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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. Sequence of taxonomic categories is (a) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus – Species (b) Division – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus – Species (c) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus – Species (d) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family – Genus – Species 2. ICBN stands for (a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (b) International congress of Biological Names (c) Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature (d) Indian Congress of Biological Names. 3. African sleeping sickness is due to (a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by Tse tse fly (b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by Bed Bug (c) Trypanosoma gambiense transmitted by Glossina palpalis (d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by Housefly. 4. Excretion in Amoeba occurs through (a) lobopodia (b) uroid portion (c) plasma membrane (d) contractile vacuole 5. In fungi stored food material is (a) glycogen (b) starch (c) sucrose (d) glucose 6. All of the following statements concerning the Actinomycetes filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are correct except that Frankia: (a) Can induce root nodules on many plant species

(b) Cannot fix nitrogen in the free-living state. (c) Forms specialized vesicles in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier involving triterpene hopanoids (d) Like Rhizobium, it usually infects its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell proliferation in the host’s cortex 7. The gametophyte is not an independent, free living generation in: (a) Polytrichum (b) Adiantum (c) Marchantia (d) Pinus 8. A plant in which sporophytic generation is represented by zygote (a) Pinus (b) Selaginella (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Dryopteris 9. Bryophytes can be separated from algae because they (a) are thalloid forms (b) have no conducting tissue (c) possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile cells (d) contain chloroplasts in their cells 10. Conifers differ from grasses in the (a) lack of xylem tracheids (b) absence of pollen tubes (c) formation of endosperm before fertilization (d) production of seeds from ovules 11. Organ Pipe Coral is (a) Tubipora (b) Astraea (c) Helipora (d) Fungia 12. Penguin occurs in (a) Australia (b) Antarctica (c) Africa (d) America 13. A larval stage occurs in the life history of all members of the group (a) frog, lizard and cockroach (b) ascaris, housefly and frog (c) housefly, earthworm and mosquito

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(d) butterfly, frog and mosquito 14. In desert grasslands which type of animals are relatively more abundant? (a) Arboreal (b) Aquatic (c) Fussorial (d) Diurnal 15. Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics? (a) Arthropoda - Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by tracheae (b) Chordata - Notochord at some stage and separate anal and urinary openings to the outside (c) Echinodermata - Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization (d) Mollusca - Normally oviparous and development through a trochophore or veliger larva 16. Mango juice is got from (a) epicarp (b) mesocarp (c) endocarp (d) pericarp and thalamus 17. Angiosperm to which the largest flowers belong is? (a) total stem parasite (b) partial stem parasite (c) total root parasite (d) partial root parasite 18. Whorled, simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in (a) Calotropis (b) Neem (c) China rose (d) Alstonia 19. Collenchyma occurs in (a) herbaceous climbers (b) woody climbers (c) climbing stems (d) water plants

20. Which of the following statements is true? (a) Vessels are multicellular with narrow lumen (b) Tracheids are multicellular with narrow lumen (c) Vessels are unicellular with wide lumen (d) Tracheids are unicellular with wide lumen 21. The common bottle cork is a product of: (a) Dermatogen (b) Phellogen (c) Xylem (d) Vascular Cambium 22. The polysaccharide present in the matrix of cartilage is known as (a) cartilagin (b) ossein (c) chondriotin (d) casein 23. The type of muscles present in our: (a) heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles (b) intestine are striated and involuntary (c) thigh are striated and voluntary (d) upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape 24. Glycogen is a polymer of (a) galactose (b) glucose (c) fructose (d) sucrose 25. Ribosomes are produced in (a) nucleolus (b) cytoplasm (c) mitochondria (d) golgi body 26. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in: (a) chloroplast (b) mitochondria (c) chromoplast

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(d) ribosomes 27. Which is distributed more widely in a cell? (a) DNA (b) RNA (c) Chloroplasts (d) Sphaerosomes 28. Most abundant organic compound on earth is (a) Protein (b) Cellulose (c) Lipids (d) Steroids 29. Mitotic anaphase differs from metaphase in possessing (a) same number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids (b) half number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids (c) half number of chromosomes and same number of chromatids (d) same number of chromosomes and half number of chromatids 30. Identify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres? (a) Metaphase I (b) Metaphase II (c) Anaphase I (d) Anaphase II 31. Plants die from prolonged water-logging because (a) soil nutrients become very dilute (b) root respiration stops (c) cell sap in the plants becomes too dilute (d) nutrients leach down due to excess water 32. Which one of the following is not an essential element for plants? (a) Potassium (b) Iron (c) Iodine (d) Zinc 33. Which one of the following is not an essential mineral element for plants while the remaining three are? (a) Iron (b) Manganese (c) Cadmium

(d) Phosphorus 34. Chlorophyll a occurs in (a) all photosynthetic autotrophs (b) in all higher plants (c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs (d) all plants except fungi 35. Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis? (a) Chlorophyll (b) Water molecule (c) O2 (d) RuBP 36. Pigment-containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are: (a) Basal bodies (b) Pneumatophores (c) Chromatophores (d) Heterocysts 37. Fermentation is anaerobic production of (a) protein and acetic acid (b) alcohol, lactic acid or similar compounds (c) ethers and acetones (d) alcohol and lipoproteins 38. Which one increases in the absence of light? (a) Uptake of minerals (b) Uptake of water (c) Elongation of internodes (d) Ascent of sap 39. If a tree, flowers thrice in a year (Oct., Jan. and July) in Northern India, it is said to be (a) photosensitive but thermoinsensitive (b) thermosensitive but photoinsensitive (c) photo and thermosensitive (d) photo and thermoinsensitive 40. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of: (a) gibberellin (b) phytochrome (c) cytokinins (d) auxin 41. The haemorrhagic disease of new born is caused due to the deficiency of (a) vitamin A (b) vitamin B1

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(c) vitamin B12 (d) vitamin K 42. The richest sources of vitamin B12 are (a) Goat’s liver and Spirulina (b) Chocolate and green gram (c) Rice and hen’s egg (d) Carrot and chicken’s breast 43. Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because (a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes (b) blood buffers play an important role in CO2 transport. (c) it combines with water to form which is neutralized by NaCO3 (d) it is continuously diffused through tissues and is not allowed to accumulate 44. A vein possesses a large lumen because (a) tunica media and tunica externa form a single coat (b) tunica interna and tunica media form a single coat (c) tunica interna, tunica media and tunica externa are thin (d) tunica media is a thin coat 45. What is correct for blood group ‘O’? (a) No antigens but both a and b antibodies are present (b) A antigen and b antibody (c) Antigen and antibody both absent (d) A and B antigens and a, b antibodies 46. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding blood pressure? (a) 130/90 mmHg is considered high and requires treatment (b) 100/55 mmHg is considered an ideal blood pressure (c) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active (d) 90/110 mmHg may harm vital organs like brain and kidney 47. The net pressure gradient that causes the fluid to filter out of the glomeruli into the capsule is: (a) 50 mm Hg (b) 75 mm Hg (c) 20 mm Hg (d) 30 mm Hg 48. The lower jaw in mammals is made up of (a) Mandible

(b) Dentary (c) Maxilla (d) Angulars 49. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from (a) effector organs to CNS (b) receptors to CNS (c) CNS to receptors (d) CNS to muscles 50. Which of the following is an example of negative feedback loop in humans? (a) Secretion of tears after falling of sand particles into the eye. (b) Salivation of mouth at the sight of delicious food (c) Secretion of sweat glands and constriction of skin blood vessels when it is too hot (d) Constriction of skin blood vessels and contraction of skeletal muscles when it is too cold 51. Which of the following endocrine gland stores its secretion in the extracellular space before discharging it into the blood? (a) Pancreas (b) Adrenal (c) Testis (d) Thyroid 52. Parkinson’s disease (characterized by tremors and progressive rigidity of limbs) is caused by degeneration of brain neurons that are involved in movement control and make use of neurotransmitter (a) acetylcholine (b) norepinephrine (c) dopamine (d) GABA 53. Meroblastic cleavage is division (a) horizontal (b) partial/parietal (c) total (d) spiral 54. Generative cell was destroyed by laser but a normal pollen tube was still formed because (a) vegetative cell is not damaged (b) contents of killed generative cell stimulate pollen growth (c) laser beam stimulates growth of pollen tube (d) the region of emergence of pollen tube is not harmed

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55. How many pollen grains will be formed after meiotic division in ten microspore mother cells? (a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80 56. An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is: (a) Cuticle (b) Sporopollenin (c) Lignin (d) Cellulose 57. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of (a) combination of FSH and LH (b) c o m b i n a t i o n o f e s t r o g e n a n d progesterone (c) FSH only (d) LH only 58. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called (a) luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days (b) follicular phase lasting for about 6 days (c) luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days (d) follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days 59. In a genetic cross having recessive epistasis, F2 phenotypic ratio would be (a) 9: 6: 1 (b) 15: 1 (c) 9: 3: 4 (d) 12: 3: 1 60. Mendel studied inheritance of seven pairs of traits in Pea which can have 21 possible combinations. If you are told that in one of these combinations, independent assortment is not observed in later studies, your reaction will be (a) Independent assortment principle may be wrong (b) Mendel might not have studied all the combinations (c) It is impossible (d) Later studies may be wrong 61. A fruit fly is heterozygous for sex-linked genes. When mated with a normal female fruit fly, the male-specific chromosome will enter egg cells in the proportion of

(a) 1: 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 3: 1 (d) 7: 1 62. Extranuclear inheritance occurs in (a) peroxisome and ribosome (b) chloroplast and mitochondria (c) mitochondria and ribosome (d) chloroplast and lysosome 63. After a mutation at a genetic locus the character of an organism changes due to the change in (a) protein structure (b) DNA replication (c) protein synthesis pattern (d) RNA transcription pattern 64. The genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by: (a) test cross (b) dihybrid cross (c) pedigree analysis (d) back cross 65. Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons of (a) serine and isoleucine (b) cysteine and valine (c) tyrosine and tryptophan (d) phenylalanine and methionine 66. Different mutations referrable to the same locus of a chromosome give rise to (a) multiple alleles (b) pseudoalleles (c) polygenes (d) oncogenes 67. What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to UAA? (a) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed (b) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed (c) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed (d) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed 68. Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called: (a) tailing (b) transformation (c) capping

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(d) splicing 69. The first organisms were (a) Chemoautotrophs (b) Chemoheterotrophs (c) Autotrophs (d) Eucaryotes 70. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) Cro-Magnon man's fossil has been found in Ethiopia (b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man (c) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens (d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man 71. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that (a) fishes were amphibious in the past (b) fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors (c) frogs will have gills in future (d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors 72. Darwinism finches are an excellent example of (a) adaptive radiation (b) seasonal migration (c) brood parasitism (d) connecting links 73. The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtained from (a) Atropa (b) Papaver (c) Curcuma (d) Sarpgandha 74. L. S. D. is (a) hallucinogenic (b) sedative (c) stimulant (d) tranquiliser 75. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite? (a) Saliva of infected female Anopheles mosquito (b) Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from malaria (c) Spleen of infected humans (d) Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito 76. Pasteurization of milk involve heating for

(a) 60 minutes at about 90ºC (b) 30 minutes at about 50ºC (c) 30 minutes at about 65ºC (d) 60 minutes at 100ºC 77. The most likely reason for the development of resistance against pesticides in insects damaging a crop is (a) random mutations (b) genetic recombination (c) directed mutations (d) acquired heritable chages 78. Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching (a) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells (b) Vector DNA -Site for t-RNA synthesis. (c) Micropropagation - in vitro production of plants in large numbers. (d) Callus - Unorganised mass of cell produced in tissue culture 79. Yeast is used in the production of (a) Citric acid and lactic acid (b) Lipase and pectinase (c) Bread and beer (d) Cheese and butter 80. Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA? (a) 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3' - CTTAAG - 5' (b) 5' - CCAATG - 3' 3' - GAATCC - 5' (c) 5' - CATTAG - 3' 3' - GATAAC - 5' (d) 5' - GATACC - 3' 3' - CCTAAG - 5' 81. The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating (a) chicken pox (b) diabetes mellitus (c) rheumatoid arthritis (d) adenosine deaminase deficiency 82. Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia and Capparis represent examples of tropical (a) thorn forests (b) deciduous forests (c) evergreen forests (d) grasslands 83. A sedentary sea anemone gets attached to the shell lining of hermit crab. The association is: (a) Symbiosis

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(b) Commensalism (c) Amensalism (d) Ectoparasitism 84. Which of the following ecosystems has highest rate of gross primary production? (a) Grasslands (b) Mangroves (c) Coral reefs (d) Equatorial rain forest 85. Both, hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to: (a) medium water conditions (b) xeric conditions (c) highly dry conditions (d) excessive wet conditions 86. National Park associated with Rhinoceros is (a) Kaziranga (b) Ranthambore (c) Corbett (d) Valley of Flowers 87. Quercus species are the dominant component in (a) Temperate deciduous forests (b) Alpine forests (c) Scrub forests (d) Tropical rain forests 88. Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at level (a) Above 30 dB (b) Above 80 dB (c) Above 100 dB (d) Above 120 dB 89. Recently Govt. of India has allowed mixing of alcohol in petrol. What is the amount of alcohol permitted for mixing in petrol? (a) 2.5% (b) 10 – 15% (c) 10% (d) 5% 90. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a (a) physical process (b) mechanical process (c) chemical process (d) biological process

Chemistry 1.

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 2. In an experiment it showed that 92 mLof 2.25 Msolution of chloride required 2 mLof 2.9 Msolution of AgNO3, which of the following will be the formula of the chloride (Xstands for the symbol of the element other than chlorine): (a) X2Cl (b) X2Cl2 (c) XCl2 (d) XCl4 3. The following quantum numbers are possible for how many orbital n = 3, l = 0, m = +0? (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4 4.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 5. Amongst the elements with following electronic configurations, which one of them may have the highest ionization energy? (a) Ne [3s23p2] (b) Ar [3d10

4s24p3] (c) Ne [3s23p1] (d) Ne [3s23p3]

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6. Which of the following pairs will form the most stable ionic bond? (a) Na and Cl (b) Mg and F (c) Li and F (d) Na and F 7.

(a) Electron density on Xwill increase and on Hwill decrease (b) In both electron density will decrease (c) In both electron density will increase (d) Electron density will decrease on Xand will increase on H 8. Considering the state of hybridization of carbon atoms, find out the molecule among the following which is linear?

(a) (b) (c)

(d) 9. Select one correct statement. In the gas equation, PV= nRT (a) n is the number of molecules of a gas (b) Vdenotes volume of one mole of the gas (c) n moles of the gas have a volume V (d) Pis the pressure of the gas when only one mole of gas is present. 10. Dipole-induced dipole interactions are present in which of the following pairs: (a) Cl2 and CCl4 (b) HCl and He atoms (c) SiF4 and He atoms (d) H2O and alcohol 11. Unit of entropy is (a) JK–1 mol–1 (b) Jmol–1 (c) J–1 K–1 mol–1 (d) JKmol–1 12.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 13.

(a) NH4+ (b) NH3 (c) NH2 (d) NH 14.

(a) 1/16 (b) 1/64 (c) 16 (d) 1/8 15. Which of the following involves a redox reaction? (a) Reaction of H2 SO4 with NaOH (b) Production of ozone from oxygen in the atmosphere by lightning (c) Production of nitrogen oxides from nitrogen and oxygen in the atmosphere by lightning (d) Evaporation of water 16. All the following substances react with water. The pair that gives the same gaseous product is (a) K and KO2 (b) Na and Na2O2 (c) Ca and CaH2 (d) Ba and BaO2 17. Glass is a

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(a) Liquid (b) Solid (c) Supercooled liquid (d) Transparent organic polymer 18. A straight chain hydrocarbon has the molecular formula C8H10. The hybridization of the carbon atoms from one end of the chain to the other are respectively sp3, sp2, sp2, sp3, sp2, sp2, sp and sp. The structural formula of the hydrocarbon would be: (a) CH3=CCH2 – CH= CHCH= CH2 (b) CH3CH2 – CH= CHCH= CHC=CH (c) CH3CH= CHCH2 – C=CCH= CH2 (d) CH3CH= CHCH2 – CH= CH= C=CH. 19. Which one of the following compounds will be most easily attacked by an electrophile?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

20. Which one of the following compounds is most acidic? (a) Cl–CH2 –CH2 –OH (b) (c) (d)

21. Structure of the compound whose IUPACname is 3-ethyl-2-hydroxy-4-methylhex-3-en-5-ynoic acid is: (a) OHCOOH (b) OHCOOH (c) COOHOH (d) COOHOH 22. Reaction of HBr with propene in the presence of peroxide gives (a) isopropyl bromide (b) 3-bromo propane (c) allyl bromide (d) n-propyl bromide 23. In graphite electrons are: (a) localised on each carbon atom (b) spread out between the sheets (c) localised on every third carbon atom (d) present in antibonding orbital. 24. Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close-packed (c.c.p). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal Aand the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is: (a) ABO2 (b) A2BO2 (c) A2B3O4 (d) AB2O2 25. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is: (a) 0.009 (b) 0.018 (c) 0.027 (d) 0.036 26.

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(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 27. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Yand Zare – 1.2 V, + 0.5 Vand – 3.0 V, respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be: (a) Y> Z> X (b) X> Y> Z (c) Z> X> Y (d) X> Y> Z 28. The rate of a first order reaction is 1.5 × 10–2 mol L–1 min–1 at 0.5 Mconcentration of the reactant. The half life of the reaction is (a) 0.383 min (b) 23.1 min (c) 8.73 min (d) 7.53 min 29. Hardy-Schulze rule explains the effect of electrolytes on the coagulation of colloidal solution. According to this rule, coagulation power of cations follow the order (a) Ba+2 > Na+ > Al+3 (b) Al+3 > Na+ > Ba+2 (c) Al+3 > Ba+2 > Na+ (d) Ba+2 > Al+3 > Na+ 30. Which one of the following compounds does not exist? (a) NCl5 (b) AsF5 (c) SbCl5 (d) PF5 31. Which one of the following oxides of chlorine is obtained by passing dry chlorine over silver chlorate at 90°C? (a) Cl O2 (b) ClO3 (c) ClO2 (d) ClO4 32. Which one of the following compounds is a peroxide? (a) KO2 (b) BaO2 (c) MnO2

(d) NO2 33. Among the lanthanides the one obtained by synthetic method is (a) Lu (b) Pm (c) Pr (d) Gd 34. Which of the following oxidation states are the most characteristic for lead and tin respectively? (a) +2, +4 (b) +4, +4 (c) +2, +2 (d) +4, +2 35. Which of the following statements is correct? (Atomic number of Ni = 28) (a) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and [NiCl4] 2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are paramagnetic (b) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2– is paramagnetic (c) Ni(CO)4 and [NiCl4]2– are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4]2– is paramagnetic (d) [NiCl4]2– and [Ni(CN)4]2– are diamagnetic and Ni(CO)4 is paramagnetic 36. [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl3 (at no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 B. M. The correct distribution of 3d electrons in the Chromium of the complex is (a) 3d xy1, (3dx2 –y2) 1, 3dyz1 (b) 3d xy1, 3dyz1, 3dxz1 (c) 3dxy1, 3dyz1, 3dz2 (d) (3dx2 – y2) 1 , 3dz2, 3dxz1 37. When chlorine is passed through propene at 400°C, which of the following is formed ? (a) PVC (b) Allyl chloride (c) Nikyl chloride (d) 1, 2-Dichloroethane 38. What is formed when a primary alcohol undergoes catalytic dehydrogenation? (a) Aldehyde (b) Ketone (c) Alkene (d) Acid 39.

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(a) phorone (b) formose (c) diacetone alcohol (d) mesityl oxide. 40. During reduction of aldehydes with hydrazine and potassium hydroxide, the first is the formation of:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 41.

(a) III> II> I (b) II> I> III (c) I> III> II (d) I> II> III 42. Aniline when diazotized in cold and when treated with dimethyl aniline gives a coloured product. Its structure would be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

43. The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metabolism of a molecule of palmitic acid is (a) 130 (b) 36 (c) 56 (d) 86 44. RNAand DNAare chiral molecules, their chirality is due to (a) chiral bases (b) chiral phosphate ester units (c) D-sugar component (d) L-sugar component. 45. Structures of some common polymers are given. Which one is not correctly presented?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Physics 1. In a particular system, the unit of length, mass and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1 s respectively. The unit of force in this system will be equivalent to (a) 0.1 N (b) 1 N (c) 10 N (d) 100 N 2. A car covers the first half of the distance between two places at 40 km/h and other half at 60 km/h. The average speed of the car is (a) 40 km/h (b) 48 km/h (c) 50 km/h (d) 60 km/h 3. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration 4/3ms-2 , in the third second is:

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(a) 6 m (b) 4 m (c) 10/3 m (d) 19/3 m 4. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? (a) speed (b) velocity (c) torque (d) displacement 5.

(a) BA2 sinΘ (b) BA2 cosΘ (c) BA2 sinΘcosΘ (d) zero 6. Consider a car moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed of 72 km/h. If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the road is 0.5, the shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is (taking g = 10 m/s2) (a) 30 m (b) 40 m (c) 72 m (d) 20 m 7. A person of mass 60 kg is inside a lift of mass 940 kg and presses the button on control panel. The lift starts moving upwards with an acceleration 1.0 m/s2. If g = 10 ms–2, the tension in the supporting cable is (a) 8600 N (b) 9680 N (c) 11000 N (d) 1200 N 8. A force of 250 Nis required to lift a 75 kg mass through a pulley system. In order to lift the mass through 3 m, the rope has to be pulled through 12m. The efficiency of system is (a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 33% (d) 90% 9. An explosion breaks a rock into three parts in a horizontal plane. Two of them go off at right angles to each other. The first part of mass 1 kg moves with a

speed of 12 ms–1 and the second part of mass 2 kg moves with speed 8 ms–1. If the third part flies off with speed 4 ms–1 then its mass is (a) 5 kg (b) 7 kg (c) 17 kg (d) 3 kg 10. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with a constant angular velocity ω. Two objects each of mass m are attached gently to the opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring will now rotate with an angular velocity (a) ω(M–2m)/(M+2m) (b) ωM/(M+2m) (c) ω (M+2m)/M (d) ω M/(M+m) 11.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 12. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit around the sun. If T, V, E and L stand respectively for its kinetic energy, gravitational potential energy, total energy and magnitude of angular momentum about the centre of force, which of the following is correct? (a) T is conserved

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(b) V is always positive (c) E is always negative (d) L is conserved but direction of vector L changes continuously 13.

(a) t1 = 4t2 (b) t1 = 2t2 (c) t1 = t2 (d) t1> t2 14. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The water temperature is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140°. What is the fall in temperature as registered by the Centigrade thermometer? (a) 80° (b) 60° (c) 40° (d) 30° 15. A cylindrical metallic rod in therrnal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Qin time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs in time t? (a) Q/4 (b) Q/16 (c) 2 Q (d) Q/2 16. The temperature of source and sink of a heat engine are 127°C and 27°C respectively. An inventor claims its efficiency to be 26%, then: (a) it is impossible (b) it is possible with high probability

(c) it is possible with low probability (d) data are insufficient. 17. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heats is given to be γ= 1.5. For this gas (a) CV= 3R/J (b) CP= 3R/J (c) CP= 5R/J (d) CV= 5R/J 18.

(a) a straight line (b) a circle (c) an ellipse (d) a parabola 19.

(a) 10.0 cm (b) any value less than 12.0 cm (c) 4.0 cm (d) 8.0 cm

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20. A standing wave is represented by y = Asin (100t) cos (0.01x), where y and A are in millimetre, t in seconds and x is in metre. Velocity of wave is (a) 104 m/s (b) 1 m/s (c) 10–4 m/s (d) not derivable from above data 21. A string of 7 m length has a mass of0.035 kg. If tension in the string is 60.5 N, then speed of a wave on the string is (a) 77 m/s (b) 102 m/s (c) 110 m/s (d) 165 m/s 22. The length of the wire between two ends of a sonometer is 100 cm. What should be the positions of two bridges below the wire so that the three segments of the wire have their fundamental frequencies in the ratio of 1: 3: 5? (a) 1500/23 cm, 2000/23 cm (b) 1500/23 cm, 500/23 cm (c) 1500/23 cm, 300/23 cm (d) 300/23 cm, 1500/23 cm 23.

(a) EL2 (b) EL2 cos θ (c) EL2 sin θ (d) zero 24.

(a) 8q1 (b) 6q1 (c) 8q2 (d) 6q2 25. The velocity of charge carriers of current (about 1 amp) in a metal under normal conditions is of the order of (a) a fraction of mm/sec (b) velocity of light (c) several thousand metres/second

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(d) a few hundred metres per second 26. If 25W, 220 V and 100 W, 220 V bulbs are connected in series across a 440 V line, then (a) only 25 W bulb will fuse (b) only 100 W bulb will fuse (c) both bulbs will fuse (d) none of these 27. The resistance of an ammeter is 93 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 amps. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 amperes by this meter. The value of shunt-resistance is (a) 0Ω (b) 2.0Ω (c) 0kΩ (d) 02Ω 28.

(a) 0.117 V (b) 0.00145 V (c) 0.0145 V (d) 1.7 × 10–6 V 29. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of the coil, M is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 30. What is the self-inductance of a coil which produces 5Vwhen the current changes from 3 ampere to 2 ampere in one millisecond? (a) 5000 henry (b) 5 milli-henry (c) 50 henry (d) 5 henry 31. The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an A.C. supply of 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of (a) 2 V, 5 Hz (b) 200 V, 500 Hz (c) 2V, 50 Hz (d) 200 V, 50 Hz 32. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which is best suited to observe a particle of radius 3 × 10–4 cm is of the order of (a) 1015 (b) 1014 (c) 1013 (d) 1012 33. A beam of monochromatic light is refracted from vacuum into a medium of refractive index 1.5, the wavelength of refracted light will be (a) dependent on intensity of refracted light (b) same (c) smaller (d) larger 34. The refractive index of the material of a prism is root2 and its refracting angle is 30°. One of the refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards. Abeam of monochromatic light enters the prism from the mirrored surface if its angle of incidence of the prism is (a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 0° 35. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue and with green light of wavelengths 4360Åand 5460Årespectively. If x is the distance of 4th maxima from the central one, then (a) x (blue) = x (green)

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(b) x (blue) > x (green) (c) x (blue) < x (green) (d) x(blue)/x(green)=5460/3260 36. When light of wavelength 300 nm (nanometer) falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons are liberated. For another emitter, however, light of 600 nm wavelength is sufficient for creating photoemission. What is the ratio of the work functions of the two emitters? (a) 1: 2 (b) 2: 1 (c) 4: 1 (d) 1: 4 37. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 × 10–3 Z. The number of photons emitted, on the average, by the sources per second is (a) 5 × l016 (b) 5 × 1017 (c) 5 × 1014 (d) 5 × 1015 38. The ground state energy of H-atom 13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize H-atom from its second excited state. (a) 1.51 eV (b) 3.4 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 12.1 eV 39. An alpha nucleus of energy 1/2 mv2 bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to (a) 1/ Ze (b) v2 (c) 1/ m (d) 1 /v4 40. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass number A as (a) A2 (b) A (c) constant (d) 1/A 41. A sample has 4 × 1016 radioactive nuclei of half life 10 days. The number of atoms decaying in 30 days is (a) 3.9 × 1016 (b) 5 × 1015

(c) 1016 (d) 3.5 × 1016 42. The binding energy per nucleon in deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeVand 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy released in the fusion is: (a) 30.2 MeV (b) 23.6 MeV (c) 2.2 MeV (d) 28.0 MeV 43. Diamond is very hard because (a) it is a covalent solid (b) it has large cohesive energy (c) high melting point (d) insoluble in all solvents 44. For a common emitter circuit if0.98 CEIIthen current gain for common emitter circuit will be (a) 49 (b) 98 (c) 4.9 (d) 25.5 45. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0 eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the material is nearly (a) 10 × 1014 Hz (b) 5 ×1014 Hz (c) 1 × 1014 Hz (d) 20 × 1014 Hz 1. c 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. d 19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. c 33. c 34. c 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. c 39. d 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. a 49. b 50. d 51. d 52. c 53. b 54. a 55. c 56. b 57. b 58. c 59. c 60. b 61. a 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. b 68. d 69. b 70. b 71. d 72. a 73. d 74. a 75. a 76. c 77. a 78. b 79. c 80. b 81. d 82. a 83. b 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. b 89. d 90. d 1. c 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. d 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. c 30. a 31. c 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. a 41. d 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. a 1. a 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. b 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. b 14. c 15. b 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. a 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. b 31. d 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. b