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Aircraft Handling & Flying Techniques – Typical Ultilearn Questions

1. RAF Maintenance Policy balances which types of maintenance?

a) Out of phase and contingency b) Corrective and Preventative c) Contingency and fault based d) Daily and Weekly

1a.The objectives of the RAF's maintenance organisation fall into 2 main categories, they are?

a) Maintenance and Technicalb) Operational and Tacticalc) Operational and Maintenanced) Technical and Tactical

2. Which of these is a RAF maintenance objective?

a) Service aircraft only when they are brokenb) Use the cheapest parts possiblec) Use as many engineers as possible to get the job finished soonerd) Minimise manpower and resources required

2a. When is contingency maintenance likely to be used?

a) In transition to war periods b) After an aircraft has crashed c) Weekly d) After 1,000 flying hours

3. Which one of these is NOT a type of preventative maintenance?

a) Servicing b) Scheduled Maintenance c) Corrective Maintenance d) Out of phase maintenance

4. Keeping an aircraft in sound overall condition, minimizing random faults and minimizing the amount of routine day-to-day attention needed are all aims of…

a) Corrective maintenance b) Flight servicing c) Scheduled maintenance d) Condition-based maintenance

5. When would corrective maintenance be used?

a) Before a fault occurs b) After a fault occurs c) In transition to war d) After every flight

5a. Scheduled or condition-based maintenance which is needed at intervals that do not fit the maintenance cycle are called:

a) Scheduled condition maintenanceb) Out of Phase maintenancec) Corrective maintenanced) Condition-based maintenance

6. Servicing, Scheduled Maintenance, Condition-based maintenance and out-of-phase maintenance are all types of?

a) Preventive maintenance b) Operational maintenance c) Contingency maintenance d) Corrective maintenance

7. If a design fault comes to light in a type of aircraft it might be necessary to correct that fault by introducing:

a) Contingency maintenance b) A cancellation c) A modification d) Out-of-Phase Maintenance

7a. A policy of over-maintenance would:

a) Ensure that the aircraft were always serviceableb) Ensure that aircraft were never in the hangarc) Generate the aircraft to counter a surprise attackd) Keep the aircraft in the hangar most of the time

8. Which of these maintenance types reduces the possibility of aircraft failure?

a) Contingency b) Preventative c) Corrective d) Modification

9. What is the RAF Form number of the Flight Authorization Book?

a) F3562 b) F3652 c) F700 d) F703

10. The MOD FORM 725 is the form which contains:

a) Fuels oil and tyre-pressures b) Onboard software c) Details of each Flight and Fatigue Data d) Air-to-air transactions

11. Which of the following forms does an aircraft captain sign before flight, and after flight?

a) F1369 b) F252 c) F1771 d) F705

12. The MOD Form 703B is the form which contains details on such things as?

a) Onboard software b) Fuels, oils, tyre pressures c) Fatigue data d) Air-to-air transactions

13. An aircraft's on-board software log is the?

a) MOD FORM 703B b) MOD FORM 730 c) MOD FORM 705 d) MOD FORM 725

13a. The Aircraft Maintenance Data Form is called:

a) MOD FORM 7000b) MID FORM 70c) MOD FORM 700d) MAD FORM 700

14. Air-to-air transactions (details of in-flight refuelling) are contained in an aircraft's:

a) MOD FORM 725A b) MOD FORM 752A c) MOD FORM 701 d) MOD FORM 725

15. Where would you find detailed checklists for a particular aircraft type:

a) F3562b) F700c) In the Aircraft Manuald) In the Aircrew Manual

16. Aircraft arrivals and departures are usually attended by two tradesmen who are known as:

a) A FOD team b) A manhandling team c) A refuelling team d) A handling team

17. The aircraft load must be correctly distributed to ensure that:

a) Freight can be off-loaded in correct order b) The centre of gravity is within limits c) No damage is done to the load in flight d) Access to aircraft doors is not impaired

18. Which one of these is not a responsibility of an aircraft handling team?

a) Inserting chocks b) Attaching ground power c) Unloading aircrew baggage d) Manning fire extinguishers

19. Which of these is NOT considered an aircraft danger zone?

a) Engine intake b) Propeller c) Cockpit d) Airbrakes

20. Who occupies the caravan on the airfield close to the runway holding position?

a) OC Operations Wing b) The duty pilot c) The Air Traffic Controller d) The runway controller

20a. The person who assists the pilot in the safe manoeuvring of the aircraft on the ground is:

a) The Refuellerb) The Supervisorc) The Marshallerd) The Director

20b. What extra precaution may be used when marshalling large aircraft?

a) Lighted marshalling wandsb) Extra personnel to clear the wingtipsc) Only marshal large aircraft during the dayd) Extra personnel to help push

21. What is the meaning of this marshalling signal?

a) Hot brakes b) This way c) Abandon aircraft d) Slow down

22.What is the meaning of this marshalling signal?

a) I Surrender b) Brakes on c) This way d) Move Ahead

23. What is the meaning of this marshalling signal?

a) Brakes on b) Move ahead c) Stop d) Remove chocks

24. What should a pilot do if they lose sight of a marshaller at night?

a) Continue b) Radio ATC c) Stop d) Make a 360 degree turn to relocate the marshaller

24a. What light settings should a pilot use whilst being marshalled at night?

a) Navigation and taxi lights onb) Navigation and taxi lights offc) Cockpit lighting set to brightd) Anti-collision lights set to white

25. One of the reasons we refuel aircraft immediately after every flight is to prevent:

a) Static electricity b) Condensation in fuel tanks c) Condensation in fuel bowsers d) Condensation in re-fuelling hoses

25a. During refuelling, work on electrical or radio equipment should not be conducted within what range of an aircraft:

a) 15mb) 150mc) .15md) 1.5m

26. Who is ultimately responsible for the safety of an aircraft whilst it is being marshalled into position?

a) Pilot b) Marshaller c) Navigator d) Groundcrew

27. Who is responsible for ensuring that any passengers are briefed before a flight?

a) The operations officer b) The movements officer c) The crew chief d) The aircraft captain

28. will normally brief the passengers before flight on a transport aircraft:

a) The Movements Officer b) The Captain c) The Navigator d) The Air Loadmaster

29. Who is responsible for serviceability checks on personal safety equipment items:

a) The flight engineer b) The individual c) The aircraft captain d) The flying clothing section

29a. When a pilot or navigator use information displayed in the flight planning room to do their flight planning it is known as:

a) Solo briefingb) Self-briefingc) Mass briefingd) DIY briefing

30. Where is the safest place to stand when attending an aircraft brake fire:

a) Downwindb) Forward or rearward of the wheelsc) In line with the wingsd) In line with the axle

31. What is the greatest risk during open-line refuelling:

a) Condensationb) Firec) Waterd) Leaks

32. What type of aircraft refuelling can be used to dramatically reduce refuelling time:

a) Pressure refuelling b) Mobile bowser refuelling c) Open-line refuelling d) Team refuelling

32a. What is the most common delivery method for refuelling at a military airfield?

a) Portable tanksb) Bowserc) Hydrantd) Jerry Can

33. During open-line refuelling we link metal parts by a conductor to prevent a spark from static electricity: this is called

a) BINDING b) BLONDING c) BONDING d) BLINDING

34. Throughout the period of operation of an aircraft, who is the person in ultimate charge of the aircraft?

a) The Station Commander b) The Captain c) The crew chief d) The navigator

35. If an aircraft is positioned on the end of a runway ready for take-off and the headwind in 30kts, what will be indicated on the ASI?

a) zero b) 60kts c) 30kts d) 15kts

36. Foreign objects and such objects as discarded drinks cans, stones and old cleaning rags are all known as:

a) FUD b) FAD c) FOD d) FOB

37. The white line across a taxiway, from which the pilot has a good view of the runway and of the final approach, is called:

a) The servicing platform b) The holding position c) The dead side d) Upwind

38. On which part of an aerodrome's circuit does a pilot perform his prelanding checks:

a) Crosswind leg b) Finals turn c) Dead side d) Downwind leg

39. In the landing phase the period in which the aircraft is flown parallel to the ground with increasing angle of attack and falling airspeed to the touchdown point is called:

a) Round-up b) Round-out c) Hold-off or float d) Hold-up or float

40. When landing a nose-wheel aircraft the nose-wheel should touch the ground:

a) After the main-wheels b) Simultaneously with the main-wheels c) Before the main-wheels d) Behind the main-wheels

41. The opposite side of an aerodrome circuit's downwind side is called:

a) Dead side b) Finals turn c) Live side d) Upwind side

42. On many units all aircrew are briefed together at the start of a day's flying. This is known as:

a) Mess briefing b) Combined briefing c) Self briefing d) Mass briefing

43. During his pre-flight checks an aircraft captain will ensure that the starter crew are in place with which of the following close at hand:

a) FUEL b) EAR DEFENDERS c) FOD d) FIRE EXTINGUISHERS

44. What can occur with helicopter rotors in windy conditions which may bring rotor tips close to the ground?

a) Blade sailing b) Blade drooping c) Blade flapping d) Blade driving

45. When the throttle of a jet engine is opened the engine responds:

a) Slower than a piston engine b) Quicker than a piston engine c) At the same speed as a piston engine d) Faster if the temperature is higher

46. Increase stalling speed, landing run and take-off run, and reduced climb performance, range and endurance can all be the results of:

a) Poor planning b) Overloading c) Low temperatures d) High winds

47. What colours are the navigation lights on the wing-tips of an aircraft?

a) Red and Green b) Red and Blue c) Red and White d) Green and White

48. During refuelling, aircraft bonding is achieved to eliminate the fire risk caused by:

a) Static electricity b) Over-pressured c) Condensation d) Leaks

48a. Which area around a wheel and brake fire should be avoided?

a) On the nose of the aircraftb) On the tail of the aircraftc) The 3-9 lined) In the cockpit

49. What is the most important quality of the captain of an aircraft?

a) LEADERSHIP b) DRIVE c) PERSUASIVENESS d) DETERMINATION

50. The majority of gas turbine engines run on one of which two fuels:

a) AVTUR or AVTAGb) AVGAS or AVTURc) AVTAG or AVGASd) AVTUR or AVCAT

51. AVGAS and AVTAG are both types of:

a) Gasoline b) Turbine fuel c) Tanker d) Kerosene

52. Which of these fuel types is used for piston engine aircraft?

a) AVCAT b) AVTAG c) AVTUR d) AVGAS

53. Which aviation turbine fuel is made from kerosene?

a) AVTUR b) AVTAC c) AVTAG d) AVTAR

54. Fuels used in the RAF and by the RN fall into how many categories

a) 6 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

55. Areas of high risk of injury to personnel when aircraft are operated on the ground are known as what?

a) Hot zones b) Danger zones c) No-go areas d) FOD areas

56. Which one of these is NOT a precaution taken whilst refuelling aircraft?

a) Adequate fire cover b) Rubber soled shoes c) No R/T transmissions d) Refuel only by day

57. What do light aircraft normally do at the runway holding point?

a) Close down their engines b) Turn into wind c) Turn downwind d) Stop heading along the taxiway

58. Take-off is normally made:

a) IN STILL AIR ONLY b) DOWNWIND c) INTO WIND d) CROSS-WIND

59. On the approach to a runway, what is used to give a pilot a steeper descent for a set speed, a lower stalling speed and a better view over the nose of the aircraft?

a) POWER b) FLAPS c) SIDESLIP d) AIRBRAKES

60. The opposite side of an aerodrome circuit's dead-side is called:

a) Downwind side b) Upwind side c) Crosswind leg d) Finals

61. What are fitted to aircraft to ensure that, during refuelling, the desired fuel level is reached:

a) Fuel-tight joints b) Shut-off valves c) Aircraft switches are set d) Bonded couplings

62. When a helicopter has its engines running on the ground a gust of wind can cause its blades to be closer to the ground than normal, this effect is called:

a) Plain sailing b) Blade planning c) Blade failing d) Blade sailing

63. Which of these is a chief source of information to assist pilots on the details of aircraft systems?

a) Internet Sites b) Aircrew Manuals c) Flying Order Book d) Flight Reference Cards

64. In the landing phase, the point where the pilot changes the descending path of the approach to one level with, and just above, the ground is called:

a) Round-up b) Float c) Round-out d) Hold-off

65. Before which phase of a flight does a pilot carry out his HASELL checks:

a) Take-off b) Aerobatics c) Taxiing d) Landing

66. Before performing aerobatics the pilot carries out a series of checks, remembered using which of the following mnemonics:

a) HASSEL b) HASTEL c) HASTLE d) HASELL

67. What is the simplest aerobatic manoeuvre in the rolling plane?

a) A roll-off-the-top b) A barrel roll c) A swiss roll d) A slow roll

68. What is the simplest aerobatic manoeuvre in the pitching plane?

a) A stall turn b) A barrel roll c) A loop d) A spin

69. The stall turn is the only basic aerobatic manoeuvre in which plane?

a) YAWING b) PITCHING c) ROLLING d) STALLING

70. A loop is the simplest aerobatic manoeuvre is in which plane:

a) YAWING b) PITCHING c) ROLLING d) SPINNING

71. The arrow indicates the plane of movement for an aircraft. What is the plane called?

a) Pitching plane b) Rolling plane c) Spinning plane d) Yawing plane

72. The arrow indicates the plane of movement for an aircraft. What is the plane called?

a) Slipping Plane b) Yawing Plane c) Pitching Plane d) Rolling Plane

73. When conducting checks in preparation for aerobatic flying, aircrew should consider security. Specifically:

a) They should ensure that they are properly authorised to conduct aerobatic manoeurves b) They should ensure that they have signed for the aircraft c) They should ensure that all equipment and loose articles are stowed and the seat harness locked and

tight d) They should carry out a loose article check immediately before flight as well as checking lap straps and

the negative 'g' strap

74. When conducting checks in preparation for aerobatic flying, aircrew should consider height. Specifically:

a) They should ensure sufficient height to perform the complete manoeuvre b) They should ensure that they are at, or above 3000 ft c) They should ensure that they are above 2000 ft d) They should ensure sufficient altitude to perform the complete manoeuvre

75. When conducting checks in preparation for aerobatic flying, aircrew should consider the aircraft airframe. Specifically:

a) They should ensure that the flaps are down, the undercarriage is up and the airbrakes are in b) They should ensure that the flaps and undercarriage are up and the airbrakes are out c) They should ensure that the flaps and undercarriage are down and the airbrakes are in d) They should ensure that the flaps and undercarriage are up and the airbrakes are in

76. When conducting checks in preparation for aerobatic flying, aircrew should consider the aircraft engine. Specifically:

a) They should operate the aircraft engine at full throttle for at least 10 minutes before performing aerobatic manoeuvres

b) They should operate the aircraft engine at full throttle for at least 5 minutes before performing aerobatic manoeurves

c) They should ensure that all temperatures and pressures are indicating normal and that there is sufficient fuel for the exercise. Fuel should not be carried in overload or external tanks

d) They should ensure that all temperatures and pressures are indicating normal and that there is sufficient fuel for the exercise

77. When conducting checks in preparation for aerobatic flying, aircrew should consider location. Specifically:

a) They should make sure that the aerobatics will take place in airspace clear of active airfields, built-up areas and controlled airspace

b) They should only use approved aerobatic flying locations and should ensure that they stay hrizontally and vertically clear of clouds. Also, to avoid the possibility of disorientation during a series of aerobatics, they should select a suitable landmark (

c) They should conduct aerobatic flying as close as possible to the sea to increase aircrew survivability and arcraft recovery in the event on an aircraft crash

d) They should make sure that the aerobatics take place in airspace around active airfields so that spectators have a good view and emergency services are nearby in the event on an aircraft emergency

78. When aerobatic flying, aircrew should keep a look-out. Specifically:

a) They should continually check their instrumentation, particularly their altimeter for height b) They should keep well clear of all other aircraft and clouds throughout the exercise c) They should continually check their instrumentation, particularly their airspeed indicator to guard

against stalling d) They should stay within the vicinity of other aircraft if possible so that they may signal an emergency in

the case of loss of aircraft radio

79. During the loop the loop aerobatic manoeurve:

a) The pilot should check the seat straps b) The pilot should select maximum engine power c) The pilot should pull up until the horizon disappears, looking overhead for the new horizon d) The area around the manoeuvring aircraft should be checked for other aircraft

80. During the barrel roll aerobatic manoeuvre:

a) The pilot should roll in the banking direction with aircraft nose kept pointing to the horizon b) The pilot should roll in the banking direction with aircraft nose kept pointing upwards c) The aircraft rolls through 180 degrees and pitches through 360 degrees d) The aircraft rolls through 360 degrees and pitches through 180 degrees

81. The aerobatic manoeuvre 'half roll off the top' consists of:

a) Half of a loop followed by the first half of a slow or barrel roll b) The first half of a slow or barrel roll followed by half of a loop c) Half of a slow barrel roll followed by the first half of a loop d) The first half of a loop followed by half of a slow barrel roll

81a. During the slow roll aerobatic manoeuvre:

a) The pilot should check the amount of aileron deflection usedb) The pilot should keep the aircraft nose pointed at the horizonc) The pilot should check the entry speed to the rolld) The pilot should maintain aircraft nose-up pitch

82. Tactical formation flying is used:

a) For tactical combat operations b) For bombing missions c) For 'dogfighting' d) For tactical night time combat operations

83. Close formation flying is used:

a) For practise in flying in close proximity of other aircraft b) For take off, cloud formation, display and air shows and landing c) To guard against potential air attack d) So that the 'buddy, buddy' system can be utilised

84. The diagram above shows a type of aerobatic manoeuvre. It is known as:

a) The half roll and pull through b) The half roll and dive c) The half roll and inverted dive d) The slow roll and pull through

85. he diagram above shows a type of aerobatic manoeuvre. It is known as:

a) The Derry turn b) The 'S' turn

c) The role and turn d) The Berry turn

85a. The diagram below showns a type of aerobatic manoeuvre. It is known as:

a) A U turnb) An inverted U turnc) A dive turnd) A stall turn

86. The diagram above shows a type of aerobatic manoeuvre. It is known as:

a) The half roll and pull through b) The half roll and dive c) The half roll and inverted dive d) The slow roll and pull through

87. What precautions should the pilot take when performing the vertical figure of eight aerobatic manoeuvre?

a) Take care to avoid turning too tightly and at too fast a speed b) Ensure adequate ground and surrounding clearance c) Ensure that loose articles have been stowed and lap straps are tight d) Take care to avoid exceeding speed and 'g' limits

88. When flying in close formation, the only method of judging speed is by:

a) Using landmarks with timings b) Asking No 1 over the radio c) Guestimation d) Using the cockpit air speed indicator

89. In the diagram what is represented by the angle shown:

a) Low dive angle b) Angle of incidence c) High climb angle d) Angle of attack

90. In the RAF there are two types of formation flying, they are:

a) Close and tactical b) Loose and tactical c) Close and loose d) Strategic and tactical

90a. Tactical formation flying is used:

a) For tactical combat operationsb) For bombing missionsc) For 'dogfighting'd) For tactical night time combat operations

91. An ordered arrangement of two or more aircraft proceeding together as an element….. Is the RAF's definition of:

a) Ferry flights b) Formation flying c) Aerobatics d) Transit flying

92. In close formation flying, number 1:

a) Must stay in radio contact at all times b) Must keep all members in visual contact at all times c) Commands the formation, its security, tactics, exercises and safe return to base d) Commands the formation until its safe return to base

93. When joining a formation:

a) No 1 flies straight and level for 1 mile, allowing others to catch up b) The others join slowly, one after the other, to avoid collisions c) No 2 is last to join to ensure he has a good view of the formation d) The others join the formation on a slow turn remaining on the port side of No 1

94. When formation flying:

a) All pilots are responsible for checking their own cockpit instruments b) No 1 is the only pilot who looks at instruments, all others watch and follow No 1 at all times c) All pilots should cross-check their instruments with No 1 d) All pilots should cross-check their instruments with a nominated other pilot

95. What formation is shown in this diagram:

a) FORE & AFT b) LINE ABREAST

c) ECHELON d) LINE ASTERN

96. What formation is shown in this diagram?

a) ECHELON b) BOX c) VIC d) LINE ABREAST

97. The flying formation shown in the diagram is known as:

a) Arrow head b) Spear head c) Box d) Diamond

98. The frequency of 243 MHZ is used within the UK to provide:

a) A UHF fixer service b) An SSR emergency frequency c) A VHF fixer service d) An HF fixer service

98a Within the UK, on what frequency is the UHF emergency fixer service provided:

a) 423 mhzb) 243 mhzc) 342 mhzd) 234 mhz

99. What are the two degrees of aircraft emergency which are accepted internationally?

a) Distress & panic b) Emergency & distress c) Distress & urgency d) Urgency & emergency

100. In an aircraft distress message, what is the pro-word used?

a) SOS, SOS, SOS b) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY c) XXX, XXX, XXX d) PAN, PAN, PAN

101. The mnemonic PAT HAS ATNIE is useful for remembering information to be broadcast by radio in an emergency by aircrew. The 'N' stands for:

a) Nature of Emergency

b) Number of crew on board c) Number of passengers on board d) Number of persons on board

102. If a pilot has a failed transmitter only, in which direction should he fly an equilateral triangle?

a) To the left b) To the right c) Left-to-right d) Anticlock-wise

103. The two degrees of aircraft emergency are known as:

a) Distress and Urgency b) Real and Practice c) State one and State two d) Vital and Secondary

104. What transponder code is used to broadcast an aircraft emergency?

a) 0076 b) 7006 c) 0760 d) 7600

105. The two ways in which an emergency may be broadcast by an aircraft are known as:

a) Wireless telephone and morse code b) Radio telephony and wireless telegraphy c) The emergency telephone and flares d) Wireless and radio telegraphy

106. When ditching, crash landing or abandonment of an aircraft is imminent, what should be transmitted if possible?

a) The aircraft call sign, and where possible, the transmit control switch should be left in the off position b) The aircraft call sign, and where possible, the transmit control switch should be left in transmit position c) PAT HAS ATNIE information d) Nothing should be transmitted so that the aircrew can concentrate on survival

107. Internationally a satellite-aided system is used for search and rescue, it is known as:

a) SARSAT b) SATRAS c) RASTAT d) SARTAS

108. What is the meaning of SARSAT:

a) Search and Rescue System and Technology b) Search and Recovery Satellite Aided Tracking c) Search and Recovery Search and Tracking d) Search and Rescue Satellite Aided Tracking

109. In an aircraft urgency message, what is the pro-word used:

a) MAN, MAN, MAN b) PAN, PAN, PAN c) SOS, SOS, SOS d) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

110. In an aircraft distress message, what is the pro-word used:

a) SOS, SOS, SOS b) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY c) XXX, XXX, XXX d) PAN, PAN, PAN

111. The mnemonic PAT HAS ATNIE is useful for remembering information to be broadcast by radio in an emergency by aircrew. 'HAS' stands for:

a) Heading and Air Crew b) Heading and Air Speed c) Height and Air Speed d) Heading and Aircraft

112. When using the secondary surveillance radar, what code indicates a total radio failure?

a) 7600 b) 7060 c) 7700 d) 7607

113. What is indicated by the secondary surveillance code 7600?

a) Hijack b) Partial radio failure c) Aircraft emergency d) Total radio failure

114. The mnemonic PAT HAS ATNIE is useful for remembering information to be broadcast by radio in an emergency by aircrew. The 'E' stands for:

a) Egress possibility b) Emergency protocols c) Endurance remaining d) Emergency procedure

115. In the event of radio failure, how may an emergency be broadcast by an aircraft?

a) Wobbling the wings b) Using satellite communications c) Using secondary surveillance radar d) Doing a barrel roll