# T8$ U3&

4. Can’t be determined

5. None of these Question No. 124

What will be the code for ‘Nuance'?

Options :

1. M6&

2. O6*

3. P7#

4. U6%

5. None of these

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Question No. 125

Which of the following will be the code for ‘growth off’? Options :

1. W5% K7*

2. T6& L3$

3. T6% L3#

4. Can’t be determined

5. None of these

Directions (126-127): Study the following information carefully and answer the following question given below:

There are two square fields of different sizes such that the lager one is surrounding the smaller one. Four gates are there for each field in the middle of the sides. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are standing at different gates but not necessarily in the same order. The persons who are on the side of the larger one are facing the centre and the persons who are at the sides of the smaller one are facing away from the centre such that the persons on the inner sides and the persons on the outer sides are facing each other.

Only one person sits between B and D. C faces B. A sits on the immediate right of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of B. G faces neither B nor F. Only one person sits between H and F. E is facing the centre. G faces the immediate neighbour of B.

Question No. 126

Which of the following pair of persons are facing each other? Options :

1. B, D

2. E, B

3. G, C

4. D, E

5. A, H Question No. 127

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the give arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? Options :

1. E, F

2. G, D

3. A,B

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4. C, H

5. G, B

Directions (128-129): Study the following information carefully and answer the following question given below:

‘X & Y’ means ‘X is mother of Y’

‘X $ Y’ means ‘X is father of Y’

‘X % Y’ means ‘X is daughter of Y’

‘X * Y’ means ‘X is husband of Y’

‘X # Y’ means ‘X is sister of Y’

Question No. 128

How is H related to E in the given expression ‘E $ F % G # H * I’? Options :

1. Wife

2. Brother

3. Brother-in-law

4. Sister

5. None of these Question No. 129

What should come in place of question mark to establish that P is brother-in-law of S in the given expression?

P * Q % R ? S # T

Options :

1. (&)

2. ($)

3. Either & or $

4. (%)

5. (*)

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Question No. 130

How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘POLITICS’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet? Options :

1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. None

5. More than three

Directions (131-135): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Seven persons Ankita, Neha, Chetna, Teena, Ela, Kiran and Garima live in a building but not necessary in the same order. There are seven floors in that building and only one person lives on each floor. Each of them likes different dances, viz Kathak, Garba, Dandiya, Bhangra, Lavani, Oddisi and Sattriya but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them belongs to a different state of India, viz MP, Haryana, UP, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Assam and Bihar but not necessarily in the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered one and floor above it is numbered two and so on. The topmost floor of the building is numbered seven.

(i)Only one person lives between the floor on which Ela and Kiran lives respectively. Ela does not like Bhangra. Ankita does not like Sattriya. The one who belong to Assam lives immediately above the floor on which Ela lives.

(ii)The one who likes Lavani lives below the floor on which the one who likes Garba lives, but does not live on the lowermost floor.

(iii)The one who belongs to Bihar lives on the topmost floor.

(iv)Only three persons live between the floor on which the one who likes Garba and that on which the one who likes Lavani lives.

(v)Teena lives on an odd-numbered floor below the floor on which the one who likes Oddisi lives. The one who likes Oddisi belongs neither to Maharashtra nor to Haryana.

(vi)The one who belongs to UP lives immediately above the floor on which the one who belong to Jharkhand lives respectively. Kiran belongs to Haryana.

(vii)Only one person lives between the floors on which Chetna and the one who likes Garba live.

(viii)The one who belongs to Jharkhand lives below the floor on which the one who belongs to MP lives.

(ix)Only two persons live between the floors on which Chetna and the one who likes Sattriya lives respectively. Neha lives on an even-numbered floor above the floor on which Chetna lives.

(x) Garima lives immediately above the floor on which the one who likes Sattriya lives. Kiran does not like Sattriya.

(xi)The one who likes Bhangra lives above the floor on which the one who likes Dandiya lives.

(xii)The one who likes Sattriya does not live on either the ground floor or on the topmost floor.

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(xiii) The one who likes Kathak lives immediately above the floor on which the one who likes Oddisi. Chetna does not like Kathak.

Question No. 131

Which of the following combination is true? Options :

1. Ankita - 7 – Kathak - Bihar

2. Neha - 5- Oddisi - MP

3. Garima - 3 – Lavani - Assam

4. Ela - 2- Dandiya – UP

5. None of these Question No. 132

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? Options :

1. Kiran - Lavani

2. Ela - Bhangra

3. Neha - Oddisi

4. Garima – Sattriya

5. Ankita - Kathak Question No. 133

Who among the following likes Dandiya? Options :

1. The one who belongs to Haryana

2. The one who belongs to UP

3. The one who belongs to MP

4. The one who belongs to Jharkhand

5. None of these

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Question No. 134

Who among the following belongs to MP? Options :

1. Kiran

2. Garima

3. Ela

4. Ankita

5. None of these Question No. 135

Which of the following statements is not true? Options :

1. The one who belongs to MP likes Oddisi.

2. Ela lives immediately above the floor on which the one who likes Lavani lives.

3. The one who likes Oddisi lives immediately above the floor on which Kiran lives.

4. Only one person lives between the floors on which Garima and the one who likes Dandiya live.

5. None of these.

Directions (136-140): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Pradeep, Kamal, Rozy, Sonu, Titu, Umesh, Varsha and Wajid are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them order different food items, viz Burger, Pizza, Sandwich, Ice-cream, Pastry, Cold coffee, Pasta and Hot-dog but not necessarily in the same order.

Kamal sits second to the left of Umesh. The one who order hot-dog is an immediate neighbour of Umesh. Only three person sits between the one who order Hot-dog and Pradeep. Only one person sits between the one who order Ice-cream and Pradeep. The one who likes Pizza sits on the immediate right of one who order Ice-cream. Wajid sits second to the right of Umesh. Sonu order Hot-dog. Rozy and Titu are immediate neighbour of each other. Neither Rozy nor Titu order Ice-cream. The one who order Pastry sits on the immediate left of Kamal. The one who order Cold-coffee sits second to the right of the one who order Pizza. The one who order Pasta is an immediate neighbour of the one who order Ice-cream. Rozy sits second to the right of the one who order Burger.

Question No. 136

Who among the following sits second to the right of Pradeep? Options :

1. The one who order Cold coffee

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2. The one who order Sandwich

3. The one who order Ice cream

4. The one who order Pastry

5. None of these Question No. 137

Who among the following order Pasta? Options :

1. Kamal

2. Umesh

3. Wajid

4. Varsha

5. None of these Question No. 138

What is the position of Varsha with respect to the one who order Sandwich? Options :

1. Third to the left

2. Third to the right

3. Fourth to the left

4. Fourth to the right

5. Immediate left Question No. 139

Which of the following statements is true? Options :

1. The one who order Hot dog sits second to the left of the one who order Sandwich.

2. Pradeep is an immediate neighbour of the one who order Pastry.

3. Sonu sits exactly between Kamal and the one who order Pasta.

4. Only four persons sit between the one who order Pizza and Kamal.

5. None of these

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Question No. 140

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? Options :

1. Burger -Sonu

2. Sandwich - Wajid

3. Varsha - Pastry

4. Ice-cream – Titu

5. Cold coffee-Umesh

Directions (141-145):

Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten ministers are sitting in two parallel rows containing five persons each in such a way that

there is an equal distance between the adjacent persons. In row-1, Arnav, Manav, Saurav,

Girish and Raghav are seated and all of them are facing east. In row-2, Hemraj, Puneet,

Umesh, Varun and Vedant are seated and all of them are facing west. One seat in each row is

vacant. In the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member

of the other row. Each of them works for different political parties, viz DMK, BSP, BJP,

Congress, AAP, RJD, TMC, SP, JD and UKD but not necessarily in the same order.

Vedant sits third to the left of Puneet and he works for Congress. Only two persons sit

between Hemraj and the vacant seat. Umesh works for neither AAP nor BJP. Raghav is an

immediate neighbour of Saurav. Manav works for UKD. The one who works for BJP faces

the one who works for SP. The one who works for BJP sits opposite the person who sits third

to the left of the one who sits opposite Vedant. Saurav and Girish are not immediate

neighbour of each other. Varun works for neither AAP nor RJD and he does not face vacant

seat. Neither Vedant nor Puneet sits at either extreme end of the row. Puneet faces Girish.

The vacant seats are not opposite each other. Only two persons sit between Varun and

Umesh. The one who works for JD faces the one who works for Congress. The one who

works for DMK and the one who works for SP are immediate neighbour of each other. The

vacant seat of row-1 is not adjacent to Girish. Hemraj sits at one of the extreme ends of the

row. Puneet does not work for DMK or SP. The vacant seat row- 1 is not opposite Vedant

and it is not at either extreme end. Manav faces the vacant seat of row-2 and sits third to the

left of Saurav. Saurav works for TMC.

Question No. 141

Which of the following is true regarding Umesh? Options :

1. Puneet sits second to the left of Umesh

2. Vedant sits second to the right of Umesh.

3. Umesh faces Saurav.

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4. Umesh is facing the vacant seat of row- 1.

5. Arnav is facing Umesh Question No. 142

Who sits diagonally opposite the one who works for AAP? Options :

1. The one who works for TMC

2. The one who works for DMK

3. The one who works for SP

4. The one who works for RJD

5. The one who works for BJP Question No. 143

Which of the following statements is not true? Options :

1. The vacant seat row-1 is opposite Umesh.

2. Raghav sits adjacent to Arnav

3. Puneet and the one who works for BSP are immediate neighbours.

4. Either 1 or 3

5. None of these Question No. 144

Who sits second to the left of the one who faces the vacant seat of row-1? Options :

1. Manav

2. Saurav

3. Hemraj

4. Raghav

5. Arnav

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Question No. 145

Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? Options :

1. Girish-AAP

2. Saurav-BJP

3. Varun-JD

4. Puneet-BJP

5. Hemraj-SP

Directions (146-150): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Twelve people, namely S, T, U, V, W, X, G, H, I, J, K and L have exam in one of the months, viz, March, June, July, August, November and December of the same year. In each month, the exam will be held on 16th and 25th with each person appearing on a different date.

(i)V has an exam after August. If V’s exam is in a month of having odd number of days, then this exam is also on an odd – numbered date. If his exam is in a month of having even number of days, then this exam is also on an even – numbered date.

(ii)Only three people have exam between V and L.

(iii)I’s exam is on an odd – numbered date in a month having even number of days. I’s exam is after L.

(iv)Only three people have exam between S and X. S has his exam before X. S has neither has his exam in March nor in June. S’s exam is not immediately before V. X‘s exam is not in November.

(v)As many people have an exam between S and V as between U and G. U’s exam is before G. U’s exam is on an even number date.

(vi)Only two people have exam between G and T. W’s exam is before T but after K.

(vii)More than three people have exam between W and J.

Question No. 146

Which of the following correctly represent the date and month on which G has his exam? Options :

1. 16th May

2. 25th April

3. 16th June

4. 25th July

5. None of these

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Question No. 147

Who amongst the following has an exam on 25thJune? Options :

1. W

2. G

3. L

4. T

5. None of these Question No. 148

How many people have exams between K and T? Options :

1. Five

2. Four

3. One

4. Three

5. None of these Question No. 149

Which of the following is true regarding J? Options :

1. Only two people have exams after J.

2. J has an exam in June.

3. J has an exam immediately before X.

4. J has his exam on 25th December.

5. None of these

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Question No. 150

As per the given arrangement, four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? Options :

1. VJ

2. SI

3. LT

4. KL

5. None of these

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Answers and Explanations Question.1. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Coerce - to bring about something through force.

According to the passage,the mentioned law is supposed to 'force' some offenders to return to India.

Question.2. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

As mentioned in the passage-

"The administrator appointed by Special Courts to deal with the confiscated assets must ensure that the fair market value is determined properly."

Question.3. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

The draft FEOB Bill says that "it will override anything inconsistent in any other law in force."

Override - to nullify or set aside something.

Inconsistent - not in agreement with other elements,principles or guidelines in this case.

Question.4. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

The FEOB wishes to override anything inconsistent in any other law in force ,so as to bring a better coordination among all agencies ,to make sure they do not work on 'cross purposes.'

'cross purposes '- trying to achieve different things ,that do not agree with each other totally.

Question.5. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

It is clear from the information given in the passage that "the proposed law is meant to coerce such offenders to return to India, face prosecution and repay debts by doing business here. Else, they would lose all their domestic assets."

Coerce - force / compel.

Question.6. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Replace VARITIES with VARIETY Since A is used before VENEER, LESS EXPENSIVE, it signifies that this is a singular noun and hence VARIETY should be used along with it.

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Question.7. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Remove MORE before BLACKER. BLACKER is already a comparative noun BLACKER has been used, use of MORE is not required and thus is redundant. Question.8. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Replace ADAPT with ADOPT. ADAPT means to get familiarize with and ADOPT means to choose to take up and follow and idea/dream/step. Question.9. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Replace STOP with STOPPED. WAS is used in the sentence, which shows that it is in past tense, and hence, STOPPED should be used. Question.10. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Replace BESIDES with BESIDE. BESIDE means by the side of and BESIDES means ALSO/TOO. Question.11. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Construed - to interpret,infer or understand something in a particular way. Question.12. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

The bonfire of dry sticks to ward off all inauspiciousness:- the bonfire of dry sticks prevents all inauspiciousness from affecting the good environment.

inauspiciousness-something evil or disadvantageous.

Question.13. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

The practice and promotion of Holy communion with the Supreme Soul i.e. the bonfire of the dry sticks that is done one day before the festival of Holi, holds the key to get rid of innate evil.

Innate - inherent in the essential character of something/ inborn / native.

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Question.14. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

The practice and promotion of Holy communion with the Supreme Soul holds the key not only to get rid of innate evil, but also to empower and enrich the self and others with positive qualities, character and conduct. Question.15. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Colours are thrown on each other to symbolize decorating self and others with the divine colours of universal peace, love, purity, amity and brotherhood.

The different colours used to play Holi are taken as symbols of peace,purity and brotherhood.

Question.16. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Adjure - to appeal earnestly; Abjure - to avoid/shun/give up something.

Affect- to influence something or someone; Effect - a result of something.

Accept - to receive something; Except - to leave out something.

Question.17. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Ambiguous - confusing/ having more than one meaning/ open to many interpretations; Ambivalent - having mixed feelings.

Allusion - an indirect reference to something / someone. ; Illusion - a false image.

Already - done before/ by this time ; All ready - all prepared.

Question.18. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

Amicable - peaceful,agreeable ; Amiable - friendly.

Ascent - moving to a higher degree or upward climb ; Assent -agreement.

Complement - something that completes ; Compliment -praise.

Question.19. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Conscious -awake or alert about something; Conscience - sense of right and wrong.

Council - a group that advises; Counsel - to advise.

Elicit - to bring about something; Illicit - illegal

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Question.20. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Loose - not tight enough ; Lose - to misplace or not win something.

Stationery - writing or study material ; Stationary - stable/still.

Thorough - complete ; Through - by means of.

Question.21. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Gullible - someone who can be easily persuadded or convinced.

Audacious - bold

Incorrigible - hopeless

Belligerent - agressive/argumentative.

Question.22. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Nasty - unpleasant/hard to deal with / offensive.

Anarchist - A person who believes in or tries to bring about a state of lawlessness.

Apostate - A person who has changed his faith.

Question.23. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Egoist - self-centered / selfish.

Apathetic - showing no emotion.

Fastidious - someone who is very hard to please.

Fanatic - One who is filled with excessive enthusiasm in religious matters.

Question.24. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Gregarious - sociable

Innocuous - harmless/ inoffensive.

Eavesdropper - someone who listens secretly to others' private conversation.

Philanthropist - lover of mankind.

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Question.25. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Eminent - prominent / high in rank.

Patriarchal - male-dominated.

Familial - relating to or characteristic of a family.

Heretic - a person who acts against religion.

Question.26. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Replace IN with OF. Question.27. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Replace FOR with ABOUT. One is said to be timid about something. Question.28. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Replace SPREADED with SPREAD Question.29. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Replace THEY ARE with IT'S or IT IS as subway is being talked about here and it is singular. Question.30. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Replace IN with TO. One goes TO BED not IN BED. Question.31. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

TO NO AVAIL means OF NO USE Question.32. Answer : Option 4 Question.33. Answer : Option3 Question.34. Answer : Option 2

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Question.35. Answer : Option 3 Question.36. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

She made it clear this does not amount to a formal alliance and is no pointer to a tie-up for the 2019 Lok Sabha election. Question.37. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

A spike in summer temperatures in India is not new, but some scientists contend that a half-degree rise in average temperature in recent decades has resulted in a higher probability of extreme heat waves and caused a lot of deaths. Question.38. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

If the party does well, the end-result might be more than an additional two members in the 16th Lok Sabha.

Question.39. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

It is vital for governments to ensure that all stakeholders, including the health-care system, are prepared to deal with the phenomenon. Question.40. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

The information sought comprised copies of their inspection reports on banks, details of action taken against banks in breach of the relevant laws and regulations, and advisory notes issued by the RBI to banks and non-performing asset accounts. Question.41. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

just before the blank, the statement given is "However, its success rides on the slim hope that the threat of confiscation of property will act as a serious deterrent to those seeking to flee or as a big incentive for fugitives to return. " Statement 3 supports/gives reasons for this statement and thus is the appropriate fit.

The threat of confiscation of assests may not exist as such legal provisions already exist.

Question.42. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

The European Union, one of the largest trading partners of the U.S., has since vowed to return the favour through retaliatory measures targeting American exporters.

HOW?

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The EU is expected to come out with a list of over 100 items imported from the U.S. that will be subject to scrutiny.

Question.43. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

The passage is about that people should have all the information cocerning financial institutions. Hence option 5 is the best fit.

amount involved as well as the factors and persons responsible for the loss become a matter of larger public interest. Thus,

Institutions that take the responsibility of managing public funds have to be answerable to the people.

Question.44. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Past scenario being discussed in the passage. Thus, option 2 is the most appropriate fit. Question.45. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

In the passage, physical challenges are being discussed. Thus, option 4 is the best fit. Question.46. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

It should be either CLASSMATE IN HIS/HER PLACE or CLASSMATES IN THEIR PLACES.

Walking Up AND Down is the correct usage.

Question.47. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Sometimes - occasionally

Sometime - at some point

some time - period of time

Some times is not proper usage and is written as one word SOMETIMES

Please Note: THE will not be used before 'Grand Central' because it's a name of a station. Like we DON'T say THE DELHI, we won't use THE GRAND CENTRAL.

Question.48. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

The tense should be same throughout. Thus, FLAILED, SWALLOWED and CHOKED.

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Question.49. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Correct usage:

A LEAF

SHOWN enough maturity

TO avoid

Question.50. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

MOST will not be used before SLIGHTEST because its already in superlative degree.

usage of MORE +er and MOST +est is grammatically incorrect.

SICK TO THE STOMACH is an idiom meaning feeling to vomit / vomitting sensation

Question.51. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

368 - 441 + 1200 = ? + 35 ÷ 5

1127 = ? + 7

? = 1120

Question.52. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

100/300 of 27900 + 1764 = ? + 480 - 360

9300 + 1764 - 480 + 360 = ?

? = 10944

Question.53. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

+ 324 = ? - 84 - 1701

20 + 324 + 84 + 1701 = ?

? = 2129

Question.54. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

5/8 × 24/30 × 15/12 × 24/100 × 4200 = ?

? = 630

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Question.55. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

361 + 441 - 529 + 289 + 961 = ?

? = 1523

Question.56. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

I. 2x2 + 21x + 49 = 0

2x2 + 7x + 14x + 49 = 0

x(2x + 7) + 7(2x + 7) = 0

x = - 7, - 7/2

II. 2y2 + 13y + 21 = 0

2y2 + 6y + 7y + 21 = 0

2y(y + 3) + 7(y + 3) = 0

y = -3, - 7/2

hence, x ≤ y

2y2 + y + 21 = 0

Question.57. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

I. 24y2 + 55y - 24 = 0

24y2 - 9y + 64y - 24 = 0

3y(8y - 3) + 8(8y - 3) = 0

(3y + 8)(8y - 3) = 0

y = -8/3, 3/8

II. 16x2 + 46x + 15 = 0

16x2 + 40x + 6x + 15 = 0

8x(2x + 5) + 3(2x + 5) = 0

(8x + 3)(2x + 5) = 0

x = -3/8,-5/2

Hence, Relationship cannot be established between x and y.

Question.58. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

I. 6y2 - 19y + 10 = 0

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6y2 - 4y - 15y + 10 = 0

2y(3y - 2) - 5(3y - 2) = 0

(2y - 5)(3y - 2) = 0

y = 5/2, 2/3

II. 9x2 - 27x + 14 = 0

9x2 - 21x - 6x + 14 = 0

3x (3x - 7) - 2(3x - 7) = 0

(3x - 2) (3x - 7) = 0

x = 2/3, 7/3

Hence, the relationship cannot be established between x and y

Question.59. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

I. 6x2 + 37x + 45 = 0

6x2 + 10x + 27x + 45 = 0

2x (3x +5) + 9 (3x + 5) = 0

(2x + 9) (3x + 5) = 0

x = -9/2,-5/3

II. 6y2 + 19y + 10 = 0

6y2 + 4y + 15y + 10 = 0

2y(3y + 2) + 5(3y + 2) = 0

(2y + 5)(3y + 2) = 0

y = -5/2, -2/3

Hence, relationship cannot be established between x and y.

Question.60. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

I. y2 - 4y - 77 = 0

y2 + 7y - 11y - 77 = 0

(y +7) (y - 11) = 0

y = -7,11

II. x2 - 25x + 156 = 0

x2 - 12x - 13x + 156 = 0

(x - 12) (x -13) = 0

x = 12,13

Hence, x > y

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Question.61. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

112 × 21 2 ÷ 7 2 + 20% of 420 = ? - 430

1089 + 84 + 430 = ?

? = 1603

Question.62. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

412 + 39 2 + 322 = ? - (43)2

1681 + 1521 + 1024 = ? - 1849

4226 + 1849 = ?

? = 6075

Question.63. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

30% of 450 + 20% of 850 = ? - 485 × 8

135 + 170 = ? - 3880

? = 3880

Question.64. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

24 × 21 = ? + 245 - 2520

2275 + 504 = ?

? = 2779

Question.65. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

5/12 × 3/8 × 255 + 400 = ?

? = 439.84

? = 440

Question.66. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

81 - 13 = 68

68 + 26 = 94

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94 - 39 = 55

55 + 52 = 107

107 - 65 = 42

Question.67. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

20 × 0.5 + 1 = 11

11 × 1 - 1.5 = 9.5

9.5 × 1.5 + 2 = 16.25

16.25 × 2 - 2.5 = 30

30 × 2.5 + 3 = 78

Question.68. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

1³ - 1 = 0

2³ + 1 = 9

3³ - 1 = 26

4³ + 1 = 65

5³ - 1 = 124

6³ + 1 = 217

Question.69. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

8 × 1.5 + 1 = 13

13 × 2.5 - 1 = 31.5

31.5 × 1.5 + 1 = 48.25

48.25 × 2.5 - 1 = 119.625

119.625 × 1.5 + 1 = 180.4375

Question.70. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

21 × 1.5 + 1 = 32.5

32.5 × 2.5 + 3 = 84.25

84.25 × 3.5 + 5 = 299.875

299.875 × 4.5 + 7 = 1356.4375

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1356.4375 × 5.5 + 9 = 7469.40625

Question.71. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

1st Alloy ratio Zinc : Silver = 3:2

2nd Alloy ratio Zinc : Carbon = 4:5

In final alloy ratio is 3:1

Let quantity → 3x and 1x

Quantity of zinc in final alloy = 3/5 × (3x) + 4/9 × (1x) = (101x/45)

Quantity of Silver = 2/5 × (3x) = 6x/5

Required percentage = [101x/45 – (6x)/5]/ (101x)/45 × 100 = 46.53% (47% approximately)

Question.72. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Let efficiency of men of first group is M1 and second group is M2

6 M1 ×2 = 8 M2 ×3

M1 = 2 × M2

Work = 20 × M1 × 4 × 15 /2

According to question,

20 × M1 × 4 × 15/2 × 2 = 30 × M2 × 2 × d

d = 40 days

Question.73. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

5% Selling Price → 36

Selling Price → 720

1.2 Cost price = 720

Cost Price = 600

New SP = 70/100 × 720 = 504

LOSS=600 – 504 = 96

Question.74. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

Total amount = 8000 (10 × 2 /100 + 8 × 2/100 + 6 × 2/100 + 12 × 6/ 100) + 8000

= 9600+8000

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= 17600

Question.75. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

PQ = 30 km

Rinku’s speed =x km/h

Tinku’s speed = y km/h

30/x – 30/y = 1/2 ………….. (i)

30/y – 30/2x = 1/4 …………… (ii)

From (i) and (ii)

Therefore, x = 20 km/hr

Question.76. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Number of male employees in Chandigarh = 27.5% of 2000 = 550

Number of male employees in Kolkata = 70% of 2250 = 1575

Total = 2125

Number of female employees in Bhopal = 40% of 1250 = 500

Number of female employees in Kanpur = 17.5% of 1000 = 175

Total = 675

Therefore, Required ratio = 2125: 175 = 85:27

Question.77. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Number of female employees in Ahemdabad = 40% of 2500 = 100

Number of female employees in Pune = 55% of 3000 = 1650

Number of male employees in Bhopal = 60% of 1250 = 750

Number of male employees in Kanpur = 82.5% of 1000 = 825

Required average = 1/4 × (1000 + 1650 + 750 + 825)

= 1/4 × 4225 = 1056.25

Question.78. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Total number of Government employees in Chandigarh = 2000

Number of female employees in Bhopal = 40% of 1250 = 500

Number of male employees in Pune = 45% of 3000 = 1350

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Total = 500 + 1350 = 1850

Required percentage = 2000/1850 × 100 = 108.10% (108% approx.)

Question.79. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Number of female employees in Chandigarh = 72.5% of 2000 = 1450

Number of female employees in Kanpur = 17.5% of 1000 = 175

Total = (1450 + 175) = 1625

Required percentage = 1625/3000 ×100 = 54.16% (54% approx)

Question.80. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Number of female employees in Ahemdabad = 40% of 2500 = 1000

Number of female employees in Kolkata = 30% of 2250 = 675

Number of female employees in Bhopal = 40% of 1250 = 500

Total = 1000 + 675 + 500 = 1275

Question.81. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Total Students in SSC CGL video class = 18% of 8000 = 1440

Boys in SSC CGL video class = 14% of 3500 = 490

Therefore, number of girls = 1440 - 490

=950

Question.82. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Total Students in IBPS PO video class = 25% of 8000 = 2000

Boys in IBPS PO video class = 27% of 3500 = 945

Then number of girls = 2000 - 945 = 1055

Boys in SBI PO video class = 16% of 3500 = 560

Required ratio = 1055 : 560

= 211:112

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Question.83. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Total Students in IBPS SO video class = 20% of 8000 = 1600

Boys in IBPS SO video class = 22% of 3500 = 770

Therefore, number of girls = 1600 - 770 = 830.

Required percent = 830/1600 × 100 = 52% (approx)

Question.84. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Total number of students = (25 + 10 + 18) = 53

= 53% of 8000 = 4240

Therefore, Required average = 4240/3 = 1413

Question.85. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Boys in RBI Grade B = 11% of 3500 = 385

Girls in IBPS PO = 1055

Therefore, required percent = 385/1055 × 100 = 36.5%

Question.86. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Employees in Dial America = (5.7 + 6.6 + 4.9 + 5.9 + 7.3 + 8) × 1000 = 38400

Employees in Data Group = (6 + 7.5 + 9 + 7 + 8 + 8.5) × 1000 = 46000

Therefore, required percent = 38400/46000 × 100 = 84% (approx)

Question.87. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Total number of employees in Genpact = (8.2 + 7.4 + 6.4 + 5.9 + 6.8 + 9.2) × 1000 = 43,900

Therefore, Required average = 43900/6 = 7316

Question.88. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

NCO group = (6.2 + 6.8 + 7.4 + 8 + 7.2 + 5.6) × 1000 = 41,200

Dial America = (5.7 + 6.6 + 4.9 + 5.9 + 7.3 + 8) × 1000 = 38,400

Therefore, Required difference = 41200 - 38400

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= 2800

Question.89. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Required ratio = (8 + 7.2) × 1000 : (7.3 + 6.8) × 1000

= 15200:14100

= 152:141

Question.90. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

6 pm to 10 pm = [(6 + 6.2 + 5.6 + 5.7 + 8.2) × 1000]/5

=31700/5

= 6340

6am to 10 am [(7 + 8 + 8.6 + 5.9 + 5.9) × 1000]/5

= 35400/5

= 7080

Total = 6340 + 7080 = 13420

Question.91. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

From I and II,

Speed = 250/10 = 25 m/sec

From II and III,

Speed = 250/25 = 10 m/sec

From II and either I or III, we can find the speed of the bus.

Question.92. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Let the speed of the boat be a & that of the stream be b.

Then, speed of boat downstream = a + b

And speed of boat upstream = a – b

From I

a + b = 24/4 = 6 km/hr ……….. (i)

From II,

a – b = 24/8 = 3 km/hr ……… (ii)

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From statement III,

a = b/4 ……….(iii)

From I and II, we get a = 9/2 = 4.5 km/hr.

From I and III, we get a + a/4 = 6

or 5a = 24

a = 4.8 km/hr

Hence statement I and either II or III is sufficient to answer the question.

Question.93. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

From I & II,

8 Men = 10 days

16 Men = 10 × 8/ 16 = 5 days

16 women = 10 days

8 women = 10 × 16/ 8 = 20 days

(16 Men + 8 women)’s work = 1/5 + 1/20 = 1/4

16 Men and 8 women can complete in 4 days.

From I & III,

8 Men = 10 days

16 Men = 10 × 8/16 = 5 days

5 women = 32 days

8 women = 5 × 32/8 = 20 days

(16 Men + 8 women)’s work =1/5 + 1/20 = 1/4

16 Men and 8 women can complete in 4 days.

Hence statement I and either II or III is sufficient to answer the question.

Question.94. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

From I,

Let the perimeter = 4 × side

p = 4a

a = p/4

Area of a square = (p/4) 2

From II,

Let the diagonal of a square be ‘d’

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Diagonal of a square = a

a = d/

Area of a square = (d/ )²

From III,

Let the sides of a square be ‘a’.

Area of a square = (side)² = a²

Question.95. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

By combining all the three statements,

Average age of student and teacher = 18 × 15 = 270 years.

Average age of 14 students = 18 – 4 = 14 years.

Total age of 14 students = 14 14 = 196 years.

Teacher’s age = 270 – 196 = 74 years.

Question.96. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Tyres manufactured by Bridgestone and Yokohama = 850 + 400 = 1250

Sale of Bridgestone and Yokohama = 600 + 300 = 900

Therefore, Reuqired Ratio = 1250 : 900

= 25 : 18

Question.97. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Tyres manufactured by Ceat, Bridgestone and Yokohama = 600 + 850 + 400 =1850

Tyres sold by Ceat, Bridgestone and Yokohama = 450 + 600 + 300 = 1350

Therefore, Required % = 1350/1850 × 100 = 73%

Question.98. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Total number of Tyres manufactured by all companies together

= 600 + 350 + 850 + 500 + 400 + 650

= 3350

Therefore, Required average = 3350/6

=558

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Question.99. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Tyres manufactured by Yokohama = 400

Tyres sold by Yokohama = 300

Therefore, required % = 300/400 × 100 = 75%

Question.100. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Bridgestone = 600/850 × 100 = 70.5%

Ceat = 450/600 × 100 = 75%

MRF = 250/650 × 100 = 38.4%

TVS = 250/500 × 100 = 50%

Apollo = 200/350 × 100 = 57.1%

Yokohama = 300/400 × 100 = 75%

Question.101. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

No Japanese is a Chinese ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ No conclusion. Hence conclusion I does not follow.

No Japanese is a Chinese (E) + All Chinese are Spanish (A) ⇒ Some Spanish are not Japanese(O*). Hence conclusion II follows.

Some Germans are Japanese (I) + No Japanese is a Chinese (E) ⇒ Some Germans are Chinese. Hence conclusion III does not follow.

Question.102. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

All burgers are noodles (A) ⇒ I.I ⇒ Some burgers are noodles (I). Hence conclusion I follows.

No sandwich is a momo (E) ⇒ conversion ⇒ Some momos are not sandwiches. Hence conclusion II follows.

No sandwich is a momo ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ No conclusion. Hence conclusion III does not follow.

Question.103. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

All inputs are outputs(A) + (All process are outputs ⇒ conversion) ⇒ Some outputs are processes(I) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence conclusion I does not follow.

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Some processes are scanners(I) ⇒ conversion ⇒ Some scanners are processes (I) + All processes are outputs(A) ⇒ Some scanners are outputs (I) ⇒ Probable conclusion ⇒ Some outputs may be scanners(I). Hence conclusion II follows.

All inputs are outputs(A) ⇒ conversion ⇒ Some outputs are inputs(I). Hence conclusion III follows.

Question.104. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

No floor is a terrace (E) + No terrace is a stair(E) ⇒ No conclusion. Hence conclusion I does not follow.

Some roofs are floors(I) + No floor is a terrace(E) ⇒ Some roofs are not terraces(O). Hence neither conclusion II nor III follows.

Question.105. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

No car is a bus(E) + All buses are trains(A) ⇒ Some trains are not cars (O*). Hence conclusion I and conclusion III does not follow.

All buses are trains(A) + All trains are scooters(A) ⇒ All buses are scooters(A). Hence conclusion II does not follow.

Question.106. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

From Input to step 1: The left digit of the resultant box is the sum of the left digits of the first box and second linked box. The right digit is the sum of the right digits of the first box and second linked box. i.e.

4 + 4 = 8, 5 + 1 = 6 so, 86

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2 + 3 = 5, 1 + 2 = 3 so, 53

5 + 1 = 6, 2 + 1 = 3 so, 63

From step 1 to step 2:

First box = Product of digits of the first box of step 1 + first digit of the third box.

Second box = Product of digits of the second box of step 1 + Second digit of the third box.

i.e. 8 x 6 = 48 + 6 = 54

5 x 3 = 15 + 3 = 18

From step 2 to step 3:

First box = Sum of digit of the first box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 5 + 4 = 9 / 3 = 3

Second box = Sum of digit of the second box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 1 + 8 = 9 / 3 = 3

From step 3 to 4: Divide the number in the first box by the number in the second box. i.e. 3 / 3 = 1

Sum of digits of the numbers obtained in step 1 = 8 + 6 + 5 + 3 + 6 + 3 = 31

Sum of digits of the numbers obtained in all other steps = 5 + 4 + 1 + 8 + 3 + 3 + 1 = 25

Required difference = 31– 25= 6

Question.107. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

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From Input to step 1: The left digit of the resultant box is the sum of the left digits of the first box and second linked box. The right digit is the sum of the right digits of the first box and second linked box. i.e.

4 + 4 = 8, 5 + 1 = 6 so, 86

2 + 3 = 5, 1 + 2 = 3 so, 53

5 + 1 = 6, 2 + 1 = 3 so, 63

From step 1 to step 2:

First box = Product of digits of the first box of step 1 + first digit of the third box.

Second box = Product of digits of the second box of step 1 + Second digit of the third box.

i.e. 8 x 6 = 48 + 6 = 54

5 x 3 = 15 + 3 = 18

From step 2 to step 3:

First box = Sum of digit of the first box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 5 + 4 = 9 / 3 = 3

Second box = Sum of digit of the second box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 1 + 8 = 9 / 3 = 3

From step 3 to 4: Divide the number in the first box by the number in the second box. i.e. 3 / 3 = 1

Required product = 3 x 3 = 9

Question.108. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

From Input to step 1: The left digit of the resultant box is the sum of the left digits of the first box and second linked box. The right digit is the sum of the right digits of the first box and second linked box. i.e.

4 + 4 = 8, 5 + 1 = 6 so, 86

2 + 3 = 5, 1 + 2 = 3 so, 53

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5 + 1 = 6, 2 + 1 = 3 so, 63

From step 1 to step 2:

First box = Product of digits of the first box of step 1 + first digit of the third box.

Second box = Product of digits of the second box of step 1 + Second digit of the third box.

i.e. 8 x 6 = 48 + 6 = 54

5 x 3 = 15 + 3 = 18

From step 2 to step 3:

First box = Sum of digit of the first box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 5 + 4 = 9 / 3 = 3

Second box = Sum of digit of the second box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 1 + 8 = 9 / 3 = 3

From step 3 to 4: Divide the number in the first box by the number in the second box. i.e. 3 / 3 = 1

Sum of digits of the numbers obtained in step 1 = 8 + 6 + 5 + 3 + 6 + 3 = 31

Question.109. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

From Input to step 1: The left digit of the resultant box is the sum of the left digits of the first box and second linked box. The right digit is the sum of the right digits of the first box and second linked box. i.e.

4 + 4 = 8, 5 + 1 = 6 so, 86

2 + 3 = 5, 1 + 2 = 3 so, 53

5 + 1 = 6, 2 + 1 = 3 so, 63

From step 1 to step 2:

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First box = Product of digits of the first box of step 1 + first digit of the third box.

Second box = Product of digits of the second box of step 1 + Second digit of the third box.

i.e. 8 x 6 = 48 + 6 = 54

5 x 3 = 15 + 3 = 18

From step 2 to step 3:

First box = Sum of digit of the first box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 5 + 4 = 9 / 3 = 3

Second box = Sum of digit of the second box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 1 + 8 = 9 / 3 = 3

From step 3 to 4: Divide the number in the first box by the number in the second box. i.e. 3 / 3 = 1

Required product = 5 x 4 x 1 x 8 = 160

Question.110. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

From Input to step 1: The left digit of the resultant box is the sum of the left digits of the first box and second linked box. The right digit is the sum of the right digits of the first box and second linked box. i.e.

4 + 4 = 8, 5 + 1 = 6 so, 86

2 + 3 = 5, 1 + 2 = 3 so, 53

5 + 1 = 6, 2 + 1 = 3 so, 63

From step 1 to step 2:

First box = Product of digits of the first box of step 1 + first digit of the third box.

Second box = Product of digits of the second box of step 1 + Second digit of the third box.

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i.e. 8 x 6 = 48 + 6 = 54

5 x 3 = 15 + 3 = 18

From step 2 to step 3:

First box = Sum of digit of the first box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 5 + 4 = 9 / 3 = 3

Second box = Sum of digit of the second box of step 2 and resultant is divided by 3. i.e 1 + 8 = 9 / 3 = 3

From step 3 to 4: Divide the number in the first box by the number in the second box. i.e. 3 / 3 = 1

Sum of digits of the numbers obtained in step 3 and 4 = 3 + 3 + 1= 7

Question.111. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Decoded statement: D ≥ F , F > H, H < I, I ≤ J

Decoded conclusion I. J > H II. D ≤ I

Combined Inequalities: D ≥ F > H < I ≤ J

D ≥ F > H < I ≤ J H < J. Hence conclusion I is true.

D ≥ F > H < I ≤ J No relationship can be established between D and I. Hence conclusion II is not true.

Question.112. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Decoded statement: Q < R, R = T, T > U, U ≥ X

Decoded conclusion I. R < U II. X > Q

Combined Inequalities: Q < R = T > U ≥ X

Q < R = T > U ≥ X R > U. Hence conclusion I is not true.

Q < R = T > U ≥ X No relationship can be established between X and Q. Hence conclusion II is not true.

Question.113. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Decoded statement: M > O, O ≤ P, P = W, W < S

Decoded conclusion I. W = O II. W > O

Combined Inequalities: M > O ≤ P = W < S

M > O ≤ P = W < S O ≤ W. Hence either conclusion I or II is true.

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Question.114. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

Decoded statement: Y ≥ Z, Z > A, A = H, H ≤ K

Decoded conclusion I. Y > A II. A ≤ K

Combined Inequalities: Y ≥ Z > A = H ≤ K

Y ≥ Z > A = H ≤ K Y > H. Hence conclusion I is true.

Y ≥ Z > A = H ≤ K A ≤ K. Hence conclusion II is true.

Question.115. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Decoded statement: M > N, N ≤ O, O < P, P ≥ R

Decoded conclusion I. N > R II. P ≤ M

Combined Inequalities: M > N ≤ O < P ≥ R

M > N ≤ O < P ≥ R No relationship can be established between N and R. Hence conclusion I is not true.

M > N ≤ O < P ≥ R No relationship can be established between M and P. Hence conclusion II is not true.

Question.116. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

From I,

city on the central = lo ko no so

railway has found central = jo ta no ft

code or central = no

Hence I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

From II,

country would be central = bg yt no hk

central commercial and departments = gh on ed no

code or central = no

Hence II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

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Question.117. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Hence I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

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Hence II alone also not sufficient to answer the question.

Question.118. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

Question.119. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

From I,

J, K, L > M > I, N

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From II,

L > K > M

From I and II,

J > L > K > M > I, N

OR

L > J > K > M > I, N etc.

Hence data in both statement I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Question.120. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Hence R and S sit at the extreme ends of the row. Thus, statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Thus R and S sit at the extreme ends of the row.

Hence either I or II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

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Question.121. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

The number in the code represents the total number of letters present in the respective word. i.e. company → 7. Similarly, the letter in the code represents the reverse letter of the first letter of each word, i.e. C→ X (reverse letter). The symbol represents the last letter of each word in the following manner:

y → @ d → * e → & i → $ h → % f → #

n → © r → ¥ a → β

As an example, the code for company → X 7 @, should → H 6 *, be → Y 2 &, reasonable →I 10 &

Customer → X8¥

Experience → V10&

Brand → Y5*

Value → E5&

Question.122. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

The number in the code represents the total number of letters present in the respective word. i.e. company → 7. Similarly, the letter in the code represents the reverse letter of the first letter of each word, i.e. C→ X (reverse letter). The symbol represents the last letter of each word in the following manner:

y → @ d → * e → & i → $ h → % f → #

n → © r → ¥ a → β

As an example, the code for company → X 7 @, should → H 6 *, be → Y 2 &, reasonable →I 10 &

W11& → Demonstrate

X10@ → Centricity

Question.123. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

The number in the code represents the total number of letters present in the respective word. i.e. company → 7. Similarly, the letter in the code represents the reverse letter of the first letter of each word, i.e. C→ X (reverse letter). The symbol represents the last letter of each word in the following manner:

y → @ d → * e → & i → $ h → % f → #

n → © r → ¥ a → β

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As an example, the code for company → X 7 @, should → H 6 *, be → Y 2 &, reasonable →I 10 &

Beer → Y4¥

Was → D3(-). We can’t determine the code for s.

Aspiration → Z10©

Question.124. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

The number in the code represents the total number of letters present in the respective word. i.e. company → 7. Similarly, the letter in the code represents the reverse letter of the first letter of each word, i.e. C→ X (reverse letter). The symbol represents the last letter of each word in the following manner:

y → @ d → * e → & i → $ h → % f → #

n → © r → ¥ a → β

As an example, the code for company → X 7 @, should → H 6 *, be → Y 2 &, reasonable →I 10 &

Nuance → M6&

Question.125. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

The number in the code represents the total number of letters present in the respective word. i.e. company → 7. Similarly, the letter in the code represents the reverse letter of the first letter of each word, i.e. C→ X (reverse letter). The symbol represents the last letter of each word in the following manner:

y → @ d → * e → & i → $ h → % f → #

n → © r → ¥ a → β

As an example, the code for company → X 7 @, should → H 6 *, be → Y 2 &, reasonable →I 10 &

Growth → T6%

off → L3#

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Question.126. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Question.127. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

In all other options the given second person is facing the person who sits on the immediate left of the given first person.

Question.128. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

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Question.129. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Question.130. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

PT, IL, OP Question.131. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

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Question.132. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Question.133. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Question.134. Answer : Option 5 Explanation:

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Question.135. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Question.136. Answer : Option 4

Question.137. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

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Question.138. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Question.139. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

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Question.140. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Question.141. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

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Question.142. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

Question.143. Answer : Option 2 Explanation:

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Question.144. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Question.145. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

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Question.146. Answer : Option 3 Explanation:

Question.147. Answer : Option 1 Explanation:

Question.148. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

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Question.149. Answer : Option 4 Explanation:

Question.150. Answer : Option 3 Explanation: