SONGS NRC Written Examination · All four CPCs will indicate failed sensors. The associated CPCs will . NOT trip. D. All four CPCs will indicate failed sensors. All four CPCs will

ES-401 SONGS NRC 2010 SRO Form ES-401-8 Written Examination Cover Sheet

NUREG-1021, Revision 9.1 Rev j

SONGS NRC

Written Examination

Applicant Information

Name:

Date: Facility/Unit:

Region: I II III IV Reactor Type: W CE BW GE

Start Time: Finish Time:

Instructions Use the answer sheets provided to document your answers. Staple this cover sheet on top of the answer sheets. To pass the examination you must achieve a final grade of at least 80.00 percent overall, with 70.00 percent or better on the SRO-only items if given in conjunction with the RO exam; SRO-only exams given alone require a final grade of 80.00 percent to pass. You have 8 hours to complete the combined examination, and 3 hours if you are only taking the SRO portion.

Applicant Certification

All work done on this examination is my own. I have neither given nor received aid. ___________________________________

Applicant’s Signature

Results

RO/SRO/Total Examination Values 75 / 25 / 100 Points

Applicant’s Scores / / Points

Applicant’s Grade / / Percent

SONGS NRC 2010 Written Examination Senior Reactor Operator

Question 001 Given the following conditions with Unit 3 at full power:

• Reactor Coolant Pump P-004 seal cavity pressures are approximately equal to Reactor Coolant System (RCS) pressure.

• A calculation of RCS leak rate has just been completed and is the same as the previously calculated rate.

• Plant Computer System is Out Of Service. • All radiation levels are normal.

Which of the following describes the cause of these indications? Reactor Coolant Pump P-004 has...

A. two failures of the middle and upper seals.

B. an excessive Controlled Bleed Off (CBO) flow.

C. one failure of the lower seal.

D. a CBO Excess Flow Check Valve closure.

Page 2 of 101 Rev j


Question 002 Which of the following is the LOWEST temperature that automatically bypasses flow from TV-0224B, Ion Exchanger Bypass Valve?

A. 120ºF.

B. 130ºF.

C. 140ºF.

D. 150ºF.

Page 3 of 101 Rev j


Question 003 Which of the following describes the MAIN reason for maintaining a Hydrogen overpressure in the Volume Control Tank (VCT) during plant operation at power?

A. Minimizes amount of radioactive gas diverted to the Waste Gas System during plant power changes.

B. Provides adequate Charging Pump suction pressure to minimize discharge

accumulator pulsations.

C. Minimizes oxygen based corrosion of Reactor Coolant System components.

D. Provides an inert gas to minimize the formation of a hard bubble in the Pressurizer steam space.

Page 4 of 101 Rev j


Question 004 Given the following conditions:

• Train A Shutdown Cooling (SDC) System is in service with Train B in standby. • HV-8160, SDC Heat Exchanger (HX) Bypass Flow Control Valve, will CLOSE but NOT

OPEN. Which of the following identifies how Shutdown Cooling System flow should be controlled?

A. THROTTLE CLOSED HV-8160, while THROTTLING OPEN HV-0396, SDC HX Bypass Standby Flow Valve, to required flowrate.

B. Manually THROTTLE HV-8161, SDC HX Bypass Normal Block Valve.

C. POSITION HV-8150 and HV-8151, SDC HX Outlet Valves to desired flowrate then

THROTTLE Component Cooling Water flow for desired cooldown.

D. THROTTLE all four (4) Low Pressure Safety Injection Header Loop Isolation Valves to desired flowrate.

Page 5 of 101 Rev j



• Unit 3 is in MODE 4 during a plant shutdown. • Reactor Coolant System pressure is 500 psia. • HV-9350, HV-9340, HV-9360, and HV-9370, Safety Injection Tank Outlet Valves, are

OPEN with power aligned. What is (are) the MINIMUM required action(s) to CLOSE the Safety Injection Tank Outlet Valves?

A. Place valve key switches in BYPASS and then in CLOSE.

B. Reduce RCS pressure < 460 psig, and then place valve key switches in BYPASS.

C. Place valve key switches from OPEN to CLOSE position.

D. Depress OVERRIDE pushbuttons and place valve key switches in CLOSE.

Page 6 of 101 Rev j



• A Small Break Loss of Coolant accident has occurred. • All required Safety System Actuations have occurred. • Pressurizer pressure is 1000 psia. • P-019, Train B High Pressure Safety Injection Pump (HPSI) tripped on overcurrent. • HPSI Pump (P-018) is aligned to Train A and operating, but is only currently meeting

50% of the required loop flow per SO23-12-11, EOI Supporting Attachments, Attachment 12, Minimum Required Safety Injection Flowrates During Cold Leg Injection.

• HPSI Pump (P-017) is aligned to Train A and in standby. Which of the following describes the usage of P-017, HPSI Pump in these circumstances?

A. Can NOT be used because the High Pressure Safety Injection Valves are set-up to limit the maximum flow in the event of a downstream break in the injection header.

B. Can be used and will result in meeting the other 50% flow requirement.

C. Can NOT be used due to Emergency Diesel sequenced loading concerns.

D. Can be used but will not result in meeting total Minimum Required Safety Injection

Flowrates to each Loop due to parallel operation of HPSI Pumps.

Page 7 of 101 Rev j


Question 007 Assuming no in-leakage, each of the following Containment parameters would RISE, if the Quench Tank drain piping were to prematurely fail EXCEPT:

A. Pressure.

B. Nitrogen concentration.

C. Containment Sump level.

D. Hydrogen concentration.

Page 8 of 101 Rev j


Question 008 Given the following condition:

• P-025, Component Cooling Water (CCW) Pump, is being realigned from Train A to Train B.

Which of the following actions realigns the P-024, Component Cooling Water Pump start circuit for a Train A SIAS start signal?

A. Rack out P-025 Breaker A0406 to DISCONNECT and turn the Kirk Key.

B. Position P-025 Motor Power Transfer Switch D005 to Bus A06.

C. Rack in P-025 Train B Breaker to the CONNECTED position.

D. Remove P-025 Train A Breaker DC Control Power.

Page 9 of 101 Rev j


Question 009 Given the following conditions with Unit 3 at 100% power:

• 3PIC-0100, Pressurizer Pressure Controller is in AUTO with a setpoint at 2225 psia. • One (1) bank of Backup Heaters is ON in MANUAL. • All other Backup Heaters are in AUTO / OFF. • Both sets of Proportional Heaters are in AUTO. • Both Pressurizer Spray Valve Controllers are in AUTO.

Based on the above conditions, what is the LOWEST Reactor Coolant System pressure at which the Pressurizer Spray Valves would be 100% open?

A. 2250 psia

B. 2275 psia

C. 2300 psia

D. 2325 psia

Page 10 of 101 Rev j



• Unit 2 is at 100% power. • One (1) Core Protection Calculator (CPC) speed sensor on Reactor Coolant Pump

P003 fails low. Which of the following describes the plant response to this condition?

A. One failed sensor will be indicated on the associated CPC. The associated CPC will NOT trip.

B. One failed sensor will be indicated on the associated CPC.

The associated CPC will trip on DNBR and LPD.

C. All four CPCs will indicate failed sensors. The associated CPCs will NOT trip.

D. All four CPCs will indicate failed sensors. All four CPCs will trip on DNBR and LPD.



Question 011 Which of the following would be the expected indications on the Reactor Trip Breaker Mimic Panel when a Loss of Vital AC Bus Y01 occurs?

A. ● K-1 & K-2 Relay white lights are OFF. ● Only two (2) Reactor Trip Breaker green lights are ON.

B. ● K-1 & K-2 Relay white lights are ON.

● Only two (2) Reactor Trip Breaker green lights are ON.

C. ● K-1 & K-2 Relay white lights are OFF. ● Only four (4) Reactor Trip Breaker green lights are ON.

D. ● K-1 & K-2 Relay white lights are ON. ● Only four (4) Reactor Trip Breaker green lights are ON.




• An Excess Steam Demand Event has occurred on Steam Generator E-088 inside Containment.

• The cooldown caused a rapid depressurization of the Reactor Coolant System (RCS) to 1100 psia.

• MSIS, CIAS, SIAS, CCAS and CSAS have fully actuated. • NO operator actions have been taken.

Which of the following: 1.) Identifies the impact on the RCS when Steam Generator E-088 reaches dryout? 2.) Actions should be taken to mitigate the situation?

A. 1.) Heat Removal will stop and due to the cooldown an excessive differential

temperature will exist between the Pressurizer and RCS. 2.) When dryout occurs, initiate depressurization of the RCS to reduce subcooling to 20ºF to 50ºF.

B. 1.) An excessive differential temperature will exist between the two loops and could

cause thermal shock at the Reactor Vessel inlet nozzles. 2.) When dryout occurs, reduce the hotter loops temperature using Steam Generator E-089 to within 20ºF of the affected loop.

C. 1.) Heat Removal will stop with the RCS at a higher mass and if allowed to heatup

could cause a Pressurized Thermal Shock condition. 2.) Prior to reaching dryout, dump steam from E-089 to maintain < 200 psi above E-088 and stabilize E-089 pressure at PSAT for the lowest TCOLD after dryout.

D. 1.) Heat Removal will stop with the RCS at a higher mass and if allowed to heatup

could cause the Pressurizer to go solid. 2.) Prior to reaching dryout, dump steam from E-089 to maintain the highest TCOLD stable without cooling down further and then immediately throttle Safety Injection.



Question 013 Given the following condition with Unit 3 at 100% power:

• Surveillance testing results in an inadvertent Safety Injection Actuation Signal (SIAS). Which of the following describes the condition of the Containment Normal Cooling Unit Fans? Containment Normal Cooling Unit Fans...

A. must be manually restarted after the SIAS is reset.

B. remain running during the inadvertent SIAS.

C. are overridden and restarted without resetting the SIAS.

D. automatically restart when the SIAS is reset.




• A loss of Normal Containment Cooling is in progress. • Containment temperature and pressure are slowly rising.

How does an increase in Containment pressure affect indicated Pressurizer pressure? As Containment pressure rises, Pressurizer pressure will indicate...

A. less than actual due to Pressurizer pressure transmitters with an open reference port.

B. greater than actual due to Pressurizer pressure transmitters with an open reference

port.

C. less than actual due to Pressurizer pressure transmitters with a closed reference port.

D. greater than actual due to Pressurizer pressure transmitters with a closed reference port.



Question 015 Given the following conditions on Unit 2:

• A Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident and Loss of Offsite Power have occurred. • Train B 4160 Volt Bus 2A06 tripped on overcurrent. • Recirculation Actuation Signal (RAS) has actuated. • 2HV-9306 and 2HV-9307, Train A Safety Injection Miniflow Valves have NOT closed. • Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST) level is 18%.

Which of the following identifies the impact on the Containment Spray System and what action(s) are necessary to mitigate the event?

A. Train A Containment Spray Pump will begin to cavitate with Miniflow Valves open. Stop the Train A Containment Spray Pump when flow starts to oscillate.

B. Water is transferred from the Containment Emergency Sump to the RWST.

Verify Emergency Sump level is > 18’ 4” and ensure Miniflow Valves closed.

C. Train B Containment Spray Pump Miniflow Valves are interlocked with Train A. Close all Miniflow Valves and verify Emergency Sump level is > 20’.

D. Train A Containment Spray Pump will trip due to the RAS actuation.

Close Miniflow Valves and then restart the Train A Containment Spray Pump.




• A Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred. • Recirculation Actuation System (RAS) has just actuated. • All required automatic Safeguards actuations have properly initiated. • Emergency Sump level is 15' 9" plant elevation. • Containment pressure is 42 psig and slowly rising.

Which of the following describes the status of High Pressure Safety Injection (HPSI) Pumps, Containment Spray (CS) Pumps, Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST), and associated pump suction paths? HPSI and CS Pumps are operating with the Emergency Sump Suction Valves open and RWST Outlet Valves __________. RWST level is __________.

A. open lowering

B. closed rising

C. open rising

D. closed lowering



Question 017 At 5% power, what is the position of the Main Feed Pump Turbine Governor Valves? Main Steam Governor Valve Reheat Steam Governor Valves

A. Throttled open Fully opened

B. Fully opened Throttled open

C. Throttled open Throttled open

D. Fully opened Fully opened



Question 018 Which of the following describes the response of the Unit 3 Feedwater Control System to the Reactor Trip Override (RTO) signal? Main Feedwater (MFW) Regulating Valves close,...

A. MFW Bypass valves go to 5% open. MFW Pumps speed lowers to 3000 rpm and remains there.

B. MFW Bypass valves go to 5% open.

MFW Pumps speed lowers towards 3600 rpm, then modulates to control valve ΔP.

C. MFW Bypass valves go to 50% open. MFW Pumps speed lowers to 3000 rpm and remains there.

D. MFW Bypass valves go to 50% open. MFW Pumps speed lowers towards 3600 rpm, then modulates to control valve ΔP.



Question 019 Which of the following Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) Valves is electrically controlled using DC power?

A. 2HV-4705, P-140 Discharge Valve.

B. 2HV-4713, P-141 Discharge Valve.

C. 2HV-4762, P-504 Discharge Bypass Valve.

D. 2HV-4731, AFW to SG E-089 Isolation Valve.



Question 020 A grid disturbance resulted in the following indications and alarms on both Units:

• DNBR Pre-Trips are in on all four (4) Plant Protection System Channels. • Annunciator 63B51 - OFFSITE POWER TROUBLE is in alarm. • Turbine load (MWe) has increased with NO change in valve position. • Annunciator 63B14 - NON-1E UPS TROUBLE is in alarm.

Which of the following describes the grid condition causing these indications? The grid…

A. voltage is high.

B. voltage is low.

C. frequency is high.

D. frequency is low.



Question 021 Given the following conditions with Unit 2 in a normal 100% power alignment:

• Unit 3 has just been taken off line due to a Reactor Coolant System leak. • Unit 2 trips, causing a disturbance on the Edison Grid and voltage on all 1E 4160 V

Buses on both SONGS Units lower to 4100 Volts. • Unit 3 Safety Injection Actuation Signal (SIAS) occurs 45 seconds after Unit 2 trips.

Which of the following will be the source of power to the Unit 3 1E 4160 V Buses five (5) minutes after the SIAS actuation if the given conditions continue to exist?

A. Unit 2 Diesel Generators.

B. Unit 2 Reserve Auxiliary Transformers.

C. Unit 3 Diesel Generators.

D. Unit 3 Reserve Auxiliary Transformers.



Question 022 Given the following condition on Unit 3:

• 3Q069, 120 VAC Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) is being supplied by its normal power source.

Which of the following conditions will cause the earliest transfer of Inverter 3Y012 Static Transfer Switch?

A. Inverter 3Y012 Output Overvoltage of 110%.

B. Inverter 3Y012 Input Voltage drops to 144 VDC.

C. Battery Charger 3B015 loss of power from 480 VAC Transformer 3T016.

D. Inverter 3Y012 high temperature relay and alarm.



Question 023 Which of the following is the power supply to Emergency Diesel Generator 2G002 Starting Air Compressors? Motor Control Center...

A. 2BD

B. 2BH

C. 2BDX

D. 2BHX




• Emergency Diesel Generator (EDG) 2G002 is being operated in parallel with Offsite Power when all the EDG Output Breaker control power fuses blow.

Which of the following is the effect on the EDG Output Breaker to this failure? The EDG Output Breaker...

A. will immediately trip OPEN.

B. can only be opened from the Control Room.

C. will trip OPEN on a loss of Generator excitation.

D. can only be opened manually at the breaker cubicle.




• An operator must hang a clearance on a valve located 5 feet away from a Containment

Purge Line elbow reading the equivalent of 100 mrem per hour. • Health Physics reports that the radiation level 10 feet from the purge line is 10 mrem

per hour. • The purge line elbow is considered a point source.

Which of the following is the dose rate in the area the operator will be hanging the clearance?

A. 20 mrem/hr

B. 40 mrem/hr

C. 50 mrem/hr

D. 80 mrem/hr




• Train A Salt Water Cooling (SWC) is aligned to the Emergency Discharge Line due to Circulating Water System Heat Treatment.

• It is necessary to swap the Train A Salt Water Cooling Pumps. Which of the following describes why it is preferred to start the on-coming Salt Water Cooling Pump from the Second Point of Control cabinet?

A. It defeats the CCW Heat Exchanger Salt Water Normal Outlet Valve OPEN interlock required for SWC Pump start.

B. CCW Heat Exchanger Salt Water Normal Outlet Valve can NOT be open at the

same time as the Emergency Outlet (Beach) Valve.

C. It blocks the automatic OPEN signal to the Salt Water Cooling Pump Discharge Valve to allow throttling flow slowly to the Emergency Header.

D. It defeats the annunciator for Salt Water Pump Incomplete Sequence due to the CCW Heat Exchanger Salt Water Normal Outlet Valve being closed.




• HV-8419, Atmospheric Dump Valve (ADV) air supply check valve has failed OPEN. • Annunciator 52A35 - ADV HV-8419 AIR / N2 PRESS LO is in alarm. • Instrument Air header pressure at the ADV is 10 psig and lowering.

Assuming Instrument Air is completely lost, which of the following describes the impact on the operation of the Atmospheric Dump Valve?

A. Valve fails open because there is no pressure to keep the valve closed.

B. Supply pressure for valve operation is below allowed values but spring pressure will assist with valve opening.

C. Manual operation only is available because the Nitrogen Backup Supply is lost through the same check valve.

D. Normal operation is lost but valve closure on a Main Steam Isolation Signal is maintained by the Nitrogen Backup Supply.



Question 028 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 while in MODE 1:

• Annunciator 60A03 - CONTAINMENT / FHB TEMP HI is in alarm. • All available Containment Normal Cooling Units are operating. • No symptoms of a Reactor Coolant, Main Steam or Feedwater leak exist. • Average Containment temperature is 105ºF and slowly rising.

Which of the following describes the appropriate actions to take in this condition?

A. Initiate a plant shutdown due to maximum design average Containment temperature being exceeded.

B. Place the Containment Emergency Cooling Units in service.

C. Start any available Reactor Cavity Fans and Control Element Drive Mechanism

Cooling Units.

D. Initiate a Containment Mini-Purge at the maximum allowed flowrate.



Question 029 Which of the following is the power supply to 2A-353, Containment Recirculation Filtration Unit? 480 VAC...

A. Bus 2B09.

B. Motor Control Center BO.

C. Bus 2B18.

D. Motor Control Center BU.



Question 030 Given the following conditions with Unit 2 operating at 100% power:

• Annunciator 60A46 - SECONDARY RADIATION HI is in alarm. • RE-7818, Low Range Air Ejector Radiation Monitor has alarmed. • RE-7870, Wide Range Air Ejector Radiation Monitor has a rising trend but is NOT in

alarm. • A Steam Generator Blowdown Radiation Monitor is in alarm.

Which of the following describes the current condition of A361, Steam Air Ejector Exhaust Unit and the proper operator response?

A. Flow has been automatically aligned through A361 due to RE-7818 ALERT alarm. Place A361 Control Switch in DIRECT to ensure flow through the unit.

B. Flow is bypassing A361, Steam Air Ejector Exhaust Unit.

Place A361 Control Switch to ON and ensure heater is in AUTO.

C. Flow has been automatically aligned through A361 due to RE-7818 ALERT alarm. Place A361 Control Switch to ON and ensure heater is in AUTO.

D. Flow is bypassing A361, Steam Air Ejector Exhaust Unit. Place A361 Control Switch in DIRECT to manually align flow through the unit.



Question 031 Which of the following identifies the personnel hazard that accompanies a HALON actuation during a fire? HALON...

A. exposure to combustion produces an acidic residue that can cause chemical burns.

B. exposure to combustion produces additional toxic gases in the affected area.

C. at greater than 1% concentration causes damage to the lungs due to its acidic residue.

D. at greater than 1% concentration increases the nitrogen in the atmosphere making it unsuitable for breathing.




• Unit 2 is in MODE 3 at normal operating pressure and temperature. • Main Steam Isolation Valves are closed. • Reactor Coolant System temperature is being controlled by operation of the

Atmospheric Dump Valves in AUTO. Which of the following describes the response of the Atmospheric Dump Valve Controller when one of the Steam Generator Pressure Channel inputs fail? High failure of a single channel will...

A. have no effect and low failure will have no effect.

B. open the valve and low failure will close the valve.

C. have no effect and low failure will close the valve.

D. open the valve and low failure will have no effect.



Question 033 Which of the following results in illuminating the amber Control Element Assembly Rod Bottom Light?

A. All CEDM coils deenergized and pulse counter resets to zero (0) inches.

B. All CEDM coils deenergized and pulse counter reaching the Lower Electrical Limit.

C. One (1) out of two (2) Reed Switches reaching the Lower Group Stop.

D. Two (2) out of two (2) Reed Switches actuated at zero (0) inches.



Question 034 Which of the following Area Radiation Monitors provides a direct input into the Qualified Safety Parameter Display System (QSPDS)?

A. RE-7848, Containment Building 30’ Area Radiation Monitor.

B. RE-7850, Fuel Handling Building Area Radiation Monitor.

C. RE-7851, Control Room Area Radiation Monitor.

D. RE-7820-1, Containment High Range Area Radiation Monitor.




• Unit 3 is operating at 50% power. • 3HV-8204, Steam Generator E-089 Main Steam Isolation Valve (MSIV) fails CLOSED.

Which of the following describes the plant response to these conditions? Steam Generator E-088 level...

A. swells until the Feedwater Level Control System adjusts to the rising steam demand.

B. swells, and then shrinks due to a Reactor Trip generated by a Core Protection

Calculator (CPC) Auxiliary Trip.

C. shrinks due to decreasing Steam Generator pressure then swells as Turbine load stabilizes at a lower output.

D. shrinks due to a Turbine trip caused by an auxiliary contact in the MSIV control circuit.




• A Core Exit Thermocouple (CET) feeding the Critical Function Monitoring System (CFMS) Subcooled Margin Monitor has an open circuit.

1.) Which of the following identifies the impact on the CET indication? 2.) What action would ensure that the LOWEST CFMS Subcooled Margin was being displayed in the Control Room at CR-56?

A. 1.) The CET indication fails low. 2.) Select WORST-CASE SCM from the QSPDS temperature instruments.

B. 1.) The CET indication fails low.

2.) Select CET SCM from the QSPDS temperature instruments.

C. 1.) The CET indication fails high. 2.) Select WORST-CASE SCM from the QSPDS temperature instruments.

D. 1.) The CET indication fails high.

2.) Select CET SCM from the QSPDS temperature instruments.



Question 037 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 while in MODE 3 post-trip:

• Natural Circulation has not been established. • A Reactor Coolant Pump start is being planned per SO23-12-11, EOI Supporting

Attachments, Floating Step 5, Start RCPs. What is the concern of starting the FIRST Reactor Coolant Pump without having Natural Circulation established, according to SO23-12-11, EOI Supporting Attachments?

A. A rapidly rising Core Exit Temperature due to loop stagnation.

B. Indications of cavitation due to hotter suction temperatures.

C. An increase in Excore NI power indications due to positive reactivity addition.

D. A loss of Core Saturation Margin due to Reactor Coolant pressure transient.



Question 038 Given the following conditions with Unit 3 at 100% power:

• All control systems are in AUTO. • The Turbine Generator trips on a Voltage Regulator card failure.

Assuming NO operator action, which of the following describes the secondary plant response immediately following the occurrence?

A. Main Steam Safety Valves OPEN; Steam Generators are fed to the High Level Override setpoint.

B. Steam Bypass Control System Valves modulate OPEN; Main Feedwater Isolation

Valves are controlled by Reactor Trip Override.

C. Main Steam Safety Valves OPEN; Main Feedwater Isolation Valves CLOSE.

D. Steam Bypass Control System Valves modulate OPEN; Main Feedwater Regulating Valves CLOSE.



Question 039 A Reactor trip has occurred from 100% power and the following conditions are observed:

• Pressurizer level is 28% and rising. • Reactor Coolant System pressure is 2225 and rising. • Reactor Coolant System TAVE is 545ºF and stable. • Both Steam Generator levels are 35% and rising. • Both Steam Generator pressures are 1000 psia and stable. • Assume NO operator actions and all systems respond as expected.

Given these conditions, which of the following statements describes the Feedwater System configuration to the Steam Generators? Feedwater to the Steam Generators is being supplied by...

A. Auxiliary Feedwater only.

B. Main and Auxiliary Feedwater.

C. neither system. Auxiliary Feedwater must be manually actuated.

D. Main Feedwater only.



Question 040 Given the following conditions following a Unit trip and SIAS actuation:

• Pressurizer pressure is 1720 psia and slowly LOWERING. • Quench Tank pressure is 20 psig and STABLE. • Pressurizer level is 28% and RISING. • Reactor Coolant System Tcold is 545ºF and STABLE. • Steam Generator narrow range levels are 21% and slowly RISING. • Steam Generator pressures are 1000 psia and STABLE. • Containment temperature is 125ºF and slowly RISING. • Containment pressure is 3 psig and slowly RISING. • Containment humidity is RISING.

Which of the following could be the cause of the above conditions?

A. Reactor Coolant System Cold Leg is leaking.

B. Pressurizer steam space is leaking.

C. Pressurizer Safety Valve is leaking.

D. Steam Generator level condensing pot is leaking.




• A Small Break Loss of Coolant Accident is in progress. • Safety Injection Actuation Signal has actuated. • All systems are operating as expected.

Which of the following is the basis for maintaining a secondary heat sink?

A. To minimize boron stratification of the Reactor Coolant System.

B. Cooling from the injection flow alone is inadequate to remove decay heat.

C. Reflux boiling is the primary means of heat removal prior to voiding in the hot legs.

D. Minimize potential for PTS during cooldown and depressurization phase.




• Unit 2 tripped from 100% power due to a Loss of Coolant Accident. • Verification of Safety Injection Throttle/Stop criteria is in progress. • The following conditions are noted:

• Steam Generator E-088 level is 63% narrow range with Auxiliary Feedwater flow available and the Atmospheric Dump Valve THROTTLED OPEN.

• Steam Generator E-089 level is 12% narrow range with no Auxiliary Feedwater flow available and the Atmospheric Dump Valve CLOSED.

• Core Exit Thermocouple temperature is 460ºF. • Pressurizer pressure is 550 psia. • Pressurizer level is 98% and stable. • Qualified Safety Parameter Display System indicates Reactor Head level at 20%.

Which of the following criteria does NOT meet HPSI Throttle / Stop Criteria?

A. Reactor Coolant System subcooling.

B. Pressurizer level.

C. Steam Generator availability.

D. Reactor Head level.



Question 043 Given the following conditions during a Loss of Coolant Accident on Unit 2:

• The Reactor is tripped and S023-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, is in progress • Pressurizer pressure is 1425 psia and lowering. • Trip Two-Leave Two Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) Strategy is being implemented. • RCP 2P001 trips but 2P004 continues to run when the STOP pushbutton is depressed.

Which of the following is the method used for stopping RCP 2P004? Open the Feeder Breaker at CR-63 to Bus...

A. 2A01 from the Reserve Auxiliary Transformer.

B. 2A01 from the Unit Auxiliary Transformer.

C. 2A02 from the Reserve Auxiliary Transformer.

D. 2A02 from the Unit Auxiliary Transformer.




• The Unit is in MODE 4 with the Shutdown Cooling (SDC) System in service. • The operating SDC Pump has become air bound.

Which of the following is the reason for venting the Shutdown Cooling System prior to shifting to the standby SDC Pump when the running SDC Pump becomes air bound per SO23-13-15, Loss of Shutdown Cooling System?

A. Avoid depletion of Reactor Coolant System hydrazine.

B. The in-service SDC Heat Exchanger could become air bound.

C. The Standby SDC Pump could become air bound.

D. Prevent Reactor Head air entrapment when the standby pump is started.




• 2LT-0226, Volume Control Tank (VCT) Level Transmitter has failed low. • Refueling Water Storage Tank (RWST) level is 98%.

Which of the following describes the automatic effect on the Chemical and Volume Control System for this failure?

A. The RWST is aligned to the Charging Pump suction with no override capability.

B. The RWST is aligned to the Charging Pump suction but can be manually realigned to the VCT.

C. The alternate VCT Level Transmitter becomes the selected signal to prevent any spurious CVCS actuations.

D. A continuous makeup to the VCT is in progress and will divert Letdown to Radwaste on high level.



Question 046 Given the following condition while at 100% power:

• The Pressurizer Pressure Transmitter for the controlling channel fails high. With NO operator action, which of the following is the first AUTOMATIC plant response as a result of this malfunction?

A. Both Pressurizer Spray Valves close.

B. Reactor trip due to low pressure.

C. All Pressurizer Backup Heaters energize.

D. Reactor trip due to high pressure.




• The plant tripped due to a Feedwater Line Break inside Containment downstream of the check valve.

• Subsequently, an open Pressurizer Safety Valve is also diagnosed. Which procedure would provide the guidance to MITIGATE the events?

A. SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions.

B. SO23-12-3, Loss of Coolant Accident.

C. SO23-12-5, Excess Steam Demand Event.

D. SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery.




• A Steam Generator Tube Rupture is estimated at 250 gpm. • Reactor Coolant System pressure is 2200 psia and lowering. • Steam Generator pressures are 800 psia. • Pressurizer level is 37% and lowering.

The Unit is tripped and plant parameters are as follows:

• Reactor Coolant System pressure is 1700 psia and lowering. • Steam Generator pressures are 1000 psia. • Pressurizer level is 13% and lowering.

Based on the two sets of data, which of the following describes the effect on primary-to-secondary leakage? Leakage following the trip is approximately _____ of the initial leak rate or about _____ gpm.

A. 10%; 25

B. 50%; 125

C. 70%; 175

D. 110%; 275



Question 049 Given the following conditions at 10% power on Unit 3:

• HV-4713, Auxiliary Feedwater Pump (P-141) Discharge Isolation Valve is taken out of service for motor repairs.

• Subsequently, Unit 3 trips due to a Loss of Offsite Power. • EFAS-1 and EFAS-2 were manually actuated during performance of Standard Post

Trip Actions. • Five (5) minutes post-EFAS, P-140, Turbine Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pump trips on

overspeed. Given the conditions above with NO operator action, which of the following describes the status of feedwater flow to the Steam Generators?

A. Main Feedwater is supplying both Steam Generators through the Main Feedwater Control Bypass Valves. Both Motor Driven Auxiliary Feedwater Pumps are running.

B. P-504 is supplying SG E-088 through HV-4712, Normal Discharge Valve and P-141

is supplying SG E-089 through HV-4763, Discharge Bypass Valve at 300 gpm.

C. P-504 is supplying SG E-088 through HV-4712, Normal Discharge Valve and P-141 is running on minimum recirc with no flow to Steam Generator E-089.

D. P-504 is supplying E-088 through HV-4712, Normal Discharge Valve and supplying Steam Generator E-089 through the cross-tie line.




• Unit 3 was at 100% power. • A complete Loss of Offsite Power occurred 15 minutes ago. • 1E Buses have been reenergized from the Emergency Diesel Generators. • Letdown flow has been restored. • Pressurizer level is 68% and slowly lowering. • Pressurizer pressure is 2320 psia and slowly lowering. • Main Steam Isolation Valves are closed.

In accordance with SO23-12-7, Loss of Forced Circulation / Loss of Offsite Power, which of the following actions is required? Operate the…

A. Auxiliary Feedwater System to establish at least one intact Steam Generator narrow range level between 40% and 80%.

B. Auxiliary Feedwater System to establish 200 gpm flow to each Steam Generator for

at least 5 minutes. C. Main Feedwater System to establish at least one intact Steam Generator narrow

range level between 40% and 80%. D. Main Feedwater System and use Main Steam Safety Valves to establish Natural

Circulation for decay heat removal.



Question 051 Which of the following sets of indications could be used as verification that a Loss of a Vital Bus Y01 has occurred?

A. Position indication for MCC powered ESF Channel A Valves failed on CR-57. EFAS Trip Path 1 & 3 Auxiliary Feedwater Valves OPEN.

B. Lumigraphs for Reactor Protection System Channel A failed on CR-56.

Loss of status indicating lamps for both Reactor Protection System Status Panels.

C. Lumigraphs for Reactor Protection System Channel A failed on CR-56. EFAS Trip Path 1 & 3 Auxiliary Feedwater Valves OPEN.

D. Position indication for MCC powered ESF Channel A Valves failed on CR-57. Loss of status indicating lamps for both Reactor Protection System Status Panels.




• Unit 2 is in MODE 1, when a Loss of DC Bus D1 occurs. Which of the following components are affected and what action is required?

A. Control Power is lost to Buses 2B04 and 2B24. If Component Cooling Water Pump P-026 needs to be started, locally operate the P-026 breaker.

B. Train A Emergency Diesel Generator automatically starts.

Place 2G-002 EDG in MAINT LOCKOUT due to loss of radiator cooling.

C. PV-0201A, Letdown Backpressure Control Valve fails OPEN. Locally start Train A Charging Pumps to match Charging and Letdown flow.

D. Control Power is lost to Buses 2A04 and 2B04. If Charging Pump P-190 needs to be started, locally operate the P-190 breaker.




• The following Salt Water Cooling (SWC) System Annunciators are in alarm: • 64A15 - SWC TRAIN A FLOW HI/LO. • 64A20 - SWC TRAIN B FLOW HI/LO. • 64A34 - SWC RETURN HEADER PRESSURE HI.

Which of the following describes the condition that exists and the actions required?

A. A low flow condition exists due to Heat Exchanger fouling. Initiate Reverse Flow Operations.

B. A high flow exists causing a high return pressure.

Throttle the SWC Pump Discharge Valves to reduce flow.

C. A low flow condition exists due to Outfall blockage. Align the discharge flowpath to the Seawall.

D. A high flow condition exists due to Outfall rupture. Align the discharge flowpath to the Seawall.



Question 054 Which of the following statements describes a valid criterion for Heat Removal during a Station Blackout? Verify...

A. Natural Circulation by maintaining Subcooled Margin of 25ºF.

B. Natural Circulation by monitoring REP CET temperatures 20ºF greater than THOT.

C. Two-Phase Heat Removal by maintaining RCS Loop ΔT at 65ºF.

D. Two-Phase Heat Removal by monitoring REP CET temperature at 750ºF.



Question 055 Which of the following is the reason for maintaining a MINIMUM voltage on the 1E 480 VAC Motor Control Centers (MCCs) during a degraded grid condition?

A. Prevent decrease in motor speed due to slip.

B. Allow LOCAL/REMOTE indicating lights to be easily observed.

C. Prevent an undervoltage trip of valve operator motor feeder breakers. D. Allow for sufficient voltage to be available to operate MCC motor contactor relay

coils.




• The following Annunciators are in alarm: • 50A05 - TAVG HI. • 50A07 - SBCS DEMAND PRESENT. • 50A10 - CEDMCS CEA WITHDRAWAL PROHIBIT. • 50A14 - PZR PRESS HI/LO. • 50A15 - HOT LEG LOOP 1 TEMP HI. • 50A16 - HOT LEG LOOP 2 TEMP HI. • 50A17 - COLD LEG LOOP 1 TEMP HI. • 50A18 - COLD LEG LOOP 2 TEMP HI. • 56A14 - DNBR LO RPS PRETRIP. • 56A15 - PZR PRESS HI PRETRIP.

• Pressurizer pressure is 2390 psia. • All Reactor Trip Breakers are closed. • Steam Generator levels are 65% narrow range and rising.

Which of the following describes the event in progress and the action required?

A. A partial loss of load has occurred. Rapidly reduce power per SO23-13-28, Rapid Power Reduction.

B. A Dilution event is ongoing. Commence an Emergency Boration per SO23-13-11,

Emergency Boration.

C. An Anticipated Transient Without Scram has occurred. Manually trip the Reactor and enter SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions.

D. An Excessive Feed Event is occurring. Take manual control of Feedwater Control Valves and stabilize Steam Generator levels.



Question 057 Which of the following is an indication of Inadequate Core Cooling as defined in the Emergency Operating Instructions?

A. Loss of RCS subcooling. Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring System indicating the lowest detector in the Plenum is uncovered.

B. RCS Loop temperatures rising. Pressurizer level lowering when High Pressure

Safety Injection is throttled.

C. Pressurizer level lowering when High Pressure Safety Injection is throttled and Core Exit Temperatures rising.

D. Pressurizer pressure stabilizing as level reaches 100%. Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring System is indicating level rising in the upper Head.



Question 058 Given the following conditions during a power ascension:

• Pressurizer Level is initially on program at 45%. • SO23-3-1.10, Pressurizer Pressure and Level Control, Forcing Pressurizer Sprays is in

progress using all Non-1E Pressurizer Heaters. • Pressurizer Level Control Channel Y is selected. • Pressurizer Level Control Channel Y subsequently failed to 20%. • LIC-0110, Pressurizer Level Controller was placed in MANUAL. • Actual Pressurizer level has risen to 52% during the transient. • All other switches are in their normal configuration.

Which of the following is the reason for controlling Pressurizer Heaters per SO23-13-27, Pressurizer Pressure and Level Malfunction? When Channel X is selected, Non-1E Pressurizer Heaters...

A. will automatically reenergize because they were in AUTO.

B. must be manually reenergized because they tripped on low Pressurizer level.

C. will automatically reenergize because Pressurizer Spray flow is being forced.

D. must be manually reenergized because deviation from setpoint is greater than 6%.




• Regulating Group 6 CEAs will be inserted 6 steps from the All Rods Out (ARO) position.

Which of the following indications would be used to determine if a CEA becomes immovable?

A. Reed Switch indication from the Rod Position CRT Display.

B. Pulse Counter information from the Plant Computer System.

C. Core Mimic Display from the Main Control Board.

D. Pulse Counter information from the CEA Operator Module.



Question 060 Given the following conditions with Unit 2 in MODE 6:

• During fuel inspection activities, the fuel inspection device was raised out of the Spent Fuel Pool.

• 2RE-7850, Fuel Handling Building Area Radiation Monitor has exceeded the alarm setpoint.

• 2RE-7822 and 2RE-7823, Fuel Handling Building Ventilation Airborne Monitors have NOT exceeded their alarm setpoints.

Which of the following statements describes the system response?

A. Fuel Handling Isolation Signal (FHIS) is generated.

B. Data Acquisition System (DAS) alarm is received in the Control Room.

C. Upward motion of the New Fuel Elevator is automatically stopped.

D. Emergency Response Data System (ERDS) signal is automatically activated.




• A planned release of T-086, Waste Gas Decay Tank is in progress. Which of the following would result in the closing of 2/3HV-7202, Waste Gas Discharge Isolation Valve?

A. Loss of both Radwaste Area Exhaust Fans (A192 and A193).

B. Initiating a Toxic Gas Isolation Signal.

C. Loss of all Continuous Exhaust Fans (A310, A311 and A312).

D. Initiating a Containment Isolation Actuation Signal.



Question 062 With Unit 3 at 100%, which of the following is the reason for lowering power level within 15 minutes following a fully dropped Control Element Assembly?

A. Prevent Azimuthal Power Tilt from exceeding the CPC Auxiliary Trip setpoint.

B. Increase the margin to Departure from Nucleate Boiling.

C. Minimize Axial Shape Index induced flux redistribution.

D. Offset the burnout of xenon and its detrimental effects on power distribution.



Question 063 Given the following conditions while performing a Heat Treatment on Unit 3:

• The following Annunciators have alarmed in the order listed: • Annunciator 99B37 - VACUUM LO. • Annunciator 99B17 - VACUUM LO PRETRIP.

• SO23-13-10, Loss of Condenser Vacuum has been entered. • Main Condenser backpressure degrades to 10.5" Hg backpressure.

What is the effect on Steam Bypass Control System (SBCS) operation?

A. SBCS is disabled due to low Condenser vacuum.

B. SBCS "QUICK OPEN" actuation is blocked but “MODULATE” operation is still enabled.

C. Vacuum is not degraded enough to have an effect or require any actions.

D. SBCS "EMERGENCY OFF" is disabled until vacuum lowers to 3.5" Hg backpressure.




• SO23-13-14, Reactor Coolant Leak, was entered and actions for a Steam Generator Tube leak are in progress.

• The tube leak has stabilized. Which of the following describes the reason that the setpoint is changed on RE-7870, Condenser Air Ejector Radiation Monitor, when performing actions for a Steam Generator Tube Leak once leakage has stabilized?

A. Actual leakage cannot be determined with RE-7870 above the HI-HI setpoint.

B. Allows for detection of any increased leakage from a known value.

C. Actual leak rate cannot be determined until the DAS Leak Rate page grid is re-scaled.

D. Allow determination of the rate of change of the leak rate.




• A fire has occurred in the Unit 2 30' Turbine Building Switchgear Room. • The Operations Fire Technical Advisor informs the Shift Manager in the Control Room

that the Fire Department Incident Commander intends to use water to extinguish the fire.

• Some of the Switchgear in the area is still energized. Which of the following describes the action required?

A. Prohibit the use of water as an extinguishing agent in the vicinity of all electrical components.

B. Ensure the Incident Commander is aware of the energized Switchgear and let them

determine the most appropriate extinguishing agent.

C. Inform the Incident Commander an alternate fire suppression agent must be used if any energized Switchgear is actively involved in the fire.

D. Permit the use of water as a fire suppression agent only after all Switchgear in the

area has been completely deenergized.



Question 066 Which of the following identifies the system used to perform a CHANNEL CHECK of the Reactor Vessel Level Monitoring System Heated Junction Thermocouples per SO23-3-3.35, PAMI / Safe Shutdown Monthly Checks?

A. Qualified Safety Parameter Display System.

B. Plant Computer System.

C. Core Operating Limit Supervisory System.

D. Plant Protection System Core Protection Calculator.




• Unit 2 is recovering from a dropped CEA. • Prior to withdrawing the CEA, Annunciator 50A40 - CEDMCS TIMER FAILURE needs

to be reset by actuating the ACTM Manual Transfer Switch for the dropped CEA. Which of the following describes the location of the controls and the system response when the ACTM Manual Transfer Switch for the dropped CEA is actuated? Dispatch an operator to...

A. 37’ Radwaste Building, Control Element Drive Mechanism Control System Room. The CEA is transferred to the Upper Gripper and all flags are reset.

B. 30’ Control Building, 2L-91, Control Element Assembly Calculators.

The CEA is transferred to the Lower Gripper and all flags are reset.

C. 37’ Radwaste Building, Control Element Drive Mechanism Control System Room. The CEA and it associated Subgroup is transferred to the Hold Bus.

D. 30’ Control Building, 2L-91, Control Element Assembly Calculators. The CEA and it associated Subgroup is transferred to the Hold Bus.




• Unit 3 is in MODE 1. • Reactor Coolant System Pressure is 2760 psia.

Which of the following states the MAXIMUM amount of time allowed per Technical Specifications before MODE 3 entry is required?

A. One (1) hour.

B. Two (2) hours.

C. Four (4) hours.

D. Six (6) hours.



Question 069 Which of the following tags is hung on an in-service temporary power supply during a Motor Control Center outage?

A. Clearance.

B. In-Test.

C. Caution.

D. Permission.




• CEA Group 5 is being withdrawn from 108 inches to 123 inches. • At 112 inches on Group 5, the CEDMCS Control Switch is released. • CEA #14 and #15 motion STOPS. • CEA #16 and #17 CONTINUE to withdraw. • All CEA motion is terminated by placing CEDMCS in OFF. • CEA #16 and #17 indicate 123 inches.

Which of the following is required and what is the reason for that action?

A. Immediately adjust the AZTILT constants in the Core Protection Calculators to preclude operation outside of Local Power Density limits.

B. Restore Group 5 alignment within 1 hour by withdrawing CEAs 14 and 15 in

MANUAL INDIVIDUAL to prevent exceeding AZTILT limits.

C. Restore Group 5 alignment within 1 hour by inserting CEA 16 and 17 using MANUAL INDIVIDUAL to preclude excessive power peaking.

D. Immediately trip the Reactor to preclude operation outside of a design basis condition.




• A “full body” entry into a Radiation Area is required to hang a clearance on a Waste Gas Compressor.

• The Survey Map shows loose surface contamination levels of 25,000 dpm/100 cm2

around the pump in the area that will be accessed. Which of the following describes the MINIMUM protective clothing requirements that should be specified on the Radiation Exposure Permit for this task?

A. Lab coat, face shield, gloves, and booties.

B. A single full set of protective clothing.

C. Two full sets of protective clothing and a face shield.

D. A full set of protective clothing with an outer set of plastic clothing.



Question 072 Which of the following detectors is used primarily for alpha contamination surveys?

A. An ion chamber.

B. A Geiger-Mueller detector.

C. A BF3 proportional counter.

D. A scintillation detector.



Question 073 Which of the following describes a Very High Radiation Area and associated access controls? An accessible area where personnel could receive a dose of greater than...

A. 5 REM in one hour at 30 centimeters from the source. Access is locked with the keys controlled by the Health Physics Checkpoint.

B. 500 RAD in one hour at one meter from the source.

Access is locked with the keys controlled by the Health Physics Manager and Shift Manager.

C. 5 REM in one hour at 30 centimeters from the source.

Access is locked with the keys controlled by the Health Physics Supervisor and Control Room Supervisor.

D. 500 RAD in one hour at one meter from the source. Access is locked with the keys controlled by the Health Physics Checkpoint.



Question 074 Which of the following describes the primary purpose of the Core Exit Thermocouples? The Core Exit Thermocouples monitor core conditions to...

A. diagnose voiding in the Head area during accident conditions.

B. maintain an acceptable Departure from Nucleate Boiling Ratio during power operations.

C. determine adequate Core Cooling during accident conditions.

D. maintain an acceptable Linear Heat Rate during power operations.



Question 075 Given the following End-of-Core (EOC) condition:

• A Group 6 Control Element Assembly has dropped into the core. Which of the following is the basis for commencing a boration to meet the Power Reduction Requirement rather than using CEAs when at EOC?

A. To minimize the Axial Shape Index effects of rod insertion.

B. To prevent radial peaking factors from impacting COLSS Linear Heat Rate.

C. Minimizes reactivity insertion due to the high value of Inverse Boron Worth.

D. A Group 6 insertion can NOT be performed due to the Lower Electrical Limit interlock.



Question 076 Given the following conditions on Reactor Coolant Pump (RCP) 2P002 at 100% power:

• Controlled Bleed Off flow indicates zero (0) gpm. • Vapor Seal Cavity indicates 10 psig. • Upper Seal Cavity indicates 810 psig. • Middle Seal Cavity indicates 1525 psig. • Leakage into the Containment Sump is 12 gpm and has been confirmed by performing

a Reactor Coolant System Inventory Balance. Which of the following describes the required actions for these conditions?

A. Reduce the leakage to less than one (1) gpm within four (4) hours or initiate SO23-13-28, Rapid Power Reduction, to be in HOT STANDBY in six (6) hours.

B. A single Seal Stage has failed. Pump the Containment Sump to maintain an

indicated level and enter Containment to re-seat the Vapor Seal.

C. Initiate a controlled power reduction per SO23-5-1.7, Power Operations, then immediately trip the Reactor and Reactor Coolant Pump.

D. Trip the Reactor, perform SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, Step 1 and 2, then trip RCP 2P002 five (5) seconds after the CEAs have been inserted.



Question 077 Given the following conditions during a Station Blackout:

• Power is 10-3% and slowly lowering. • Reactor Trip Circuit Breakers #1 and #8 are closed. • Part Length CEA #28 remains fully withdrawn. • Full Length CEA #36 remains fully withdrawn. • Full Length CEA #40 indicates 90 inches withdrawn.

Which of the following sets of procedural actions are required to be performed?

A. Enter SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, and transition to SO23-12-8, Station Blackout with SO23-13-11, Emergency Boration of the RCS in parallel.

B. Enter SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, and transition to SO23-12-9,

Functional Recovery, FR-1 Recovery - Reactivity Control.

C. Enter SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, FR-1 Recovery - Reactivity Control, in conjunction with SO23-13-11, Emergency Boration of the RCS/Inadvertent Dilution.

D. Enter SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, FR-1 Recovery - Reactivity Control, in

conjunction with FR-2 Recovery - Vital Auxiliaries.




• An Anticipated Transient Without Scram (ATWS) is in progress due to failure of all efforts to insert Control Rods.

• Charging Pumps are NOT available. Which of the following is the preferred order for implementing boration using Emergency Core Cooling per SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, Attachment FR-1, Recovery - Reactivity Control? High Pressure Safety Injection,...

A. Containment Spray Pumps via LPSI lines, then Safety Injection Tanks.

B. Containment Spray Pumps via LPSI lines, then Low Pressure Safety Injection Pumps.

C. Low Pressure Safety Injection Pumps, then Safety Injection Tanks.

D. Low Pressure Safety Injection Pumps, then Containment Spray Pumps via LPSI lines.




• Unit 2 has tripped following a Bus 2A07 overcurrent trip and loss of vacuum. • Auxiliary Feedwater (AFW) Pump P-141 breaker will not close and AFW Pump P-504

was cleared for Boundary of the Week. • AFW Pump P-140 is running but cannot develop sufficient discharge head. • SO23-12-1, Standard Post Trip Actions, is complete. • SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, is in progress. • The cause of the loss of vacuum was identified and Condenser vacuum is restored. • Main Feedwater Pump P-062 was RESET and available for use.

Shortly after entry into SO23-12-6, the following occurs: • Annunciator 57C57 - TURBINE BLDG FLOODING has just alarmed. • A Main Feedwater pipe rupture was verified between the Turbine Building and the

Safety Equipment Building. Which of the following actions is required?

A. Implement SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, and initiate Attachment FR-5, Recovery - Heat Removal, Success Path HR-1, Step 7 immediately.

B. Remain in SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, and transition to Step 10, Establish

Condensate Pump Flow to SG E-088 and depressurize to 500 psig.

C. Remain in SO23-12-6, Loss of Feedwater, and continue to align Main Feedwater Pump to feed Steam Generator E-088.

D. Implement SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, and initiate Attachment FR-2, Recovery - Vital Auxiliaries, Success Path VA-1.




• The Reactor tripped from 100% power. • There was a fire in Vital AC Bus Y01 that was extinguished in 10 minutes but the bus

was lost. • A Reactor Coolant System leak into the Quench Tank exists due to Safety Valve

leakage. • Pressurizer Level is stable. • Letdown flow is at minimum. • Two (2) Charging Pumps are operating. • Reactor Coolant Pump Controlled Bleed Off flow is 5 gpm total.

Which of the following would be the Emergency Plan Event Code for these conditions?

A. No Classification required. B. B1-1, UNUSUAL EVENT.

C. E1-1, UNUSUAL EVENT.

D. B2-1, ALERT.




• A Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident is in progress on Unit 2. • A total loss of Component Cooling Water has occurred on Unit 2. • The Recirculation Actuation Signal will actuate in 5 minutes. • Bus 2A04 has tripped and locked out due to a bus fault. • High Pressure Safety Injection (HPSI) Pump P-018 is currently aligned to Train B. • Actions of SO23-12-3, Loss of Coolant Accident, are in progress.

Which of the following actions should be taken to mitigate the situation?

A. Remain in SO23-12-3, Loss of Coolant Accident, and cross-connect Unit 2 Component Cooling Water with Unit 3 and invoke 10CFR50.54.X on Unit 2.

B. Start P-019, HPSI Pump to Train B following the Recirculation Actuation Signal in

order to provide additional flow and transition to SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, Attachment FR-5, Recovery - Heat Removal, if HPSI Pump performance becomes unstable.

C. Transition to SO23-12-9, Functional Recovery, Attachment FR-5, Recovery - Heat

Removal, and cross-connect Unit 2 Component Cooling Water with Unit 3 and invoke 10CFR50.54.X on Unit 3.

D. Perform actions of SO23-12-11, EOI Supporting Attachments, Attachment 14, RAS

Operations to raise RWST level in order to flood Containment above the 23’ (foot) level to improve Net Positive Suction Head to the operating HPSI Pump.



Question 082 Given the following conditions during REFUELING Operations:

• Steam Generator Nozzle Dams are installed. • An irradiated fuel assembly has just been removed from the Upender in the Fuel

Transfer Pool and is in transit to the Spent Fuel Pool racks. • The Refueling Operations Supervisor reports Refueling Water Level is slowly lowering

about 0.25” (¼”) per minute. • Health Physics reports that a small amount of water is seeping into Steam Generator

E-088 bowl. Which of the following actions should be performed FIRST?

A. Lower the fuel assembly into a deep area of the Cask Pool, and close the Cask Pool Gate.

B. Immediately suspend fuel movement and initiate CRIS.

C. Seat the fuel assembly in the Spent Fuel Pool racks.

D. Return the fuel assembly to the Upender.



Question 083 Given the following conditions after a trip from 100% power:

• A Steam Line Break has occurred inside Containment. • SO23-12-5, Excess Steam Demand Event, Step 13, Limit RCS Re-pressurization is in

progress. • Reactor Coolant System subcooling is 160ºF and rising. • Containment pressure is 6 psig.

Which of the following actions is required to reduce Reactor Coolant System subcooling?

A. Initiate FS-32, Establish Manual Auxiliary Spray then refer to SO23-12-11, Attachment 5, Core Exit Saturation Margin Control using the value of PTS subcooling in place of Core Exit Saturation Margin.

B. Establish Normal Auxiliary Spray flow then transition to SO23-12-11, Attachment 5,

Core Exit Saturation Margin Control using the value of Core Exit Saturation Margin in place of PTS subcooling.

C. Initiate FS-32, Establish Manual Auxiliary Spray then refer to SO23-12-11, Attachment 5, Core Exit Saturation Margin Control using the value of Core Exit Saturation Margin in place of PTS subcooling.

D. Establish Normal Auxiliary Spray flow then transition to SO23-12-11, Attachment 5, Core Exit Saturation Margin Control using the value of PTS subcooling in place of Core Exit Saturation Margin.




• Unit 3 has just entered MODE 5 on Shutdown Cooling. • Reactor Coolant System TCOLD is 195ºF. • Annunciator 50A57 - START-UP CHANNEL 2 TROUBLE has just alarmed due to a

loss of power. Which of the following outlines the required actions for the failed Startup Channel?

A. Stop the cooldown and transfer Channel 2 to its alternate power per SO23-3-2.20, Computer Operation.

B. Continue the cooldown to ~150ºF and verify the Boronometer low alarm is set

within 50 ppm of current boron concentration per SO23-5-1.5, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown.

C. Stop the cooldown and transfer Channel 2 to an alternate power source per SO23-3-2.15, Excore Instrumentation Operations.

D. Continue the cooldown to ~120ºF and align the audible count rate monitor on Start-up Channel 1 per SO23-5-1.5, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown.



Question 085 Which of the following conditions represents an entry into a REQUIRED ACTION for Containment Systems as described in Technical Specifications? While at 100% power,...

A. HV-5434, Nitrogen Supply Isolation Valve to Safety Injection Tanks, fails to stroke full open.

B. the outer Containment airlock door fails its leak rate test and has to be opened to

facilitate repairs that will take > 72 hours.

C. OPERABILITY tests on redundant Containment Loop 1 Hot Leg Sample Valves (HV-0508 and HV-0509); one of the two valves (HV-0508) fails closed.

D. a mechanic blocks open the outer Containment airlock door for two (2) hours to perform maintenance activities on the INOPERABLE inner Containment door.




• Unit 2 is operating at 100% power. • All Control Element Drive Mechanism Cooling has been lost for one (1) hour with

shroud temperatures indicating 180ºF and rising. Which of the following actions should be directed by the Control Room Supervisor?

A. Trip the Reactor and then perform SO23-5-1.5, Plant Shutdown from Hot Standby to Cold Shutdown, to initiate a plant cooldown to less than 350ºF.

B. Enter SO23-3-2.22, Engineered Safety Features Actuation System Operation, and

initiate a Containment Cooling Actuation Signal on one (1) train.

C. Enter SO23-1-4, Containment Normal Heat Removal, Operation of the Reactor Cavity Cooling Units, and start a second fan in each set to cool the area around the Reactor.

D. Refer to SO23-15-60.A1 - CEDM COOLING SHROUD TEMP HI, and verify Control Element Drive Mechanism Cooling Unit Dampers OPEN to promote Natural Circulation cooling.




• A Large Break Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred in Containment. • Containment pressure is 20 psig and slowly lowering. • Both Trains of SIAS, CCAS, CSAS and CIAS have actuated. • Recirculation Actuation Signal just actuated and all automatic components operated

properly. • Refueling Water Storage Tank Outlet Valves are CLOSED. • Subsequently, the Containment Emergency Sump becomes blocked.

Which of the following: 1.) Identifies the impact of the clogged sump on the Emergency Core Cooling System Pumps? 2.) Actions that should be taken to mitigate the situation?

A. 1.) Oscillations in flow, discharge pressure, and amperage are occurring. 2.) STOP one (1) Train of High Pressure Safety Injection and Containment Spray.

B. 1.) Discharge pressure is normal but flow and amperage are both lower than

normal. 2.) STOP both Trains of Containment Spray and CLOSE the Spray Header Control Valves.

C. 1.) Discharge pressure is normal but flow and amperage are both lower than

normal. 2.) STOP one (1) Train of High Pressure Safety Injection and Containment Spray.

D. 1.) Oscillations in flow, discharge pressure, and amperage are occurring.

2.) STOP both Trains of Containment Spray and CLOSE the Spray Header Control Valves.



Question 088 Given the following conditions following a Steam Generator Tube Rupture:

• SO23-12-4, Steam Generator Tube Rupture is in progress • Step 24, Reset EFAS, is being performed.

Which of the following is the procedural direction and reason that will be given for Auxiliary Feedwater control? Establish Auxiliary Feedwater flow using the...

A. AC powered valves (HV-4714 or HV-4731) to provide better response as a result of a longer stroke time from fully closed to fully open.

B. DC powered valves (HV-4730 or HV-4715) to minimize the load on the Vital AC Bus

and to prevent feeding a ruptured SG if a Vital AC Bus is lost.

C. AC powered valves (HV-4714 or HV-4731) to minimize the load on the 1E Batteries and to prevent feeding a ruptured SG if a DC bus is lost.

D. DC powered valves (HV-4730 or HV-4715) to allow for better flow characteristics and allow finer control of Auxiliary Feedwater flow.



Question 089 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 during plant cooldown:

• Reactor has been shutdown for 12 hours. • Train A Shutdown Cooling Train had just been placed in service when Offsite Power

was lost. Recovery is expected to take several hours. • Train A Low Pressure Safety Injection Pump motor failed on the transient. • Reactor Coolant System temperature is 320ºF. • Reactor Coolant System pressure is 100 psia. • Steam Generator levels are at 45% wide range. • All other Safety Related Pumps are OPERABLE.

Which of the following actions should be taken to meet Technical Specifications?

A. Ensure Natural Circulation is established and immediately align Train A Shutdown Cooling using the Containment Spray Pump.

B. Raise pressure and allow temperature to rise above 350ºF and operate

Atmospheric Dump Valves to restore Reactor Coolant System Loops to service.

C. Flow stoppage is allowed for ≤ one (1) hour to permit realignment. Start Train B Shutdown Cooling System and restore Train A within the hour.

D. Place Train B Shutdown Cooling System in service immediately and cooldown the

RCS to less than 200ºF within 24 hours.



Question 090 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 in MODE 1 at EOC:

• Annunciator 57A59 - LOOP 1B SAFETY INJECTION CHECK VALVE LEAKAGE PRESSURE HI is in alarm at 1000 psig.

• Reactor Coolant System leakage has risen from 0.2 gpm to 0.7 gpm. • Prior Inservice Testing Program leakage surveillance was within limits.

Which of the following: 1.) Identifies the impact on the Emergency Core Cooling System? 2.) Actions should be taken to mitigate the situation?

A. 1.) Continued leakage could result in low boron concentrations in the Safety Injection header. 2.) Be in MODE 3 within 10 hours due to exceeding Technical Specification LCO 3.4.13, RCS Operational Leakage criteria.

B. 1.) A pressure lock could occur that prevents proper operation of T-007, Safety

Injection Tank Isolation Valve. 2.) Isolate the high pressure portion of the system from the low pressure portion with one closed manual, deactivated automatic, or check valve per LCO 3.4.14, RCS Pressure Isolation Valve Leakage criteria.

C. 1.) Continued leakage could result in low boron concentrations in the Safety

Injection header. 2.) Isolate the high pressure portion of the system from the low pressure portion with one closed manual, deactivated automatic, or check valve per LCO 3.4.14, RCS Pressure Isolation Valve Leakage criteria.

D. 1.) A pressure lock could occur that prevents proper operation of T-007, Safety

Injection Tank Isolation Valve. 2.) Be in MODE 3 within 10 hours due to exceeding Technical Specification LCO 3.4.13, RCS Operational Leakage criteria.



Question 091 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 at 100% power:

• A batch release was started the previous shift per SO23-8-7, Liquid Radioactive Release Operations, Attachment 2, Simplified Release of Radwaste Secondary Tank T-057.

• 2/3RT-7813, Radwaste Discharge Radiation Monitor readings are normal • While reviewing the Release Permit you discover that the tank recirculation did not

meet the volume requirement. Which of the following: 1.) Describes the impact on the Liquid Effluent Release Limits? 2.) Actions are required to mitigate the situation?

A. 1.) Radiation Monitor alarm settings prevent exceeding limits. 2.) Stop the release and obtain a new release permit after a proper tank recirculation.

B. 1.) Radiation Monitor detector sensitivity prevents exceeding limits.

2.) The release may be continued as long as the Liquid Effluent Radiation Monitoring instrumentation remains OPERABLE.

C. 1.) Offsite Dose Calculation Manual limits have been exceeded.

2.) Stop the release and evaluate Emergency Plan entry based on the release rates.

D. 1.) 10CFR20, Standards for Protection Against Radiation, have been exceeded.

2.) Stop the release and initiate an immediate notification to the NRC per SO123-0-A7, Notification and Reporting of Significant Events.



Question 092 Given the following conditions on Unit 2 at 100% power:

• RI-7820-1, Containment High Range Area Monitor, is out of service. • While performing Shiftly Surveillance, the OPERATE light for RI-7820-2, Containment

High Range Area Monitor, is extinguished with the Mode Select Switch in OPERATE. • RI-7820-2 OPERATE light bulb was verified to be working.

Which of the following REQUIRED ACTIONS should be implemented?

A. Submit a Special Report to the NRC within 14 days of the plan to restore one (1) channel to OPERABLE status.

B. Immediately start actions to restore a channel, initiate monitoring of radiation levels

on the surface of Containment Building, and restore one (1) channel within 7 days.

C. Initiate a Unit Shutdown per the requirements of Technical Specification 3.0.3 and perform an NRC Notification within one (1) hour of initiation of the shutdown.

D. Initiate monitoring of Area Radiation Monitors outside Containment and restore an OPERABLE channel within 30 days.



Question 093 Given the following conditions with a Loss of Offsite Power:

• The Unit was shut down due to a large Steam Generator Tube Leak on E-089. • Steam Generator E-089 has been isolated. • A Reactor Coolant System cooldown is in progress. • Steam Generator pressures are as follows:

• E-088 is at 650 psia and lowering. • E-089 is at 850 psia and rising.

• Reactor Coolant System temperatures are as follows: • Loop 1 TCOLD is 525°F. • Loop 1 THOT is 525°F. • Loop 2 TCOLD is 490°F. • Loop 2 THOT is 525°F.

Which of the following: 1.) Identifies the current condition of the Reactor Coolant System? 2.) Actions should be taken to mitigate the situation?

A. 1.) An asymmetric cooldown is occurring. 2.) Perform an Asymmetric Steam Generator cooldown per SO23-12-11, EOI Supporting Attachments, Floating Step 29, Cooldown Isolated Steam Generator.

B. 1.) Natural circulation flow has been lost. 2.) Lower the cooldown rate to 10°F per hour until Natural Circulation flow is restored per EOI Supporting Attachments, Floating Step 3, Monitor Natural Circulation Established.

C. 1.) An asymmetric cooldown is occurring. 2.) Lower the cooldown rate to 10°F per hour until Natural Circulation flow is restored per EOI Supporting Attachments, Floating Step 3, Monitor Natural Circulation Established.

D. 1.) Natural circulation flow has been lost.

2.) Perform an Asymmetric Steam Generator cooldown per SO23-12-11, Floating Step 29, Cooldown Isolated Steam Generator.



Question 094 Given the following:

• Unit 2 is in MODE 1. • The shift is manned to the minimum composition per Appendix R. • The shift has 4 hours remaining. • The 21 Watch has become ill and must leave the site for emergency medical

treatment. Which of the following describes the requirements regarding the shift composition and required action in this situation?

A. The CRS may assume the responsibilities of the 21 Watch. The Shift Manager may perform concurrent SM/CRS duties until shift relief with a qualified STA on site.

B. Responsibilities of the 21 Watch may be turned over to the 31 Watch for the

remainder of the shift.

C. Responsibilities of the 21 Watch may be turned over to the 22 Watch for the remainder of the shift.

D. The 21 Watch may leave the site immediately after turnover of responsibilities to

another qualified person on shift. A replacement must arrive within 2 hours.




• Unit 3 is at 4% power. • Technical Specification Limiting Condition for Operations 3.0.3 is entered on October

19 at 0100. • At 0130, a shutdown is commenced on Unit 3.

If MODE 3 is achieved at 0230 on October 19, what is the latest date and time by which MODE 5 must be entered?

A. October 19 @ 1400

B. October 19 @ 1530

C. October 20 @ 1400

D. October 20 @ 1730




• During the performance of troubleshooting via an Infrequently Performed Test Evolution (IPTE), it is noted that one of the Initial Conditions is not appropriate for the existing plant conditions and the evolution is stopped.

• The Management Designee has determined that this represents a CHANGE OF INTENT from the stated Initial Conditions.

Which of the following should be done prior to proceeding with the test?

A. The Test Specialist makes Pen and Ink changes to the procedure.

B. A Procedure Modification Permit (PMP) to the procedure must be approved.

C. The Control Room Supervisor notes the discrepancy on the official copy as a clarification.

D. The procedure is changed and receives the same level of review and approval as the original.




• A GENERAL EMERGENCY has been declared due to a Loss of Coolant Accident with extremely high offsite radioactive release rates.

• A worker attempting to isolate an uncontrolled release has sustained life-threatening injuries in a high dose area.

• The Emergency Response Organization is planning a rescue operation. • The estimated exposure for the rescue is 35 REM.

In accordance with SO123-VIII-10, Emergency Coordinator Duties, which of the following describes the restriction, if any, on attempting the rescue?

A. The rescue can ONLY be attempted using protective shielding because the estimated exposure exceeds the federal limit for life saving operations.

B. A volunteer is desired, but not required, prior to proceeding with the rescue. If a

volunteer cannot be located, an employee may be chosen by the Emergency Coordinator.

C. The rescue may proceed without restriction since the estimated exposure is less than the limit for life saving operations.

D. Due to the amount of expected exposure, the rescue may ONLY proceed if a volunteer is available.




• A Gaseous Waste release is planned for Unit 2. • Wind direction is from the ocean.

Which of the following actions describes the status of the planned release in accordance with SO23-8-15, Gaseous Effluent Release? The Gaseous Effluent Release...

A. should ONLY be initiated if wind speed is below that required by a Χ/Q calculation.

B. shall NOT be initiated until wind direction changes.

C. should ONLY be initiated if wind speed is above that required by a Χ/Q calculation.

D. may commence without restriction given Health Physics Manager approval.



Question 099 Given the following conditions during Emergency Plan implementation:

• An ALERT has been declared. • The Shift Manager has assumed responsibility as the Emergency Coordinator. • The Emergency Offsite Facility and Technical Support Center are NOT yet activated.

Which of the following may the Emergency Coordinator delegate to another individual?

A. Reclassifying the event in progress.

B. Making Protective Action Recommendations.

C. Notifying Offsite Agencies.

D. Terminating the event when conditions are no longer met.





• During a declared emergency, the Emergency Coordinator determines there is a need to change the previous Protective Action Recommendation (PAR) for offsite personnel from "None" to "Evacuate the State Beach".

• The event classification remains unchanged. What effect will this change in the PAR have on NOTIFICATIONS made to Offsite Agencies?

A. Changing the PAR requires a new set of verbal and hard copy notifications.

B. Notification of the change in PAR is required only if the event classification is also changed.

C. A PAR change requires event reclassification and a new set of verbal but NOT hard copy notifications.

D. Changing the PAR requires only additional comments on the next hard copy notification form.

SONGS NRC 2010 RO Written Exam Reference List

1. NRC Generic Fundamentals Equation Sheet

2. Steam Tables

SONGS NRC 2010 RO Written Exam Reference List Rev j.doc

SONGS NRC 2010 SRO Written Exam Reference List

1. NRC Generic Fundamentals Equation Sheet

2. Steam Tables

3. SO123-VIII-1, Recognition and Classification of Emergencies

SONGS NRC 2010 SRO Written Exam Reference List Rev j.doc

SONGS NRC 2010 Senior Reactor Operator Written Examination

Answer Key

1. D 26. A 51. C 76. D

2. C 27. C 52. D 77. B

3. C 28. B 53. C 78. B

4. A 29. A 54. A 79. A

5. A 30. D 55. D 80. D

6. D 31. B 56. C 81. A

7. D 32. C 57. A 82. C

8. A 33. D 58. B 83. A

9. B 34. D 59. A 84. C

10. B 35. B 60. B 85. D

11. C 36. A 61. C 86. A

12. C 37. C 62. B 87. D

13. B 38. D 63. A 88. C

14. A 39. D 64. B 89. D

15. B 40. B 65. B 90. C

16. C 41. B 66. A 91. A

17. A 42. A 67. A 92. B

18. D 43. A 68. A 93. A

19. A 44. C 69. C 94. D

20. D 45. C 70. D 95. C

21. C 46. B 71. B 96. D

22. B 47. D 72. D 97. D

23. C 48. C 73. B 98. C

24. D 49. C 74. C 99. C

25. B 50. A 75. D 100. A

SONGS NRC 2010 SRO Written Exam Answer Key Rev j.doc

Documents

SONGS NRC Written Examination · All four CPCs will indicate failed sensors. The associated CPCs will . NOT trip. D. All four CPCs will indicate failed sensors. All four CPCs will