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Core questions for 10 th grade biology Scientific method 1. Which of the following observations is qualitative and not quantitative? a. Surveying the size of a goose population. b. Observing the nocturnal behavior of coyote populations. c. Recording the date when goose migrations begin every year. d. Counting the number of goose nests that are robbed of eggs in an area. 2. What is true of all hypotheses? a. They are true. b. They are false. c. They are testable. d. They are indisputable. 3. In an experiment, what happens to the control group? a. It receives no experimental treatment. b. It receives experimental treatment last. c. It receives experimental treatment first. d. It receives more experimental treatments than the other groups. 4. In a controlled experiment, what do scientists measure? a. how many dependent variables they have b. how many independent variables they have c. how the dependent variables change in response to changes in the independent variable d. how the independent variables change in response to changes in the dependent variable 5. Regarding the scientific method, which statement is false? a. Hypotheses are proven as absolutely true or false. b. The control is not subjected to the experimental variable. c. Statistical tests may be used to analyze the results of the experiment.

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Core questions for 10th grade biologyScientific method

1. Which of the following observations is qualitative and not quantitative?a. Surveying the size of a goose population.b. Observing the nocturnal behavior of coyote populations.c. Recording the date when goose migrations begin every year.d. Counting the number of goose nests that are robbed of eggs in an area.

2. What is true of all hypotheses?

a. They are true.b. They are false.c. They are testable.d. They are indisputable.

3. In an experiment, what happens to the control group?a. It receives no experimental treatment.b. It receives experimental treatment last.c. It receives experimental treatment first.d. It receives more experimental treatments than the other groups.

4. In a controlled experiment, what do scientists measure?a. how many dependent variables they haveb. how many independent variables they havec. how the dependent variables change in response to changes in the

independent variabled. how the independent variables change in response to changes in the

dependent variable

5. Regarding the scientific method, which statement is false?a. Hypotheses are proven as absolutely true or false.b. The control is not subjected to the experimental variable.c. Statistical tests may be used to analyze the results of the experiment.d. Results of the experiment are often summarized in a graph or table.

6. Which of the following is true about theories and hypotheses?a. A hypothesis is highly tested, but a theory is not testable.b. A hypothesis is a general explanation, but a theory is a specific prediction.c. One hypothesis can lead to many theories.d. Several related hypotheses can be incorporated into a theory

7. Each of the following steps is involved in scientific thought excepta. questioning ideas.b. evaluating bias.c. making observations.d. expressing your personal opinions.

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8. List the following steps of the scientific method in order from first (1) to last (4):____ Collect experimental data____ Making a hypothesis____ Analyze the data____ Make an observation

9. Look at the graph below. What is the dependent variable? What is the independent variable?

Use the table below to answer question 10.

Students’ Observations of a Pond EcosystemQuantitative Qualitative

37 fish and 3 frogs Leaves lie on the bottom of the pond2 types of aquatic grass Water insects move along the water’s

surface12 small rocks and 1 medium rock All 3 frogs are sitting on a pond banksand

10. A group of students measured a ten-square-meter section of a pond ecosystem and recorded observations. Which statement is a testable hypothesis?

a. The frogs living in the pond represent a population.b. Water is an abiotic component in the pond ecosystem.c. If the fish are given more food, then they will be happier.d. If the frogs are startled, then they will jump into the water.

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Introduction to biology

11. Which level of biological organization is composed of tissues?a. Cellb. Organc. Moleculed. Atom

12. Look at the pictures below of the cheetahs and the paramecium ( a single-celled organism). Then answer the question that follows.

Which of the following statements about the cheetahs and paramecium is false?a. These organisms respond to their environment.b. The cells of these organisms have the same basic structure.c. Homeostasis and metabolism are important for the cheetah but not for

a paramecium.d. Reproduction means that the organisms will be able to produce more

of their own kind.

13. We sent an unmanned spacecraft to another planet to detect other life forms that might be quite different from those on earth. If the probe can only send back one still picture, which property of life would be most evident?

a. Organizationb. Homeostasisc. Growth and developmentd. Response to stimuli

14. The smallest unit that has all of the characteristics of life is thea. Cellb. Tissuec. Organd. Organism

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15. Autotrophs obtain energy through ________________, while heterotrophs obtain energy through ___________________.

a. photosynthesis, food eatenb. decomposition, reproductionc. food eaten, photosynthesisd. reproduction, decomposition

16. Growth and/or development is not observed in the human organism duringa. childhoodb. adolescence.c. repair of an injury.d. death.

17. Which of the following is NOT an example of a response to a stimulus?a. A plant growing towards the sunlight.b. A caterpillar changing into a butterfly.c. The pupil of the eye changes in size with changes in light intensity.d. Stingers are discharged from the tentacles of a jellyfish when touched.

18. Give one advantage each of sexual and asexual reproduction.

19. Using a butterfly as an example, compare and contrast the processes of growth and development.

20. Define homeostasis and give two examples of homeostasis in living things.

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Biochemistry

21. Proteins are a major part of every living cell and have many different functions within each cell. Carbohydrates also perform numerous roles in living things.

Part 1. Describe how the structures of proteins differ from the structures of carbohydrates.

Part II. Describe how the functions of proteins and carbohydrates differ.

22. In the picture below, is one of many water molecules that would be found in a beaker of water.

***Hand-draw picture***

Part I. Draw 3 additional water molecules surrounding the one given. Each molecule drawn must be properly oriented to the molecule given.

Part II. Draw a box around 1 possible hydrogen bond in the above diagram.

Part III. Draw a box around a covalent bond in the above diagram.

Part IV. Label the partial charges on both hydrogens and the oxygen on one molecule.

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23. Which of the following organic molecules can never be used as a source of energy?

a. Carbohydratesb. Lipidsc. Proteinsd. Nucleic acids

24. Match the following organic molecules to the appropriate structures.a. Carbohydrateb. Lipidc. Protein

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25. Match the monomer to the appropriate polymer. Write the letter of the monomers beside the corresponding polymer.

a. Amino acidb. Monosaccharidec. Fatty acid & glycerold. Nucleotide

1. Lipid ___2. Carbohydrate ___3. Nucleic acids ___4. Proteins ___

26. Which statement is correct regarding acids and bases?a. Acids increase the pH and bases decrease the pH.b. Acids release hydrogen (H+) ions [or hydronium (H3O+) ions] and bases

release hydroxide (OH-) ions.c. Acids are harmful but bases are not harmful.d. Acids combine with bases to form sugars.

27. Which of the following is NOT a main component of living cells?a. Aluminumb. Hydrogenc. Carbond. Nitrogen

28. Which word association is NOT correct?a. Nucleic acid – DNAb. Carbohydrate – steroidc. Lipid – long-term energy storaged. Protein – enzyme

29. Compounds are formed whena. atoms of an element lose an electron.b. atoms of an element gain an electron.c. atoms of the same element join together.d. atoms of two different elements join together.

30. What allows you to fill a glass of water above the rim without the water spilling over the edge?

a. Cohesion of water molecules.b. Breaking of the ionic bonding of water.c. Balance between H+ and OH- ions.d. The vibrational movements of water molecules.

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Cell structure and function

31. Which statement best describes a difference between prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells?

a. The presence of both DNA and ribosomes in prokaryotic cells indicates that they are more complex than eukaryotic cells.

b. The larger size of prokaryotic cells indicates than they are more complex than eukaryotic cells.

c. The presence of membrane-bound organelles in eukaryotic cells indicates that they are more complex than prokaryotic cells.

d. The larger size of eukaryotic cells indicates than they are more complex than prokaryotic cells.

32. Ribosome : protein synthesis :: nucleus :a. Controlling cell activities.b. energy release.c. nutrient storage.d. protein transport.

33. According to the cell theory,a. the smallest unit of life is a nucleus.b. animals but not plants are composed of cells.c. a multicellular organism is composed of many cells.d. new cells arise only from pre-existing cells.

34. Which is not a correct association of organelles and functions?a. Lysosome – intracellular digestionb. Cell wall – regulation of molecule passage in and out of animal cellsc. Vacuole – storaged. Golgi apparatus (bodies) – packing materials for transport

35. If an active cell produces a material that will later be sent out of the cell, which is the correct sequence of organelles through which that material would travel?

a. ER ribosomes golgi apparatusb. Ribosome ER golgi apparatusc. ER golgi apparatus ribosomed. Golgi ER ribosome

36. Both plant and animal cells have mitochondria because they botha. carry out photosynthesis.b. have a large central vacuole.c. have endoplasmic reticulum.d. need ATP for energy.

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37. Considering the history of microscopy, which of these organelles would have been discovered first?

a. Ribosomeb. Nucleusc. Lysosomed. ER

38. Considering the measures of surface area and volume, explain why our bodies are composed of trillions of very small cells rather than a few hundred very large cells.

39. Besides the mitochondria, identify one similarity and two differences between plant and animal cells.

40.Explain why complex organisms tend to be multicellular as opposed to unicellular.

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Cell Membrane and Transport

41.Why are phospholipids ideal for making up the selectively permeable cell membrane?

a. They repel small ionsb. They react readily with water moleculesc. They form triple layers that insulate the celld. They have a nonpolar and polar region

42.A cell begins to swell when placed in an unknown solution. What can you conclude about the solution?

a. The solution is isotonicb. The solution is hypotonicc. The solution is saturatedd. The solution is hypertonic

43.The movement of molecules against the concentration gradient requires the use of energy from what molecule?

a. ATPb. mRNAc. Proteind. Lipid

44.Proteins DO NOT easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes because

a. The membrane is made of proteinb. They contain nitrogenc. They are very large moleculesd. They cause digestion of the cell

45.Once a solute and solvent are evenly distributed in a solution, they willa. Stop moving aboutb. Move back toward a concentration of the solventc. Continue to move about but with no net movement to higher concentrationd. Be totally out of equilibrium

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46. Using the above diagram and assuming K+ ions readily cross the cell membrane, which statement best describes the movement of the K+ ions.

a. Bottom to topb. Top to bottomc. Equally in both directionsd. The cell is already at equilibrium

47. Use the above diagram to answer the following question:Which component of this plasma membrane contains a hydrophobic region and acts as the primary barrier to most foreign substances.

a. Proteinb. Cholesterolc. Carbohydrate chaind. Phospholipid bilayer

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48.Which of the following terms includes all of the othersa. Pinocytosisb. Endocytosisc. Active transportd. Phagocytosis

49.Compare and contrast active and passive transport in terms of energy use and concentration gradient

50.Differentiate between diffusion and osmosis by giving an example of each.

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Cell Reproduction

51. Using the above diagram, which event most likely occurs next in the cell cyclea. The chromatin condensesb. The nuclear envelope dissolvesc. The chromosomes double in numberd. The cell membrane pinches inward to divide the cytoplasm

52. Mitosis and meiosis are processes by which animal and plant cells divide. Which statement best describes a difference between mitosis and meiosis?

a. Meiosis is a multi step processb. Mitosis occurs only in eukaryotic cellsc. Meiosis is used in the repair of an organismd. Mitosis produces genetically identical daughter cells

53.What might happen if cytokinesis was omitted from the cell cyclea. The daughter cells would dieb. The cell would lose its mitochondriac. The daughter cells would not have nucleid. The cell would not divide into two daughter cell

54. If the total number of chromosomes in a cell is 6, then after mitosis there will bea. 6 chromosomes in each daughter cellb. 3 chromosomes in each daughter cellc. 12 chromosomes in each daughter celld. 2 chromosomes in each daughter cell, one from each parent

55. If the total number of chromosomes in a cell is 6, then after meiosis there will bea. 6 chromosomes in each daughter cellb. 3 chromosomes in each daughter cellc. 12 chromosomes in each daughter celld. 2 chromosomes in each daughter cell, one from each parent

56. In meiotic cell division, which phase is not repeateda. Interphaseb. Prophasec. Metaphase d. Cytokinesis

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57.Using 3 of the boxes on the diagram above correctly label fertilization, meiosis and mitosis.

58.Which of the following increases genetic variation during meiosis?a. Spindle fiber formationb. Crossing overc. Condensing of chromatin into chromosomesd. Centromere formation

59. In terms of chromosome number why is meiosis (instead of mitosis) used to produce gametes?

60.Contrast cytokinesis in animal and plant cells.

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DNA and Protein Synthesis

61. A mutation occurs at the midpoint of a gene, altering all amino acids encoded after the point of mutation. Which mutation could have produced this change?

a. Deletion of two nucleotidesb. Deletion of three nucleotidesc. Insertion of six nucleotidesd. Insertion of twelve nucleotides

62. Look at the picture below. Which of the following correctly identifies the processes occurring at A and B?

a. replication and transcriptionb. transcription and translationc. translation and transcriptiond. transcription and replication

63. If a species contains 23% adenine in its DNA, what is the percentage of guanine it would contain?

a. 46%b. 25%c. 23%d. 27%

64. Which is most directly responsible for the sequence of amino acids in a protein?

a. The sequence of codons in mRNA. b. The number of codons in mRNA.c. The proteins associated with rRNA.d. The sequence of the anti-codons.

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Questions 65–66 refer to the mRNA sequence CUC–AAG–UGC–UUC and the table below, which lists mRNA codons.

65. Which of the following would represent the sequence of DNA from which the mRNA sequence was made?a. CUC–AAG–UGC–UUCb. GAG–UUC–ACG–AAGc. GAG–TTC–ACG–AAGd. AGA–CCT–GTA–GGA

66. Which of the following represents the portion of the protein molecule coded for by the mRNA sequence above?a. serine–tyrosine–arginine–glycineb. valine–aspartic acid–proline–histidinec. leucine–lysine–cysteine–phenylalanined. glutamic acid–phenylalanine–threonine–lysine

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67. What is the control variable in this experiment?a. No hormoneb. Hormone Ac. Hormone Bd. Hormone A and B

68. What can you conclude about the effect Hormone B has on the rate of gene transcription compared to the control treatment?

a. It increases gene transcription rate.b. It decreases gene transcription rate.c. It does not change gene transcription rate compared to the control.d. It has a smaller effect on transcription rate than Hormone A does.

69. Explain how RNA differs from DNA.

70. Compare the roles of mRNA and tRNA in the making of a protein.

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Genetics71. A scientist observes that a certain trait is determined by a single allele. An organisminherited one version of the trait from one parent and another version from the otherparent. Both versions of the trait are expressed in the phenotype of the offspring. Whichpattern of inheritance best classifies the observed trait?

a. dominanceb. sex-linkagec. co-dominance d. incomplete dominance

72. An organism that has inherited two of the same alleles of a gene from its parents is ______________ for that trait.

a. hereditaryb. heterozygousc. homozygousd. hemizygous

73. If a characteristic is X-linked, ita. occurs mostly in males.b. occurs only in males.c. occurs mostly in females.d. occurs only in females.

Questions 74–75 refer to the figure below, which shows a cross between two rabbits. In rabbits, black fur (B) is dominant to brown fur (b).

74. _The fur in both of the parents in the cross isa. black.b. brown.c. homozygous dominant.d. homozygous recessive.

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75. _The phenotype of the offspring indicated by Box 3 would bea. brown.b. a mixture of brown and black.c. black.d. The phenotype cannot be determined.

76. If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessive phenotype, four of their nine offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the first parent?

a. AAb. Aac. aad. The answer cannot be determined from this information.

77. If the genotype of an organism is YySsTt, then yST would representa. the genotype of the offspring.b. a possible phenotype of the offspring.c. a gamete of the parent.d. a possible zygote.

78. A man with blood type AB could not be the father of a child witha. blood type A.b. blood type B.c. blood type AB.d. blood type O.

79. Crossing a snapdragon that has red flowers with one that has white flowers produces a snapdragon that has pink flowers. The trait for flower color exhibitsa. multiple alleles.b.incomplete dominance.c.complete dominance.d.codominance.

80. What is the relationship between DNA, chromosomes, and genes?

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Evolution

81. Which of the following is a way in which variations can arise in a population?a. natural selectionb. mutationc. crossing over during meiosisd. both B and C

Use the graph below to answer the following question.

82. Tail length in mice varies within a population. Scientists observed change in the distribution of tail lengths in a mouse population over time. At the genetic level, what has most likely happened to the allele for the shortest tail lengths?a. The allele changed from being dominant to being recessive.b. The allele changed from being autosomal to being sex-linked.c. The allele became less frequent than the alleles for longer tail lengths.d. The allele began to code for long tail lengths instead of the shortest ones.

83. Which of the following best describes natural selection?a. Individuals who adapt during their lifetime are more likely to survive and reproduce.b. Individuals born with certain favorable traits are more likely to survive and reproduce.c. There are little or no variations in populations, which makes adaptations rare over time.d. Individuals with little or no variation are more likely to survive and reproduce.

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84. The frequency of an allele in a fly population changes from 89% to 20% after three generations. Which other events most likely occurred during the same time period? a. An environmental change and a fly population increase.b. An environmental change and a fly population decrease.c. Interbreeding of flies with an invasive species and fly population speciation.d. Interbreeding of flies with an established local species and fly population speciation.

85. If early Viking explorers in Greenland and North America had survived and become the main ancestors of early North American settlers, rather than the mixture of immigrants from across Europe and other continents, today there would be a much higher incidence of Nordic traits in the US population. Such a scenario would demonstratea. gene flow from continent to continent.b. the founder effect.c. genetic drift among the original Viking explorers.d. directional selection.

86. What is the correct order of the steps regarding speciation?a. one species geographic isolation divergent evolution reproductive isolation two speciesb. one species reproductive isolation divergent evolution geographic isolation two speciesc. one species divergent evolution geographic isolation reproductive isolation two speciesd. one species geographic isolation reproductive isolation divergent evolution two species

Use the diagram below to answer questions 87-88.

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87. The similarity of these structures suggests that the organismsa. have a common ancestor.b.evolved slowly.c.all grow at different rates.d.live for a long time.

88. An analysis of the DNA from these organisms would indicate thata. their DNA is identical.b. they all have tails.c. their DNA sequences show many similarities.d. they all have the same number of chromosomes.

89. Bulldogs have been bred by humans for increasingly large heads. This has made the birthing process more difficult for the mother, and may decrease survival among newborn pups. This intentional breeding is an example ofa. natural selection.b. founder effect.c. genetic drift.d. artificial selection.

90. What is the difference between a variation and an adaptation?

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Enzymes

Use the diagram below to answer question 91.

91. The diagram models how a poison bonds to the active site of an enzyme. Which function is the enzyme most likely unable to perform because of the attachment of the poison molecule?a. The release of stored chemical energy,b. The donation of electrons to the substrate.c. The supply of activation energy for a reaction.d. The catalysis of the reaction with the substrate.

Use the graph below to answer question 92.

92. The graph shows how the activity of an enzyme changes at different temperatures. Which statement best describes what happens to the enzyme when the temperature of the reaction reaches 63°C?a. The enzyme is used up and the reaction stops.b. The enzyme begins to decrease the rate of the reaction.

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c. The enzyme continues to increase the rate of the reaction.d. The enzyme changes shape and can no longer speed up the reaction.

93. Which method regulates enzyme action?

a. changing pHb. changing temperaturec. a molecule of similar shape to the enzyme competes for the active site.d. All of the above are correct.

94. During enzymatic action, the enzyme

a. becomes the product.b. is used up.c. and the substrate form a permanent complex.d. and the substrate form a temporary complex but the enzyme is not used up.

95. Which of the following is NOT an enzyme?

a. lipaseb. maltasec. ureased. lactose

96. Each enzyme has particular substrate because enzymes

a. increase the energy of activation.b. decrease the productivity of the cell.c. always require coenzymes.d. have active sites complementary in shape to their substrates.

Use the graph below for question 97.

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97. The optimum pH for pepsin isa. 2b. 8c. 3d. 7

98. Enzymes

a. provide the energy for metabolic reactions.b. speed up metabolic reactions.c. act as a buffer in metabolic reactions.d. raise the energy of activation for a reaction.

99. Describe the relationship between an enzyme, substrate, active site, and product.

100. Look at the graph below. Explain why enzyme activity increases between 0°C and 20°C.

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Cellular respiration and photosynthesis

101. The main products formed during aerobic cellular respiration are energy,

a. oxygen and water.b. oxygen and carbon dioxide.c. water and carbon dioxide.d. sugar and oxygen.e. sugar and carbon dioxide.

102. The largest number of ATP molecules are produced in which part of the respiration reaction?

a. glycolysisb. transition reactionc. Kreb’s cycle (citric acid cycle)d. Electron transport system (chain)

103. The order of the major pathways and reactions of aerobic cellular respiration is

A. glycolysis – transition reaction – citric acid cycle – electron transport system.B. electron transport system – glycolysis – transition reaction – citric acid cycle.C. glycolysis – electron transport system – transition reaction - citric acid cycle.D. citric acid cycle – glycolysis – electron transport system – transition reaction.

104. The main reason why organisms would use fermentation isa. lack of oxygen.b. lack of enzymes.c. it produces the greatest amount of ATP.d. lack of carbon dioxide.

105. Which statement best compares the energy transformations of photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a. Only photosynthesis uses oxygen to create energy.b. Only photosynthesis causes an increase in kinetic energy.c. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both store energy in chemical bonds.d. Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both require chemical energy to make food.

106. The raw materials or reactants of the photosynthetic process includea. glucose and oxygen.b. carbon dioxide and glucose.c. carbon dioxide and water.d. carbon dioxide and oxygen.e. glucose and water.

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107. The substance that initially traps solar energy in photosynthesis isa. chlorophyll.b. RuBP.c. water.d. glucose.

108. The oxygen generated during photosynthesis is derived from a. carbon dioxide.b. water.c. cytochrome.d. glucose.

109. Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps for photosynthesis?a. Calvin cycle Photosystem I Photosystem IIb. Calvin cycle Photosystem II Photosystem Ic. Photosystem I Photosystem II Calvin cycled. Photosystem II Photosystem I Calvin cycle

110. The Calvin cycle is dependent upon a supply ofa. water and carbon dioxide.b. carbon dioxide and NADPH.c. carbon dioxide, NADPH and ATP.d. oxygen and carbon dioxide.e. glucose and carbon dioxide.

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Ecology

Refer to the following graph to answer questions 111.

111. Isle Royale is located in Lake Superior. Isle Royal is home to populations of wolves and moose. The interactions between the wolves and moose, as well as the individual population sizes, have been studied since 1958. The graph shows the populations sizes over time for both wolves and moose. Explain 1 likely reason why the wolf population increased between 1975 and 1980.

112. A researcher observing an ecosystem describes the amount of sunlight, precipitation, and type of soil present. Which factors is the researcher most likely describing?

a. biotic factors in a forestb. biotic factors in a tundra

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c. abiotic factors in a prairied. abiotic factors in an ocean

113. In a marine food web, there is a far greater mass of algae than of all the killer whales. Why is this so?

a. whales are bigger than algaeb. an alga has more mass than a killer whalec. whales don’t eat algaed. it takes a massive amount of algae to support a food web with a killer whale at the top.

114. In a meadow food chain, which is the correct sequence of the path of energy flow?a. hawk snake mouse grassb. mouse grass hawk snakec. grass mouse snake hawkd. snake mouse hawk grass

115. The maximum population that the environment can support for an indefinite period of time is called the __________________

a. biotic potentialb. environmental resistancec. carrying capacityd. replacement reproduction.

116. The ultimate source of energy for producers and all consumers is a. plants.b. the sun.c. algae.d. the ocean.

Refer to the following diagram to answer questions 117-118

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117. The figure above represents aa. trophic net.b. food chain.c. food net.d. food web.

118. The algae are __________________ while the leopard seals are ___________________.

a. producers, carnivoreb. carnivore, omnivorec. producer, omnivored. carnivore, producer

119. Using the following terms, trace the cycling of water between the atmosphere and the earth: Evaporation, transpiration, precipitation, surface run-off

120. Why are producers an essential component of an ecosystem

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