Mock Test 1

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    Mock Test -1GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

    All questions carry one mark each. Since all questions are compulsory do not try to read through the

    whole question paper before beginning to answer it. Beginwiththefirstquestionandkeepontryingonequestionafteranothertillyoufinish.

    If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the next one. Time permitting you can comebacktothequestionswhichyouhaveleftinthefirstinstanceand try them again.

    Since the time allotted is very short you should makes best use of it.

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    PART I

    MAT (Mental Ability Test)Directions (1 to 5): Find the missing term?

    1. 1, 2, 3, 6, 12, ?(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 36 (d) 48

    2. 240, ?, 120, 40, 10, 2(a) 120 (b) 240 (c) 40 (d) 10

    3. a _bc_a_a_(a) bccb (b) cbcc (c) bbca (d) cbbc

    4. HI, JI, KL, ML, NO, ? (a) PO (b) PQ (c) OP (d) QO

    5. CBA, FED, IHG, LKJ, ?(a) NOM (b) MON (c) ONM (d) NMO

    6. If TEMPLE is coded as VHQURL, then CHURCH will be coded as:(a) EKYWIO (b) EKUWIO (c) EKYWIN (d) EKYWJO

    7. If AJAY is written as 8882, then in same code NAMA would be written as:(a) 4858 (b) 5848 (c) 4448 (d) 8258

    Directions (8 to 13): Read the following information carefully and answer the question given below:

    i. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in two rows, three in each. ii. T is not at the end of any row. iii. S is second to the left of U. iv. R who is the neighbor of T, is sitting diagonally opposite to S. v. Q is the neighbour of U.

    8. Which of the following are sitting diagonally opposite to each other.(a) U and R (b) S and P (c) P and R (d) P and U

    9. Who is facing Q? (a) P (b) R (c) T (d) S

    10. Which of the following are in one row?(a) UQR (b) RTQ (c) SQU (d) PTU

    11. Which of the following are in the same row?(a) P and T (b) T and S (c) R and Q (d) P and Q

    12. Who is facing R?(a) P (b) S (c) Q (d) U

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    13. After interchanging the seat S with T, who will be the neighbour of S in the new position?(a) R and P (b) U and Q (c) Only Q (d) Only R

    14. If Rain is called Water , Water is called Road; Road is called Cloud; Cloud is called Sky; Sky is called Sea and Sea is called Path, then wheredoaeroplanesfly?(a) Road (b) Sea (c) Cloud (d) Water

    15. Ramakant walks northwards. After a while, he turns to his right and a little further to his left. Finally, after walking a distance of one kilometer, he turns to his lefts again. In which direction is he moving now?(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West

    16. Starting from a point P, Sachin walked 20 meters towards South. He turned left and walked 30 meters. He then turned left and walked 20 meters. He again turned left and walked 40 meters and reached a point Q. How far and in which direction is the point Q from the point P?(a) 20 meters West (b) 10 meters East(c) 10 meters West (d) 10 meters North

    17. If West becomes North-East, North-West becomes East and so on, then what will South become?(a) North-West (b) South-West(c) West (d) East

    18. If 323 41 = 14323, 137 72 = 27731, 48 87 = 7884, then 34 75 = ?(a) 2550 (b) 5743 (c) 7534 (d) 4357

    19. If a = 11 (242) 121, b = 14 (392) 196, c = 13 (?) 169(a) 182 (b) 338 (c) 458 (d) 368

    20. If + means , means , means + and means , then175 25 5 + 20 3 + 10 = ?(a) 160 (b) 77 (c) 2370 (d) 240

    Directions (21 to 23):Findthemissingtermintermonthegivenfigures:

    17 11 1912 13 16

    25 4 ?

    21.

    (a) 36 (b) 9 (c) 25 (d) 64

    22.

    (a) 14 (b) 18 (c) 11 (d) 13

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    23.

    (a) 112 (b) 92 (c) 82 (d) 102 24. If a clock shows 12 : 37, then its mirror image will be?

    (a) 11 : 37 (b) 11 : 23 (c) 01 : 23 (d) 21 : 23 25. Monika is 20 weeks elder than Priyanka and Priyanka is 63 days younger than

    Jyoti. If Jyoti was born on Sunday then on what day of a week Monika was born?(a) Saturday (b) Sunday (c) Monday (d) None

    26. What is related to Cube in the same way as Circle is related to Square?(a) Circumference (b) Sphere (c) Solid (d) Cuboid

    27. Height is related to Length in the same way as Weight is related to __________.(a) Length (b) Height (c) Mass (d) Breadth

    28. Letter is related to Alphabet in the same way as Necklace is related to _______.(a) Gold (b) Bead (c) Ornament (d) Silver

    Directions (29 to 31): Choose the odd number/word which is different from others:

    29. (a) 31 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 61 30. (a) 16 (b) 27 (c) 52 (d) 83 31. (a) GT7 (b) IR9 (c) CX3 (d) JP10

    Directions (32 to 36): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

    i. P, Q, R, S, T and U are six members of a family, each of them engaged in a different profession: Doctor, Lawyer, Teacher, Engineer, Nurse, Manager.

    ii. Each of them remains at home on a different day of the week from Monday to Saturday.

    iii. The Lawyer in the family remains at home on Thursday. iv. R remains at home on Tuesday. v. P, the Doctor, does not remain at home either on Saturday or on Wednesday. vi. S is neither the Doctor nor the Teacher and remains at home on Friday. vii. Q is the Engineer and T is the Manager.

    32. Which of the following combinations is not correct?(a) RTeacher (b) QEngineer(c) TManager (d) All are correct

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    33. Which of the following combinations is correct?(a) LawyerTuesday (b) TeacherWednesday(c) ManagerFriday (d) NurseFriday

    34. Who is the nurse?(a) S (b) R (c) U (d) Data inadequate

    35. Who among them remains at home on the following day after the nurse was at home? (a) Q (b) Q or T (c) R (d) S

    36. Who remains at home on Saturday?(a) S (b) T (c) R (d) Date inadequate

    Direction (37):Outofthefourgivenfigures,threearesimilarinacertainway.Onefigure isnot like theother three.Thatmeans threefigures formagroupbased on some common characteristics. Find out the figure which does notbelong to the group.

    37.

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Direction (38):Thesecondfigureinthefirstpartoftheproblemfiguresbearsacertainrelationshiptothefirstfigure.Similarlyoneofthefiguresinanswerfigures bears the same relationship to the first figure from the set of answerfigureswhichwouldreplacethesignofquestionmark(?)

    38. Problem Figures

    Answer Figures

    (a) (b) (c) (d)Direction (39): Find the mirror image of the following

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    39.

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    Direction (40): Find the water image of the following.

    40.

    (a) (b)

    (c) (d)

    Directions (41 to 42): In each of the following questions, some positions of the samedicehavebeenshown.Youhavetoseethesefiguresandselectthenumberopposite to the number as asked in each question.

    41.

    What is the number of dots on the face opposite to the face that contains 2 dots?(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6

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    42.

    Which number will come in place of ?

    (a) 1 (b) 6 (c) 3 (d) 5

    43. Howmanyrectanglesdoesthefigurehave?

    (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14

    Directions (44 to 46): In the following questions numbers are written with a specificrule.Findouttheruleanddecidewhichalternativewillbeinplaceofquestion mark?

    44.

    (a) 45 (b) 49 (c) 63 (d) 67

    45.

    (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 9

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    46.

    (a) 36 (b) 44 (c) 48 (d) 50

    Directions (47 to 50): Inthegivenfigure,SquarerepresentsstudentsofVIIIStandard of a school in Pune. Circle represents students taking part in debate competition. Rectangle represents girls and triangle represents students taking part in Mehandi competition. Then answer the following questions:

    47. How many boys are there who are taking part in Mehandi competition but not in VIII Standard?(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 1 (d) 11

    48. How many students are from VIII standard who are taking part only in debate competition?(a) 12 (b) 13 (c) 9 (d) 8

    49. How many girls are there, who are not in VIII standard?(a) 12 (b) 15 (c) 45 (d) 152

    50. How many girls are in VIII standard who are not taking part in debate competition?(a) 20 (b) 12 (c) 25 (d) 32

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    PART II

    SAT (English)Directions (1 to 5): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

    There was a marked difference of quality between the personages who haunted near bridge of brick and the personages who haunted the far one of stone. Those of lowest character preferred the former, adjoining the town; they did not mind the glare of the public eye. They had been of no account during their successes; and though they might feel dispirited, they had no sense of shame in their ruin. Instead of sighing at their adversaries they spat, and instead of saying the iron had entered into their souls they said they were down in their luck. The miserables who would pause on the remoter bridge of a politer stamp person who did not know how to get rid of the weary time. The eyes of his species were mostly directed over the parapet upon the running water below. While one on the town ward bridge did not mind who saw him so, and kept his back to parapet to survey the passerby, one on this never faced the road, never turned his head at coming foot-steps, but, sensitive on his own condition, watched the current whenever a stranger approached, as if somestrangefishinterestedhim,thougheveryfinnedthinghadbeenpoachedoutof the rivers years before. 1. In this passage the author is trying to

    a. explain the difference between the construction of the two bridgesb. describe the way different sections of people like to dressc. explain the variety of ways in which strangers can be treatedd. describe how people of different classes behaved when unhappy

    2. People belonging to lower strata in their moments of distressa. remembered the days of gloryb. dressed shabbily to earn sympathyc. visited the brick made bridged. felt ashamed of their failures

    3. The attitude of lowly and genteel towards strangers wasa. virtually the sameb. entirely differentc. completely indifferentd. virulently hostile

    4. The bridge of stone was frequented bya. all the sections of societyb. thosefondoffishingc. the sophisticated but lucklessd. none of the above

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    5. The two bridges were knowna. for their similar designb. for being equidistant from townc. for being haunted placesd. for attracting dejected people to them

    Directions (6 to 10): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

    Nationalism, of course, is a curious phenomenon which at a certain stage in a countrys history gives life, growth and unity but, at the same time, it has a tendency to limit one, because one thinks of ones country as something different from the rest of world. Ones perceptive changes and one is continuously thinking of ones own struggles and virtues and failing to the exclusion of other thoughts. The result is that the same nationalism which is the symbol of growth for a people becomes a symbol of the cessation of that growth in mind. Nationalism, when it becomes successful sometimes goes on spreading in an aggressive way and becomes a danger internationally. Whatever line of thought you follow, you arrive at the conclusion that some kind of balance must be found. Otherwise something that was good can turn into evil. Culture, which is essentially good, becomes not only static but aggressive andsomethingthatbreedsconflictandhatredwhenlookedatfromawrongpointofview.Howareyoufindabalance,Idontknow.Apartfromthepoliticalandeconomic problems of the age, perhaps, that is the greatest problem today because behind it there is tremendous search for something which it cannot found. We turn to economic theories because they have an undoubted importance. It is folly to talk of culture or even of God. When human beings starve and die. Before one can talk about anything else one must provide the normal essentials of life to human beings. That is where economies come in. Human beings today are not in mood to tolerate this suffering and starvation and inequality when they see that the burden is not equallyshared.Othersprofitwhiletheyonlybeartheburden.

    6. The greatest problem in the middle of the passage refers to the question.a. how to mitigate hardship to human beingsb. how to contain the dangers of aggressive nationalism.c. how to share the economic burden equallyd. how to curb international hatred

    7. Negative national feeling can make a nationa. selfish b. self-centredc. indifferent d. dangerous

    8. Suitable title for this passage can bea. Nationalism breeds unityb. Nationalisma road to world unityc. Nationalism is not enoughd. Nationalism and national problems

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    9. Others in the last sentence refers toa. other people b. other nationsc. other communities d. other neighbours

    10. Aggressive nationalisma. breeds threat to international relationsb. leads to stunted growthc. endangers national unityd. isolates a country

    Directions (11 to 15): Read the passage and answer the questions given below:

    Detective glories tend to glorify crime. Murderers, gangsters and crooks all kinds are described as tough, cunning and courageous individuals who know how to take care of themselves and how to get what they want. In James McCains The Postman Always Rings twice, for instance the villain is much more a impressive character than his victim. He is casual brave smart and successful with women. It is true that hefinallygetscaught.Butheispunishedforacrimethathedidnotcommit,sothathis conviction is hardly a triumph of justice. Besides, looking back over the exciting life of the criminal, the reader might conclude that it was worth the risk.

    11. The passage mention James McCaina. as an author of detective storiesb. as brave, smart, and successful with womenc. as tough cunning and courageousd. as being more impressive than others

    12. Murderers, gangsters and crooks referred to in the passage given abovea. always manage to get awayb. areoftenglorifiedindetectivestoriesc. are wiser than their victimsd. know how to escape from law

    13. According to this passage, a criminal in a detective story generally gets caughta. for the crimes he has committedb. because of his careless mistakesc. because the police is smarter than the criminals d. for the crimes he has not committed

    14. According to the passage, the life of a criminala. is excitingb. is hardly worth the riskc. is seldom presented in the right perspectived. ends in a triumph of justice

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    15. According to be passage given above, detective storiesa. make interesting readingb. are hardly worth readingc. encourage readers to content crimesd. tend to create wrong notion about crimes and punishment

    Directions (16 to 30): Pick out the most effective word(s) from the given words tofillintheblanktomakethesentencemeaningfullycomplete.

    16. Fate smiles ____ those who untiringly grapple with stark realities of life.a. with b. over c. on d. round

    17. The miser gazed ____ at the pile of gold coins in front of him.a. avidly b. admiringlyc. thoughtfully d. earnestly

    18. Catching the earlier train will give us the ____ to do some shopping.a. chance b. luck c. possibility d. occasion

    19. Isawa____ofcowsinthefield.a. group b. herd c. swarm d. flock

    20. The grapes are now ____ enough to be picked.a. ready b. mature c. ripe d. advanced

    21. Success in this examination depends ____ hard work alone.a. at b. over c. for d. on

    22. My uncle decided to take ____ and my sister to the market.a. I b. mine c. me d. myself

    23. If you smuggle goods into the country, they may be ____ by the customs authority.a. possessed b. punished c. confiscated d. fined

    24. Man does not live by ____ alone.a. food b. bread c. meals d. diet

    25. Piyush behaves strangely at times and, therefore, nobody gets ____ with him.a. about b. through c. along d. up

    26. Rohan and Rohit are twin brothers, but they do not look ____a. unique b. different c. likely d. alike

    27. To err is ____ to forgive divine.a. beastly b. human c. inhuman d. natural

    28. The ruling party will have to put its own house ...... order.a. in b. on c. to d. into

    29. ____ of old paintings is a job for experts.a. Resurrection b. Retrievalc. Restoration d. Resumption

    30. During Diwali the shops are ...... of people.a. busy b. full c. crowded d. bubbling

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    Directions (31 to 35): In each question below, there is a sentence of which some parts have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.

    31. When he P: did not knowQ: he was nervous and R: heard the hue and cry at midnight S: what to doThe Proper sequence should be:a. RQPS b. QSPR c. SQPR d. PQRS

    32. It has been established that P: Einstein was Q: although a great scientist R: weak in arithmetic S: right from his school daysThe Proper sequence should be:a. SRPQ b. QPRS c. QPSR d. RQPS

    33. Then P: it struck me Q: of course R: suitable it was S: how eminentlyThe Proper sequence should be:a. SPQR b. QSRP c. PSRQ d. QPSR

    34. I read an advertisement that said P: posh, air-conditioned Q: gentleman of taste R: are available for S: fully furnished roomsThe Proper sequence should be:a. PQRS b. PSRQ c. PSQR d. PSQR

    35. Since the beginning of history P: have managed to catch Q: the Eskimos and Red IndiansR:byaverydifficultymethod S: a few specimens of this aquatic animalThe Proper sequence should be:a. QRPS b. SQPR c. SQRP d. QPSR

    Directions (36 to 43): In questions below, each passage consist of six sentences. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning. The middle foursentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled as P, Q, R and S. Find out the proper order for the four sentences.

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    36. S1: In the middle of one side of the square sits the Chairman of the committee, the most important person in the room.

    P: For a committee is not just a mere collection of individuals. Q: On him rests much of the responsibility for the success or failure of the

    committee. R: While this is happening we have an opportunity to get the feel of this

    committee. S: As the meeting opens, he runs briskly through a number of formalities. S6: From the moment its members meet, it begins to have a sort nebulous life

    of its own.The Proper sequence should be:a. RSQP b. PQRS c. SQPR d. QSRP

    37. S1: A force of exists between everybody in the universe. P: Normally it is very small but when the one of the bodies is a planet, like

    earth, the force is considerable. Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton. R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth. S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earths force of attraction on it. We

    can call this force of attraction gravity.The Proper sequence should be:a. PRQS b. PRSQ c. QSRP d. QSPR

    38. S1: Calcutta unlike other cities kept its trams. P: As a result there horrendous congestion. Q:ItwasgoingtobethefirstinSouthAsia. R: They run down the centre of the road S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line. S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.The Proper sequence should be:a. PRSQ b. PSQR c. SQRP d. RPSQ

    39. S1: For some time in his youth Abraham Lincoln was manager for a shop. P: Then a chance Customer would come. Q: Young Lincoln way of keeping shop was entirely unlike anyone elses: R: Lincoln would jump up and attend to his needs and then revert to his

    reading. S: He used to lie full length on the counter of the shop eagerly reading a book.S6: Never before had Lincoln had so much time for reading as had then.The Proper sequence should be:a. SRQP b. QSPR c. SQRP d. QPSR

    40. S1: All the land was covered by the ocean. P: The leading god fought the monster, killed it and chopped its body in to

    two halves.

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    Q: A terrible monster prevented the gods from separating the land from the water.

    R: The god made the sky out of the upper part of the body and ornamented it with stars.

    S: The god created the earth from the lower part, grew plants on it and popu-lated it with animals.

    S6:Thegodmouldedthefirstpeopleoutofclayaccordingtohisownimageand mind.

    The Proper sequence should be:a. PQRS b. PQSR c. OPSR d. QPRS

    41. S1: Smoke oozed up between the planks. P: Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship. Q:Therisinggalefannedthesmoulderingfire.R:Everyonenowknewtherewasfireonboard. S: Flames broke out here and there.S6: Most people bore the shock bravely.The proper sequence should be:a. SRQP b. QPSR c. RSOQ d. QSRP

    42. S1: You know my wife, Madhavi, always urged me to give up smoking. P: I really gave it up. Q: And so When I went to jail I said to myself I really must give it up, if for

    no other reason than of being self-reliant. R: When I emerged from jail, I wanted to tell her of my great triumph S: But when I met her, there she was with a packet of cigarettes.S6: poor girl!The proper sequence should be:a. PSRQ b. SPQR c. QPRS d. RSPQ

    43. S1: When a satellite is launched, the rocket begins by going slowly upwards through the air.

    P: However, the higher it goes, the less air it meets. Q: As the rocket goes higher, it travels faster. R: For the atmosphere becomes thinner. S: As a result there is less friction. S6: Consequently, the rocket still does not become too hotThe proper sequence should be:a. QRPS b. QSPR c. PQRS d. PQSR

    Directions (44 to 48): Ineachquestionbelowasentencebrokenintofiveorsixparts. Join these parts to make a meaningful sentence. The correct order of parts is the answer.

    44. 1. I 2. immediately 3. salary 4. my 5. wanta. 43152 b. 15432 c. 25143 d. 42351

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    45. 1. do 2. today 3. you 4. must 5. Ita. 34152 b. 25413 c. 12543 d. 51324

    46. 1. left 2. the 3. house 4. He 5. Suddenlya. 12435 b. 21354 c. 45123 d. 51324

    47. 1. Medicine 2. a 3. Neela 4. Given 5. Wasa. 51423 b. 25431 c. 15423 d 35421

    48. 1. of 2. We 3. Heard 4. him 5. hada. 42351 b. 52341 c. 25341 d. 25314

    Directions (49 to 50): Read each sentence to find out whether there is anygrammatical error in it. The error, if any will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is D. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

    49. Solve as per the directions given abovea. we discussed about the problem so thoroughlyb. on the eve of the examinationc. that I found it very easy to work it out.d. no error

    50. Solve as per the directions given abovea. an Indian ship b. laden with merchandisec. gotdrownedinthePacificOcean. d. noerror

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    Part III

    Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) 1. Consider the following decimal numbers:

    (1) 1.16666666 (2) 1.181181118(3) 2.210010001 (4) 1.454545

    Which of the above numbers represent(s) rational number(s)?(a) 4 only (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) none of the above

    2. For what value of k, will the expression 3 62 2x kx x + 16+ + be divisible by

    x k2

    ?

    (a) 4 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 0

    3. How many real values of x satisfy the equation x x23

    13 2 0+ = ?

    (a) Only 1 value (b) 2 values(c) 3 values (d) No value

    4. A scooterist completes a certain journey in 10 hrs. He covers half the distance at 30 kmph and the rest at 70 kmph. What is the total distance of the journey?(a) 210 km (b) 400 km (c) 420 km (d) 500 km.

    5. 42 men take 25 days to dig a pond. If the pond would have to be dug in 14 days, then what is the number of men to be employed?(a) 67 (b) 75 (c) 81 (d) 84

    6. An amount at a certain rate of compound interest doubles itself in 4 years. In how many years will this amount become 8 times?(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 24

    7. A trader marked a watch 40% above the cost price and then gave a discount of 10%. He made a net profit of Rs. 468 after paying a tax of 10% on the gross profit. What is the cost price of the watch?(a) Rs. 1,2000 (b) Rs. 1,800(c) Rs. 2,000 (d) Rs. 2,340

    8. Consider circle C of radius 6 cm with centre at O. What is the difference in the area of the circle C and the area of the sector of circle C subtending an angle of 80o at O?(a) 26 2 cm (b) 16 2 cm

    (c) 28 2 cm (d) 30 2 cm

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    9. Triangles ABC and DEF are similar such that ABDE

    BCEF

    = The area of ABC,

    is 16 cm2 and that of DEF is 49 cm2. If BC = 2 2 cm then what is EF equal to? (a) 3.5 cm (b) (3.5) 2 cm (c) (3.5) 3 cm (d) 7.0 cm

    10. If the distance from the vertex to the centroid of an equilateral triangle is 6 cm, then what is the area of the triangle?(a) 24 cm2 (b) 27 3 2cm

    (c) 12 cm2 (d) 12 3 2cm

    11. In a ABC, AB = AC. A circle through B touches AC at D and intersects AB at P. If D is the mid-point of AC, Which one of the following is correct?(a) AB = 2AP (b) AB = 3AP(c) AB = 4AP (d) 2AB = 5AP

    12. If the diameter of a wire is decreased by 10%, by how much percent (approx.) will the length be increased to keep the volume same?(a) 5% (b) 17% (c) 23% (d) 20%

    13. The volume of cuboid whose sides are in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 4 is the same as that of a cube. What is the ratio of length of diagonal of cuboid to that of cube?

    (a) 7 1: (b) 7 2: (c) 7 3: (d) 7 4:

    14. What is the least number which when divided by 7, 9 and 12 leaves the remain-der 1 in each case?(a) 253 (b) 352 (c) 505 (d) 523

    15. A man borrowed Rs. 40000 at 8% simple interest per year. At the end of the second year he paid back certain amount and at the end of fifth year he paid back Rs. 35,960 and cleared the debt. What amount did he pay back after the second year?(a) Rs. 16,200 (b) Rs. 17,400(c) Rs. 18,000 (d) None of these

    16. Two numbers have 16 as their HCF and 146 as their LCM. How many such pair of numbers are there?(a) No such pair (b) Only 1(c) Only 2 (d) More than 2

    17. What is the angle which equals one-fifth of its supplement?(a) 15o (b) 30o (c) 36o (d) 75o

    18. What is the unit digit of the product of all prime numbers between 1 and 100?(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

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    19. Which one of the following is the factor of x xy xz x y y yz2 3 3 3 4+ + + + + ?(a) x + y + z (b) x y z2 2 2+ +(c) x y z3 3 3+ + (d) x y2 2+

    20. What is the square root of xx

    x x x5

    311

    2

    + + + ?

    (a) x x2 1+ + (b) x x2 1 +(c) x x2 1 (d) x x2 1+

    21. The displacement of the particle is proportional to first power of time. Its acceleration is(a) Infinite (b) Zero(c) Finite but small (d) Finite but large

    22. A body of mass 2 kg has initial velocity of 3 ms1 along x-axis. It is subjected to a force of 4 N in a direction perpendicular to x-axis. The displacement of the body after 4 s is given by(a) 12 m (b) 20 m (c) 28 m (d) 48 m

    23. A particle goes round a circular path of radius r with uniform speed v. After describing half the circle, the average acceleration of the particle is:

    (a) vr

    2

    (b) v

    r

    2

    (c) 2vr

    2

    (d) 2v

    r

    2

    24. In the above question 23, what is the change in its centripetal acceleration?

    (a) vr

    2

    (b) v

    r

    2 (c) 2v

    r

    2

    (d) 2v

    r

    2

    25. A jet engine works in the principle of (a) Conservation of mass(b) Conservation of linear momentum (c) Conservation of energy(d) All the above

    26. Work done by the force of friction is (a) Always positive but not unity(b) Always negative(c) Always unity(d) Always infinity

    27. A body weight 400 N at the surface of the earth. When taken at the centre of the earth, its weight will be(a) 400 N (b) 800 N (c) 4000 N (d) Zero

    28. The velocity of sound is greatest in (a) Water (b) Air (c) Vacuum (d) Metal

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    29. Which of the following lenses, would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm (c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm

    30. Linear magnification of a plane mirror is (a) Zero (b) Less than unity(c) Equal to unity (d) Greater than unity

    31. What is the equivalent resistance between A and B in the following network?

    A B1

    11

    122

    2

    (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8

    32. One-half of a convex lens is covered with a black paper. Then it will(a) Not produce any image of the object(b) Produce half image of the object(c) Produce complete image of the object(d) Produce magnified image of the object, irrespective of the position of the

    another 33. When light goes from one medium to another medium, which of the following

    physical quantities remains same?(a) Speed of light (b) Wavelength of light(c) Frequency of light (d) All the above

    34. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is (a) Non-uniform and strong (b) Uniform and strong(c) Uniform and strong (d) Non-uniform and weak

    35. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit(a) Reduced substantially (b) Increases heavily (c) Varies continuously (d) Does not change

    36. Non-metals are used in making(a) Aeroplanes (b) Machinery(c) Water boilers (d) Fertilizers

    37. Which non-metal reacts with air vigorously but not with water?(a) Sulphur (b) Phosphorous(c) Carbon (d) Nitrogen

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    38. Fe O AI AI O Fe.2 2 32 2+ + The reaction is an example of (a) Combination reaction (b) Decomposition reaction(c) Double displacement reaction (d) Displacement reaction

    39. Choose the correct option for the given metals Mercury, Iron, Sodium and Potassium:(a) Highly reactive metals(b) Low reactive metals(c) They have high melting and boiling points(d) They are all solids

    40. When sodium kept open in air, it reacts with (a) O2, CO2 and moisture (b) O2 and moisture(c) O2 and CO2 (d) O2 only

    41. Metal which does not produce their hydroxide with water is (a) Sodium (b) Zinc (c) Magnesium (d) Calcium

    42. Metal behave as a good reducing agent, because(a) They have low ionisation energy (b) They can loose electrons easily(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

    43. The valence shell in potassium is (a) K shell (b) L shell (c) M shell (d) N shell

    44. An element having electronic configuration 2, 8, 1 os more reactive than the element having electronic configuration(a) 2, 8, 2 (b) 2, 8, 3 (c) 2, 8, 4 (d) All of the above

    45. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting?(a) Applying grease (b) Applying paint(c) Applying a coating of zinc (d) All of the above

    46. To make bed sheets, Rayon is mixed with(a) Cotton (b) Acrylic (c) Polyester (d) Plastic

    47. The process which is not taking place on the principle of electrolysis is (a) Electroplating (b) Galvanisation(c) Purification of impure copper (d) Decomposition of water

    48. Air pollution can be reduced by(a) Planting more trees (b) Using less fossil fuels (c) Decomposing vegetable wastes (d) All of the above

    49. Nali, Ravi, Surti and Murrah are the Indian breeds of (a) Sheep (b) Goats (c) Buffaloes (d) Camels

    50. Bordeaux mixture, a mixture of copper sulphate and calcium hydroxide, has been used for(a) Control of diseases of poultry birds(b) Control of plant diseases caused by viruses(c) Control of malaria(d) Control of plant diseases caused by fungi

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    51. Mycorrhiza is the term referring to(a) Parasitic association of fungi with important crops(b) Symbiotic association of fungi with the roots of certain seed bearing

    plants (c) Fungi growing on plant wastes lying in the farm after harvest(d) Fungi growing on cattle feed making it poisonous

    52. Asbestos and soot are considered dangerous because they(a) Can damage the cement concrete structures leading to a gradual collapse(b) Can cause cancer of the lungs(c) Can enter the food chain leading to elimination of endangered species(d) Are poisonous compounds for the agricultural plants

    53. This gland plays a major role in the development of immune system:(a) Thymus gland (b) Pineal gland(c) Adrenal gland (d) Testes

    54. In vitro fertilization is the technique of (a) Substituting the nucleus of ovum by nucleus from a vegetative cell and

    inducing it to develop into an embryo and subsequently into an individual organism in laboratory conditions

    (b) Fertilization of ovum by sperms collected from selected male (c) Fertilization of ovum in laboratory conditions outside the female body(d) Transfer tube of another female into the fallopian tube of another female

    55. Autogamy is a kind of (a) Pollination within the same flower (b) Pollination in which pollen grains are transferred to another flower of the

    same plant (c) Pollination in which pollen grains are transferred to flower of a different

    plant (d) Pollination between two non compatible

    56. Bagging of the female flower is done to (a) Prevent the insects from visiting the flowers (b) Prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen (c) Protect the flower from being destroyed by birds(d) Prevent the flower from drying out under the hot sun

    57. Thorns are actually the modifications of (a) Stems (b) Leaves (c) Leaf bases (d) Tendrils

    58. The phototrophic response of plant towards unidirectional light is due to the plant hormone(a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin(c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid

    59. The cell walls of root cells help in water absorption by the process of (a) Exosmosis (b) Endosmosis(c) Imbibition (d) Plasmolysis

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    60. The nutritive tissue that is present in the seeds of some plants is called(a) Endosperm (b) Food tissue(c) Mother tissue (d) Nutritive back up tissue

    61. Which of the following Medieval Indian rulers was the first to introduce major reforms in the Land-Revenue system?(a) Alauddin Khilji (b) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq (c) Sher Shah (d) Akbar

    62. Which sate is associated with the Revolt of 1857?(a) Satara (b) Jaipur (c) Lahore (d) Jaiselmer

    63. Who of the following are the examples of individuals who represented to the ideas coming from revolutionary France?(a) Gandhi and Nehru (b) Tilak and Gokhale(c) Tipu Sultan and Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d) Tagore and Vivekananda

    64. A new form of organization developed in the 1905 Revolution was called(a) Trade Union (b) Triple Alliance(c) Soviets (d) Mensheviks

    65. Hitler was imprisoned in 1923 for a term of:(a) Seven years (b) Six years(c) Five years (d) Ten years

    66. In this type of cultivation, parts of the forest are cut and burnt in rotation. Seeds are sown in the ashes after the first monsoon rains, and the crop is har-vested by OctoberNovember.(a) Shifting cultivation (b) Commercial cultivation(c) Intensive cultivation (d) None of the above

    67. Which of the following is the term used for Bismarks policy?(a) Steel and Iron policy (b) Hand Shake policy(c) Blood and Iron policy (d) Golden Goose policy

    68. Who was the main architect of unification of Germany?(a) Chancellor Bismarck (b) Napoleon(c) Habsburg Empire (d) Louis Philippe

    69. Which nationalist journal did the students publish?(a) The French Students (b) The china student(c) The Vietnamese students (d) The Yaman student

    70. Who was allowed to enroll in the French school?(a) The Chinese elite (b) The Vietnamese elite (c) The German elite (d) The Japanese elite

    71. When did Trieu Au live?(a) In the 3rd century (b) In the 4th century(c) In the 2nd century (d) In the 5th century

    72. Who was called the Frontier Gandhi?(a) Subhas Chandra Bose (b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan(c) Jawaharla Nehru (d) M.A. Jinnah

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    73. Who composed the song Vande Mataram?(a) Rabindranath Tagore(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju(d) Baba Ramchandra

    74. Which movement was joined by Gandhiji to promote HinduMuslim unity?(a) None cooperation movement (b) The Khilafat movement(c) Satyagraha movement (d) Peasants and worker movement

    75. Who was the founder of ford company?(a) Mark ford (b) John ford(c) Henry ford (d) Peter ford

    76. The Allies consisted of (a) Britain, Germany, France & U.S.A (b) Britain, France, Russia & U.S.A(c) Russia, Germany, France & U.S.A (d) Russia, ltaly, Germany & Japan

    77. The southernmost point of India that was submerged after the 26 December 2004 tsunami was: (a) Rajiv point (b) Indira point(c) India point (d) Andaman point

    78. Match the following(a) Ganga River (i) Sand Dune(b) Wind (ii) Delta(c) Levees (iii) Sedimentary Rocks(d) Soil (iv) River

    (a) (a) (iv), (b) (i), (c) (ii), (d) (iii)(b) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (iii), (d) (iv) (c) (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (i)(d) (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (iii), (d) (i)

    79. What is the length of the land boundary of India?(a) 5200 km (b) 15200 km(c) 45200 km (d) 52000 km

    80. Part of the Northern Plains, which was a thickly forested region full of wild-life, where the forests have been cleared to create agricultural land and to settle migrants from Pakistan after partition.(a) Bhabar (b) Terai (c) Bhangar (d) Khadar

    81. Which one of the following is the largest river of the Peninsular India?(a) Narmada (b) Krishna (c) Godavari (d) Mahanadi

    82. Which soil is the widespread soil of India?(a) Alluvial (b) Black (c) Laterite (d) Desert

    83. Which of the following is not an area of Mountain soil?(a) Meghalaya (b) Uttranchal(c) Tamil Nadu (d) Jammu and Kashmir

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    84. How much forest area was converted into agricultural land between 1951 and 1980?(a) 62,000 sq. km (b) 26,000 sq. km(c) 26,200 sq. km (d) 62.200 sq. km

    85. In which Tiger Reserve, villagers have fought against mining by citing the Wildlife Protection Act?(a) Ranthambore (b) Manas(c) Sariska (d) Corbett

    86. The total _____ water resources of India are estimated at 1897 sq. km per annum.(a) Renewable (b) Underground(c) Perennial (d) River

    87. Post-independent India witnessed _____ industrialization and urbanization, creating vast opportunities for us.(a) Decreasing (b) Increasing(c) Intensive (d) None of the above

    88. What is the position of India in the production of sugarcane?(a) First (b) Second (c) Fourth (d) third

    89. Human capital includes-(a) The working population of the country(b) All those places where human live(c) All that capital which is produced by humans(d) All that capital which is used in production by only humans

    90. Which of following is a Non-Market Activity?(a) Production for exchange (b) Production for self consumption(c) Production for trade (d) Production for exports

    91. National income of a country divided by its total population(a) Gross Domestic product (b) Per Capita income(c) Net Domestic product (d) Depreciation

    92. Which of the following neighboring countries has better performance in terms of human development than India? (a) Bangladesh (b) Sir Lanka(c) Nepal (d) Pakistan

    93. The sectors are classified into public and private sectors on the basis of:(a) Employment conditions(b) The nature of economic activity(c) Ownership of enterprises(d) Number of workers employed in the enterprise

    94. Which was the largest producing sector of India in 2003?(a) Tertiary sector (b) Service sector(c) Primary sector (d) Private sector

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    95. Currency is accepted as a medium of exchange because(a) it is easy to carry(b) paper doesnt costs more to be printed in the form of currency(c) it is authorized by the government of the country(d) none of the above

    96. Select the correct sequence of evolution of Panchayati Raj from the following: (i) National Extension Service (ii) Baleant Rai Mehta Committee Report(iii) Ashok Mehta committee Report(iv) 73rd Amendment of the constitution of India. The correct sequence is (a) ii, iii, i, iv (b) i, ii, iii, iv(c) i, iii, iv, ii (d) iv, iii, ii, i

    97. Election photo Identity card in India is issued by:(a) Collector of the district (b) Superintendent of police(c) Chief Minister (d) Election Commission

    98. A council consisting of several ward members, often called panch, and a presi-dent of sarpanch.(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat(c) Gram Parishad (d) None of these

    99. Movement which emerged in 1966 and lasted till 1975, which was a more militant anti racist movement, advocating even violence. If necessary to end racism in the US.(a) Black movement (b) The Black Power(c) Anti-white-movement (d) Non-discriminatory movement

    100. Radical womens movements which aimed at equality in personal and family life as well, were called

    (a) Womens movement(b) Biological difference movement(c) Girls movement(d) Feminist movement

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    answer KeyPart I (Mat)

    1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c)11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)

    21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (B) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (d)31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c)

    41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (d)

    Part II (sat)

    1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (c)

    21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)

    41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (c)

    Part III (sat)

    1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (a)41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (d)51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (a)61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (b)71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (b)81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (b)91. (b) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (c) 96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (d)

    PAPER 1 GMATPAPER 1 SAT