Mads Answers 2011

8/6/2019 Mads Answers 2011

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1. An injury to the thoracodorsal nerve would probablyaffect the strength of which of the following

movements?

a. Abduction of the arm

b. Lateral rotation of the arm

c. Adduction of the scapula

d. Extension of the arm

2. Which of the following bones is associated with thelateral longitudinal arch of the foot?

a. Talus

b. Medial three metatarsals

c. Navicular

d. Cuboid

3. The portal venous system includes which of thefollowing veins?

a. Left suprarenal vein

b. Inferior epigastric vein

c. Superior rectal vein

d. Azygos vein

4. The accessory hemiazygos vein drains intoa. Right brachiocephalic veinb. Superior vena cavac. Azygos veind. Hemiazygos vein

5.

SVC syndrome is most commonly associated witha. Mediastinal fibrosisb. Lymphomac. Small cell CA lungd. Non small cell Ca lung6. Which of the following is not supplied by superior mesenteric arterya. Jejunumb. Appendixc. Ascending colond. Sigmoid colon7. All of the following muscles are part of rotator cuff excepta. Deltoidb. Supraspinatus

c. Infraspinatus

d. Teres minor

8. All of the following veins lack valves excepta. Femoral veinb. Portal veinc. IVCd. Dural venous sinuses


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9. Artery supplying major part of superolateral surface of brain isa. Middle cerebral arteryb. Anterior cerebral arteryc. Posterior cerebral arteryd. Vertebral artery10. Enlarged corneal nerves may be seen in all of the following except:

a.

Keratoconus.b. Herpes simplex keratitis.c. Leprosy.d. Neurofibromatosis11. Even if thrombosis is present in the coronary sinus,which of the following cardiac veins might remain

normal in diameter?

a. Great cardiac vein

b. Middle cardiac vein

c. Anterior cardiac vein

d. Small cardiac vein

12. S4 following is true,a. ventricular filling

b. rapid ejection phase

c. can be heard with human ear

d. frequency more than 20 hertz

13. Facial nerve does not supply which structure of the facea. Auricular muscleb. Posterior belly of diagastric musclec. Parotid gland

d.

Submandibular gland14. Phantom limb is explained bya. Webers lawb. Law of projectionc. Fechners law of degenerationd. Pascals law15. Type of collagen found in vitreous humora. Type Ib. Type IIc. Type IIId. Type IV16. Substance used to measure renal perfusiona. Inulinb. PAHc. Creatinined. Mannitol17. In sickle cell diseasea. Glutamic acid, at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by valineb. Glutamic acid, at position No.6 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by valinec. Valine at position No.6 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid


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d. Valine at position No.5 of beta-globin chain of haemoglobin is replaced by glutamtic acid18. Sensory fiber with least conduction velocitya. C-fiberb. Alpha fiberc. Beta fiberd. Gamma fiber

19.

Substance present in both serum and plasmaa. Fibrinogenb. Factor IIc. Factor IVd. Factor V20. Hyperpyrexia is body temperature greater thana. 105.6b. 106.7c. 107.6d. 108.721. Reticulocytosis is not seen ina. Chronic renal failure anemiab. Hemorrhagec. Hereditary spherocytosisd. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria22. U wave is due toa. Ventricular repolarizationb. Papillary muscle repolarisationc. Atrial repolarizationd. Ventricular depolarization23. True statement regarding purkinje fibres

a.

Are myelinated fibresb. Have action potential about a tenth as long as those in the heart musclec. Have conduction velocity of four times than that of the heart muscled. All of the above24. Site of action of ADH isa. PCTb. DCTc. Loop of henled. Collecting ducts25. Most potent stimulus for bile secretion isa. Gastrinb. Bile acidc. Bile saltd. Secretin26. All are carried through anterolateral system excepta. Proprioceptionb. Temperaturec. Paind. Crude touch27. Function of flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum is


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a. Co-ordination of movementsb. Equilibriumc. Chemoreceptiond. Planning of movements28. Melatonin is associated with all of the following excepta. Vomiting

b.

Pituitary gland secretionc. Sleep mechanismd. Jetlag29. Influx of which of the following ion is responsible for IPSPa. Potassium ionb. Chloride ionc. Calcium iond. Sodium ion30. Capacitation of sperms occurs ina. Vas deferensb. Prostatic urethrac. Female genital tractd. Epididymis31. Ketone bodies are used by A/Ea. Muscleb. Liverc. Kidneyd. Brain32. Anderson disease is due to lack ofa. Branching enzymeb. Debranching enzyme

c.

Acid maltased. Myophosphorylase33. Carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism occurs in which cyclea. Glycolysisb. Malate shuttlec. Urea cycled. Citric acid cycle34. L-CAT activator lipoprotein isa. Apo A1b. Apo C2c. ApoC3d. ApoE35. Saturated fatty acids is maximum in which of the followinga. Sunflower oilb. Coconut oilc. Soyabeand. Safflower oil36. Final product of purine metabolism isa. Uric acidb. Creatinine


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c. Xanthined. Phosphate37. Watsons DNA model isa. Right handed , parallelb. Left handed, anti parallelc. Left handed parallel

d.

Right handed, anti parallel38. Northern blotting technique is used for thea. DNAb. Proteinc. RNAd. Protein DNA interaction39. Sodium fluoride is added to blood, as it inhibitsa. Hexokinaseb. Glucokinasec. Glucose-6-phosphatased. Enolase40. Best indicator of protein quality isa. Net protein utilizationb. Digestibility coefficientc. Biological valued. Amino acid score41. Source of nitrogen in urea cycle isa. Glutamate and aspartateb. Glutamine and NH3c. Arginine and aspirated. NH3 and aspartate

42.

Red infarct is seen ina. Kidneyb. Heartc. Braind. Small intestine43. Isolated atrial amyloidosis is due to deposition ofamyloid which is similar to

a. beta 2 microglobulin

b. transthyretin

c. ANF

d. Pyrin

44. Call-exner bodies are seen ina. Theca cell tumourb. Yolk sac tumourc. Granulose cell tumourd. Fibroma of ovary45. Which one of the following is not true in the case of myotonic dystrophy?

A. Cardiac defect

B. Cataract

C. Enlarged testis


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D. Frontal baldness

46. First change seen in acute inflammation isa. Increased permeabilityb. Vasodilationc. Neutrophil migrationd. Vasoconstriction

47.

NBT assay is used to evaluatea. Granulocyte diapedesis

b. T cell function

c. Superoxide production by PMNs

d. Staining characteristics of B lymphocyte

48. Hydatid cyst is does not calcify ina. Lungsb. Liverc. Kidneyd. Brain49. CA-125 is marker fora. Color cancerb. Ovarian cancerc. Pancreatic cancerd. Stomach cancer50. Qualitative defect of vWF is seen ina) vWD-1b) vWD-2c) vWD-3d) vWD-451. CD-15 helps in assessment of which of the following

a.

Adult T-cell leukemiab. Hodgkins diseasec. Mycosis fungoidesd. Larger granular lymphocytic leukemia52. Hypocalcaemia is seen with which of the followinga. Thyrotoxicosisb. Hyperparathyroidismc. Acute pancreatitisd. Addison disease53. All of the following are true regarding Crohns disease excepta. Skip lesionsb. Inflammation limited to mucosac. Crypt abscess seend. Fistulae formation is seen54. Which of the following antibody is highly specific for celiac diseasea. Anti-gliadin antibodiesb. IgA antibodies to tissue transglutaminasec. Anti-endomysial antibodyd. All of the above55. t (9,22)(q-34;q11) translocation is commonly associated


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a. AMLb. ALLc. CMLd. CLL56. In acute myeloid leukemia, Auer rods are numerous ina. M2

b.

M3c. M4d. M557. Nodular glomerulosclerosis is associated witha. Henoch Schonlein purpurab. Hemolytic uremic syndromec. Hypertensiond. Diabetes mellitus58. Hypercalcaemia is seen ina. Prostate CAb. Non SCLCc. Small cell CAd. Carcinoid tumor59. All of the following are true for Sarcoidosis excepta. Kveim test can be used tob. Caseating epithelioid granulomasc. Most commonly involves lungsd. CD4:CD8> 3:160. Reverse CAMP test seen in A/Ea. Arcanobacterium haemolyticumb. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

c.

Clostridium perfringensd. Streptococcus agalactiae61. Tunica reaction is seen in infection witha. R.prowazekii

b. R.akari

c. R.mooseri

d. R.rickettsii

62. Pasteurization of milk is determined bya. Methylene blue reduction testb. Phophatase testc. Turbidity testd. Resazurin test63. Swimming pool granuloma is caused bya. Mycobacterium cheloneb. Mycobacterium kansasiic. Mycobacterium marinumd. Mycobacterium ulcerans64. Most common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis isa. Staphylococcus aureusb. Streptococcus viridians


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74. Rat bite fever is caused bya) Bartonella bacilliformisb) Bartonella henselaec) Streptobacillus moniliformisd) Campylobacter fetus75. Orphan drugs are

a.

Commercially easy to obtainb. Drugs to treat rare diseasec. Developed with an intention of monetary gaind. All of the above76. Drug of choice for acute migraine isa. Methysergideb. Sumatriptanc. Ergotamined. Propranolol77. Tolerance develops to all the following actions of morphine excepta. Miosisb. Respiratory depression,c. Euphoriad. Sedation78. Which of the following is the shortest acting betablocker

a. Acebutololb. Sotalolc. Bisoprolold. Esmolol79. Drug of choice for paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is

a.

Digoxinb. Propranololc. Adenosined. Diltiazem80. Which of the following is the most potent glucocorticoida. Hydrocortisoneb. Prednisolonec. Betamethasoned. Triamcinolone81. Drug of choice for petit mal seizures isa. Ethosuximideb. Carbamazepinec. Phenytoind. Valproate82. Which of the following drug causes does not causes thrombocytopeniaa. Methotrexateb. Aspirinc. Ticlopidined. Heparin83. All are protease inhibitors except


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a. Ritonavirb. Abacavirc. Saquinavird. Amprenavir84. Low molecular weight heparin mainly inhibits which factora. Factor IIla

b.

Facto VIIIac. Factor Xad. Factor XIIa85. Which of the following is not used in glaucoma in ahypertensive patients:

a. Dipivefrine

b. Beta blockers

c. Alpha agonist

d. Trabeculoplasty

86. Which of the following is a potassium sparing druga. Indapamideb. Furosemidec. Eplerenoned. Mannitol87. All are the following are Beta-lactamase inhibitors excepta. Clavulanic acidb. Aztreonamc. Sulbactamd. Tazobactam88. Drug acting on cell wall of gram positive bacteriaa. Gentamycin

b.

Ciprofloxacinc. Tetracyclined. Vancomycin89. Which of the following anticancer drug causes peripheral neuropathya. Methotreaxateb. Vincristinec. Cytarabined. Etoposide90. 1% atropine is given in uveitis isa. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of anterior synechiaeb. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior synechiaec. Cause mydriasis and prevent formation of posterior synechiaed. Cause miosis and prevent formation of posterior synechiae91. Amongst the following extrapyramidal side effect is commonest with which druga. Thioradizineb. Haloperidolc. Clozapined. Ziprasidone92. Which of the following drug is contraindicated in glaucomaa. Adrenaline


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b. Timololc. Atropined. Pilocarpine93. Norepinephrin has no effect on

a. alpha1 receptor

b.alpha2 receptor

c. beta1 receptord.beta2 receptor

94. Thalidomide is useful ina. Treatment of leprosyb. Treatment of type II lepra reactionc. Treatment of type I lepra reactiond. Treatment of neuritic leprosy95. All the following are mechanism of action of oral contraceptive pills excepta. Inhibiton of ovualtionb. Prevents fertilisationc. Prevents implantation of fertilised ovumd. Interferes with placental function96. The following are features of autism excepta. Lack of eye contact

b. Gross hearing defect

c. Failure to acquire speech

d. Intrusive stereotypies

97. Brain death is characterized bya. Absent spinal reflexesb. Cortical death following widespread brain injury

c.

Absence of brainstem reflexesd. Core temperature of the body is below 35 degree C98. Pin point pupils are seen in all of the following conditions excepta. Organophosphrous poisoningb. Opiod poisoningc. Cerebello pontine hemarroged. Dhatura poisoning99. Not used for treating acute iron poisoninga. Desferrioxamineb. BALc. Magnesium hydroxided. Hemodialysis100. Most common type of finger impression isa. Archb. Whorlc. Loopd. Composite101. Plaque is transmitted bya. Fleab. Soft tick


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111. To achieve a NRR of 1, couple protection rate should bea. More than 30%b. More than 40%c. More than 50%d. More than 60%112. PQLI includes all of the following except

a.

Per capita incomeb. Literacy ratec. Life expectancy at 1 yeard. Infant mortality113. Infant mortality rate of India as per 2007 census isa. 34b. 44c. 54d. 64114. Venturimeter is used fora. Measuring chlorine demandb. Measuring air velocityc. Measuring sand bed resistanced. Measuring dissolving capacity of gas115. Exclusive breast feeding is recommended by WHO uptoa. 3 monthsb. 4 monthsc. 6 monthsd. 9 months116. India is at which stage of Demographic cyclea. High stationary

b.

Early stationaryc. Late expandingd. Low stationary117. Toxin responsible for epidemic dropsy isa. BOAAb. Sanguinarinec. Pyrrolizidined. Ergots118. Vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children everya. 3 monthsb. 6 monthsc. 12 monthsd. 18 months119. Which of the following is false regarding acrodermatitis enteropathicaa. Low serum zinc levelsb. Triad of diarrhea, alopecia and dermatitisc. Poor immunityd. None of the above120. Sodium content in reduced osmolarity ORS isa. 1.5 grams/litre


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b. 2.5 grams /litrec. 3.5 grams /litred. 4.5 grams/litre121. Nitrates in drinking water indicatesa. Remote faecal pollutionb. Recent faecal pollution

c.

Unpolluted waterd. Water fit for drinking122. Which of the following committee proposed the concept of primary health centre in Indiaa. Mukerjhi committeeb. Bhore committeec. Kartar singh committeed. Mudaliar committee123. Which of the following is incorrect about ASHAa. 1 ASHA worker per 1000 populaitonb. Resident of local communityc. Part of sub centred. 25-45 years of age124. Death needs to be registered withina. 4 daysb. 7 daysc. 14 daysd. 18 days125. All of the following disease are reported to WHO excepta. Plagueb. Yellow feverc. Polio

d.

Cholera126. Percentage of a data can be depicted on aa. Pie chartb. Bar diagramc. Histogramd. Graph127. Influenza pandemics shows which type of trenda. Secularb. Cyclicalc. Seasonald. None of the above128. False statement about Japanese encephalitis isa. It is caused by flavivirusb. Transmitted by aedes mosquitoc. Horse shows symptoms of diseased. Man is dead-end host129. Human anatomical waste is put isa. Yellowb. Redc. Blue


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d. Black130. The critical path method in health planning and management isa. Shortest time taken to complete the projectb. Longest path taken to complete the projectc. Mid-point for reviewing the projectd. None of the above

131.All of the following are measures of dispersion except

a. Mean deviationb. Modec. Ranged. Standard deviation132. Segmented double-stranded RNA is seen ina. Reovirusb. Enterovirusc. Rhabdovirusd. Parvovirus133. Most common cause of conductive deafness in children less than 12 yrsa. CSOMb. Otosclerosisc. Serous otitis mediad. Atresia of auditory canals on both sides134. CSF rhinorrhoea most commonly is due to the fracture ofa. Nasal bonesb. Cribriform platec. Temporal boned. Maxillary bone135. Calorie test based on thermal stimulation of which part of the semi circular canals

a.

Lateralb. Posteriorc. Anteriord. All of the above136. Sickness benefit under ESI Act is payable for how many days in a yeara. 71 daysb. 81 daysc. 91 daysd. 101 days137. Quarantine period for yellow fever isa. 1 dayb. 2 daysc. 6 daysd. 10 days138. Which of the following statement is true regarding Acanthamoeba keratitis?a. For the isolation of the causative agent, corneal scraping should be cultured on a nutrient agar plate.b. The causative agent, Acanthamoeba is a helminth whose normal habitat is soil.c. Keratitis due to Acanthamoeba is not seen in the immunocompromised host.d. Acanthamoeba does not depend upon a human host for the completion of its life cycle.139. 1mm change in the axial length of the eyeball produces a change in refractive index by


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a. 1Db. 2Dc. 3Dd. 4D140. All of the following are seen in retinitis pigmentosa excepta. Prominent retinal vessels

b.

Ring scotomac. Pigmentation around the retinal veinsa. Pale disc141. All are true regarding direct ophthalmoscopy excepta. Image is erectb. Magnification is more than indirect ophthalmoscopyc. Wide area of fundus with least magnification can be seen in hypermetropicsd. It has a large field of view142. Trachoma can cause all of the following excepta. Loss of visionb. Clouding of the corneac. Trichiasisd. Enopthalmos143. True about keratoconus are all of the following excepta. Can be seen in Downs syndromeb. It manifests just after birthc. Munson sign is characteristicd. Corneal transplantation is needed in severe cases144. 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhea, anorexia,weight loss and with milk discharge from the nipples.What is the likely diagnosis?

a. HIV

b. Occult carcinomac. Anorexia nervosa

d. Hypothyroidism

145. Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all excepta. Penetrating keratoplastyb. Acyclovirc. Steroidsd. Debridement of the edges of the ulcer146. Structure commonly involved in sympathetic ophthalmitisa. Corneab. Lensc. Optic nerved. Iris and ciliary body147. True about open angle glaucoma are all excepta. Open anterior chamber angleb. Frequent change in presbyopic correctionc. Rapid vision lossd. Commonest form of glaucoma148. Neovascular glaucoma is caused bya. CRVO


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b. Choroid milenonac. Diabetesd. All of the above149. Ectopia lentis is seen in all of the following excepta. Marfans syndromeb. Homocystinuria

c.

Weil-Marchesani syndromed. Down syndrome150. Cotton wool spots are commonly seen in A/Ea. HIVb. Rectal detachmentc. Hypertensiond. Pancreatitis151. Laser used to manage after cataracta. Excimer laserb. Argon green laserc. Diode laserd. Nd: YAG laser152. Recurrent vitreous hemorrhage in young individual indicatesa. Eales diseaseb. Glaucomac. Chorioretinitisd. Coats disease153. All of the following childhood tumors cause proptosis exceptb. Retinoblastomac. Metastatic neuroblastomad. Rhabdomyosarcoma

e.

Leukemia154. According to WHO, blindness is defined asa. Visual acuity of less than 1/60b. Visual acuity of less than 3/60c. Visual acuity of less than 6/60d. Visual acuity of less than 6/18155. Neurotrophic keratitis involves which nervea. Trochlearb. Trigeminalc. Abducensd. Facial156. Vision 2020-Right to sight by WHO targets all expecta. Cataractb. Trachomac. Epidemic conjunctivitisd. Onchocerciasis157. True regarding retinoscopy are all of the following excepta. Helps in estimating the condition of the refractionb. Usually performed at 1m distancec. Consists of a plane and a concave mirror


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d. Hypermetropes show an against movement158. The most common cause of thrombocytopenia inpregnant mother is,

a. benign gestational thrombocytopenia

b. preeclampsia

c. immune thrombocytopenia

d. abruptio placenta

159. All cause mydriasis with cycloplegia except?a. Atropine

b. Tropicamide

c. Cyclopentolate

d. Pilocarpine

160. Dialysis is not effective ina. Salicylate poisoningb. Digoxin poisoningc. Barbiturate poisoningd. Methanol poisoning161. Not a feature of hereditary spherocytosisa. Autosomal dominantb. Increased RBC surface areac. Increased MCHCd. Normal or decreased MCV162. Which of the following is not a cause of Cor Pulmonalea. Intermittent pulmonary embolismb. Kyphoscoliosisc. COPD

d.

Mitral stenosis163. All are true about PNH excepta. Splenectomy usefulb. Defect in stem cellsc. Neutropenia, anemia, pancytopeniad. Intravascular hemolysis164. Wide split fixed 2nd heart sound is heard ina. Normal individualsb. Left bundle branch blockc. ASDd. VSD165. True regarding secondary prophylaxis of a 6 years old child with carditis isa. Duration of prophylaxis is life longb. Duration of prophylaxis is till 18 yearsc. Duration of prophylaxis is at least 5 years after onsetd. Duration of prophylaxis is till 25 years of age166. A young hysterical woman while hyperventilating islikely to develop all except:

a. Rise in pH


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b. Low pCO2

c. Albumin carrying ve change

d. Hypercalcemia

167. Which of the following is seen in a patient with tricuspid incompetencea. Hepatic pulsation

b.

A wave in JVPc. Mid diastolic murmurd. Normal cardiac output168. Rupture of myocardium takes place in what duration after myocardial infarctiona. First week 1-3 daysb. Second week 3-7 daysc. Third week 7-14 daysd. Fourth week > 2 weeks169. All are true about PAN excepta) Glomerulolnephritisb) HBV is an etiologic factorc) Associated with hairy cell leukemiad) ANCA negative170. Large a waves in JVP representsa. Complete heart blockb. 1stdegree A-V blockc. Sinus bradycardiad. Tachycardia171. Which of the following is the most common sustained arrhythmiaa. Inappropriate sinus tachycardiab. Junctional premature complexesc.

Atrial fibrillation

d. Atrial flutter172. Most preferred biochemical markers in patient presenting with recurrent myocardial infarctiona. Myoglobinb. Cardiac specific troponinsc. CK-MBd. All of the above173. A 20 year old female patient has non exertional chest pain. On ausculatation she had multiple non ejectia. Serum markersb. Chest x-rayc. Electrocardiographyd. Echocardiography174. A patient with inferior wall myocardial infarction is in shock the reason isa. Right ventricular infarctionb. Mitral regurgitationc. Infarction causing septal defectd. Decreased ejection fraction from left ventricle175. True statement regarding oliguriaa. Urine formation less than 50 mL/24 hours


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b. Urine formation less than 250mL/24 hoursc. Urine formation of less than 500 mL/24 hoursd. Urine formation less than 750 mL/24 hours176. Most common CNS manifestation of HIV infection ina. Seizuresb. Dementia

c.

Focal neurologic deficitsd. Stroke177. Epworth score is done for:

A. COPD

B. Asthma

C. Obstructive sleep apnea

D. Pneumonia

178. BCG vaccine is diluted witha. Normal salineb. Distilled waterc. Dextrosed. Colloids179. Nicoladoni branhams sign is seen ina. Buerger diseaseb. Arteriovenous fistulac. Raynauds diseased. Peripheral aneurysm180. aMost commonly ruptured organ in blunt trauma to abdomen isa. Adrenalsb. Kidneyc. Liver

d.

Spleen181. Which of the following is not true regarding hyperplastic tuberculosisa. Mass in right iliac fossa may be the presenting featuresb. Barium studies are helpful in diagnosisc. IIeo-caecal junction is common site of involvementd. Should be managed by surgical resection of the involved segment182. Dumping syndrome is characterized by all of the following excepta. Colicb. Tremors and giddinessc. Hyperglycemiad. Epigastric fullness183. Spigelian hernia isa. Hernia passing through the obturator canalb. Hernia occurring through the linea albac. Hernia through the triangle of petitd. Hernia occurring at the level of arcuate line184. Hernia which often simulates a peptic ulcer isa. Umbilical herniab. Incisional herniac. Strangulated hernia


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d. Fatty hernia of linea alba185. Investigation of choice in vesico-ureteric reflux isa. CT scanb. Voiding cystourethrographyc. Intravenous urographyd. X-ray KUB

186.

Delirium, mental confusion and nausea in patients who had undergone transurethral resection of pra. Hypermatremiab. Sepsisc. Hepatic comad. Water retention187. Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive ofa. Horseshoe kidneyb. Duplication of renal pelvisc. Simple cyst of kidneyd. Ureterocele188. Spider-leg appearance is seen ina. Pyelonephritisb. Polycystic kidneyc. Renal artery stenosisd. Ureteric stones189. Most unfavorable/poor prognosis is seen in which type of breast cancera. Tubular carcinomab. Medullary carcinomac. Colloid carcinomad. Inflammatory carcinoma190. Most common congenital anomaly of the face is

a.

Cleft lip aloneb. Isolated cleft palatec. Cleft lip and cleft palated. All have equal incidence191. True about flail chest are all excepta. Ultimately leads to respiratory failureb. Paradoxical respirationc. Fracture of 3-4 ribsd. Mediastinal shift192. Most common symptom in pulmonary embolisma. Dyspneab. Pleuritic chest painc. Cyanosisd. Hemoptysis193. Most common subtype of basal cell carcinoma isa. Superficial basal cell carcinomab. Nodular basal cell carcinomac. Sclerosing basal cell carcinomad. Pigmented basal cell carcinoma194. Most common histological type of carcinoma of base of tongue


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a. Squamous cell carcinomab. Adeno carcinomac. Basal cell carcinomad. Transitional cell carcinoma195. Serum amylase level is increased in all of the following excepta. Intestinal obstruction

b.

Perforated ulcerc. Acute pancreatitisd. Acute appendicitis196. HLA matching is not necessary fora. Liver transplantb. Renal transplantc. Heart transplantd. Corneal transplant197. Adson test is positive ina. Cervical spondylosisb. Cervical ribc. Cervical vertebral fractured. Superior vena cava syndrome198. Which one of the following soft tissue sarcomas frequently metastasizes to lymph nodes?a. Fibrosarcoma.b. Osteosarcoma.c. Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma.d. Alveolar soft part sarcoma.199. Most serious complication of fracture of a long bone isa. Fat embolismb. Pulmonary embolism

c.

Deep vein thrombosisd. Associated joint injuires200. Uncommon in colles fracturea. Non unionb. Carpal tunnel syndromec. Rupture of EPL tendond. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy201. Inversion and eversion occurs ata. Subtalor jointsb. Ankle jointc. Inferior tibiofibular jointd. All of the above202. Supracondylar fracture commonly results in injury toa. Musculocutaneous nerveb. Radial nervec. Ulnar nerved. Median nerve203. Complication of fracture of humeral lateral epicondyle isa. Non unionb. Tardy ulnar nerve palsy


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c. Cubitus valgus deformityd. All of the above204. Commonest presenting symptom of Potts spine ina. Cold abscessb. Back painc. Decreased spinal movements

d.

Collapse of spine205. Most common tumor of spine isa. Secondariesb. Ewings sarcomac. Oteosarcomad. Multiple myeloma206. Spondylolysis is more common ina. Intervertebral discb. Anterior partc. Pars interarticularisd. Annulus fibrosus207. Lymphedema praecox occursa) In uterob) At birthc) Before 35 yrsd) Before 60 yrs208. Luschkas joint is important because of following excepta. Also called uncovertebral jointb. Commonest site of osteophyte formationc. They are true synovial jointsd. Vertebral artery may be compressed by its osteophyte

209.

Anterior fontanella ossifies bya. 6 monthsb. 12 monthsc. 15 monthsd. 18 months210. Largest fetal head diametera. Occipitofrontalb. Suboccipitofrontalc. Mentoverticald. Submentovertical211. Puberty is precocious if there is breast and pubic hair growth before the age ofa. 8 yrsb. 9yrsc. 10yrsd. 11yrs212. Cut-off Value Of Cervical Length At 24 Weeks Of Gestation For Prediction Of Preterm Delivery Is :A 0.5cm

B 1.5cm

C 2.5cm

D 3.5cm


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213. During pregnancy, maximum urinary HCG level is reached in:a. 30.dayb. 50.daysc. 70.daysd. 90.days214. Accurate diagnosis of anencephaly on ultrasound can be done at

a.

5 weeks of gestationb. 8 weeks of gestationc. 10 weeks of gestationd. 14 weeks of gestation215. Drug of choice in chronically hypertensive pregnant women requiring long term antihypertensive tha. Nifedipineb. Metaprololc. Methyldopad. Hydralazine216. Maximal level of cardiac output is seen ata. 22-26 weeks of pregnancyb. 26-30 weeks of pregnancyc. 30-34 weeks of pregnancyd. 34-36 weeks of pregnancy217. Advantages of median episiotomy over mediolateral episiotomy are all excepta. Less blood lossb. Easy repairc. Extension of the incision is easyd. Muscles are not cut218. Which of the following is not a parameter in Bishops scorea. Cervical consistency

b.

Station of headc. Position of headd. Cervical length219. Which of the following doesnt prevent prolapsea. Perineal bodyb. Pubocervical ligamentc. Broad ligamentd. Transverse cervical ligament220. Post partum hemorrhage in a spontaneous delivery is commonly due toa. Traumaticb. Uterine atonyc. Blood coagulopathyd. Mixed caused221. A women with a history of repeated abortions gave birth to a low birth weight baby. The child is hava. Congenital HIVb. Congenital Syphilisc. Congenital rubellad. Pemphigus222. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tubea. Infundibulum


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b. Ampullac. Isthmusd. Interstitium223. 35 yr old woman is observed to have CIN III on colposcopic biopsy. Next line of managementa. Cryotherapyb. Conisation

c.

LEEPd. Hysterectomy224. Hormone responsible for ferning pattern of cervical mucusa. Progesteroneb. Estrogenc. LHd. Prolactin225. Shortest diameter of true pelvis amongst the followings is:a. True conjugateb. Diagonal conjugatec. Interspinous diameterd. Interuberous diameter226. If division of fertilized egg takes place in between 5-8 days. It would give rise to which kind of twina. Monochorionic/monoamnioticb. Monochorinoic/diamnioticc. Dichorionic/monoammnioticd. Siamese twins227. Gold standard investigation in diagnosing PID isa. Anti chalamydial Abb. Laparoscopyc. USG

d.

Blood leucocyte count228. MC side effect of IUD insertiona. Bleeding

b. Pain

c. Pelvic inefction

d. Ectopic pregnancy

229. Strawberry vagina is seen ina. Candidiasisb. Trichomoniasisc. Syphilisd. Bacterial vaginosis230. A female presented with thick white discharge and pruritus, aetiological agent isa. Gardnerellab. Trichomonas vaginalisc. Candidad. Gonococci231. Meigs syndrome is associated with ovariana. Teratomab. Brenner tumourc. Fibroma


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d. Theca cell tumour232. Hirsuitism is seen in all excepta. Acromegalyb. Hyperthyroidismc. Arrhenoblastomad. PCOD

233.

18 year old girl presented with primary amenorrhea, normal breast development, absent pubic anda. Turner syndromeb. Mullerian agenesisc. Premature ovarian failured. Testicular feminizing syndrome234. The Commonest Cause Of Breech Presentation IsA Hydraminios

B Oligohydramnios

C Prematurity

D Contracted Pelvis

235. Gynaecomastia is seen in all excepta. Spironolactoneb. Hypothyroidismc. Klinefelters syndromed. Cirrhotic liver disease236. Ovarian Tumours Commonly Arises FromA Surface Epithelium

B Germinal Epithelium

C Stroma

D Stem cells

237. Water content of liquor amnii is said to be replaced every:

A. One HourB. Three hours

C. Ten hours

D. 24 hours

238. Most important in establishing diagnosis of leprosy isa. Evidence of neural involvementb. Hypo pigmented patchesc. Slit smear for AFBd. Positive lepromin test239. Most common fungal infection in neutropenic patient isa. Candidiasisb. Aspergillosisc. Histoplasmosisd. None of the above240. Drug of choice for cerebral malaria is:a. Chloroquineb. Quininec. Primaquined. Sulfadoxine241. Ash leaf spots are seen in


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a. Psoriasisb. Tuberous sclerosisc. Multiple sclerosisd. Pemphigus vulgaris242. Nail deformity commonly seen in lichen planus are all of the following excepta. Pterygium

b.

Longitudnal grovesc. Oncholysisd. Beaus lines243. Treatment of choice for type 2 lepra reaction isa. Systemic steroidb. Clofaziminec. Colchicined. Thalidomide244. Drug of choice for dermatitis herpetiformisa. Rifampicinb. Thalidomidec. Dapsoned. Clofazimine245. True isomorphic phenomenon is not seen ina. Wartsb. Lichen planusc. Vitiligod. Psoriasis246. Itos test is used in the diagnosis ofa. Gonorrheab. Herpes

c.

Chancroidd. Granuloma venerum247. Berkeley membrane is seen ina. Psoriasisb. Pemphigusc. Tinea capitisd. Pityriasis rubra248. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome characterized by A/Ea. Decreased T cellsb. Normal IgGc. Raised IgMd. Raised IgE249. Pin index of oxygen isa. 0,5b. 1,5c. 2,5d. 3,5250. All of the following are true korsakoffs psychosis excepta. Organic amnestic syndromeb. Insight present


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c. Mamillary bodies involved. It may follow wernickes encephalopathy251. Which of the following is the drug of choice for medication resistant schizophreniaa. Haloperidolb. Chlorpromazinec. Clozapine

d.

Flupentiol252. All are true regarding narcolepsy excepta) 10 40 % patients have coincident catalepsyb) Positive family history presentc) Orexins are decreased in this disorderd) REM sleep is distorted253. Drug of choice for compulsive disorder isa. Sertralineb. Alprazolamc. Chlorpromazined. Fluoxetine254. Most common cause for erectile dysfunction isa. Psychologicalb. Vasuclarc. Neuronald. Hormonal255. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all of the following excepta. Hypoparathyroidismb. Hypothyroidismc. Hyperparthyroidismd. Acromegaly

256.

USG finding in chronic renal disease may bea. Enlarged kidneyb. Nortal kidneyc. Shrunken kidneyd. All of the above257. Radioactivity acts on which phase of cell cyclea. G1b. G2c. Md. S258. Element most commonly used in brachytherpay of carcinoma cervisa. 1-123b. 1-125c. 1-127d. 1-131259. Radium emits which of the following radiationsa. Gamma raysb. Alpha raysc. Beta raysd. All of the above


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260. Filament in X-ray machine is made up ofa. Molybdenumb. Tungstenc. Strontiumd. Silver261. Most radiosensitive tissue is

a.

Liverb. Fatc. Bone marrowd. Nervous tissue262. Marble Bone appearance is seen in:a. Osteomalaciab. Osteopetrosisc. Ricketsd. Osteoporsis263. The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumor motion due to breathing ia. Arc techniqueb. Modulationc. Gatingd. Shunting264. Which one of the following tumors shows calcification on CT scan?a. Ependymomab. Meduloblastomac. Meningiomad. CNS lymphoma

265. Which one of the following radioisotope is not used as permanent implant?

a.

Radiumb. Phosphorusc. Gold-198d. Caesium-137

266. All emit Beta rays only excepta. Strontiumb. Yttriumc. Phosphorousd. Iodine

267. Acidosis with normal anion gapa) Methanol poisoningb) Renal failurec) Renal tubular acidosisd) Diabetic ketoacidosis

268. The following is the definition of nephrotic rangeproteinuria in children,

a. 40 mg/sq. m/hr


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b. 4 mg/ sq. m/hr

c. 50 mg/sq. m/hr

d. 5 mg/sq. m/hr

269. Which of the following markers of Downs syndrome is increased in first trimester?

a. Alpha feto protein

b. HCGc. PAPP-A (Pregnancy Associated Placental Protein A)

d. None of the above

270 Which is the drug of choice for the treatment of

pneumonia?

a. Penicillin

b. Ampicillin

c. Cotrimoxazole

d. Chloramphenicol

271 Ogive is

a. Line diagram

b. Frequency polygon

c.Cumulative Frequency curve

d. Scatter diagram

272 Enzyme coagulase is produced by

a. Brodetella pertussis

b. Yersinia pestis

c. Francisella tularensis

d. Pasteurella multocida

273 Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis all are true

except

a. Virus isolated from brain cells in HeLa cell lines

b. Measles virus strains isolated from SSPE are defective

c. Patients have high levels of measles virus antibody

in serum

e. Antibodies are demonstrated in CSF

274 Which is a minor criteria for diagnosis of RF

according to modified duckett jones criteria,a. ASO titre

b. Past h/o RF

c. Fever

d. Sub cutaneous nodules

275 A 36 year old female with symptoms of hyperthyroidism with episodic hypertension. He is tall with mar

a. MEN I

b. MEN 2 A


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c. MEN 2 B

d. MEN 2 C

276. First disease is the name given to

a. Chicken pox

b. Measles

c. Infectious mononucleosis

d. Scarlet fever277 A patient who had sustained a severe crush injury to

the lower extremities 2 days prior is noted to have frequent long runs of ventricular tachycardia on the

electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor, although his blood pressure is stable at 115/75 mm Hg. A formal ECG rev

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy in the management of this patient?

a. Administer 1 mg epinephrine

b. Administer insulin and 25% dextrose in water

c. Administer sodium bicarbonate

d. Administer calcium gluconate

278 True regarding cortical blindness:

a. Direct and consensual reflexes are present in both

the eyes

b. Direct and consensual reflexes absent in both the

eyes

c. Direct reflexes is present and consensual absent on

the normal side

d. Direct reflexes is absent on normal side and

consensual reflex present

279 Shanti aged 27 yrs presented with complaints of

difficulty in reading near print. There is ptosis anddiplopic in all directions. She is having:

a. III CN palsy

b. Myasthenia gravis

c. Presbyopia

d. VICN palsy

280 The sigmoid colon:

a. Is a retroperitoneal organ

b. Receives parasympathetic fibers from the vagus

nerve

c. Receives blood mainly from the superior mesentericartery

d. Drains its venous blood into the portal venous

system

281 All of the following agents can be given for induction

of anaesthesia in children Except:

a. Halothane

b. Sevoflurane

c. Morphine


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C. Granulosa cell tumor

D. Serous adenocarcinoma

290 Which of the following serologic tests is positive during the serologic gap or window of a typical acute h

A. HBV core antigen

B. Anti-HBV epsilon antigen

C. HBV surface antigen

D. Anti-HBV core antigen291 The quellung test has been used to identify strains of which of the following organism?

A. Enterococcus faecalis

B. Streptococcus pneumoniae

C. Staphylococcus epidermidis

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

292 Which amino acids is ketogenic but not glucogenic?

A. Glutamate

B. Phenylalanine

C. Tyrosine

D. Leucine

293 Sexual asphyxia is associated with which of the following perversions

A. Voyeurism

B. Masochism

C. Sadism

D. Fetishism

294 Which organism is found only in humans?

A. Salmonella typhimurium

B. Salmonella typhi

C. Salmonella choleraesuis

D. Yersinia enterocolitica

295 Why do patient with the carcinoid syndrome develop loss of appetite, generalized weakness abdominal

in sunlight exposed areas?

A. Failure to elaborate serotonin

B. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

C. Thiamine deficiency

D. Niacin deficiency

296 A 65-yrs-old man with advanced lung cancer complains of painful burning in his fingertips.

Examination reveals widened fingertips, with flattening of the proximal nail cuticle angle. The nail bed is spo

A. Vascular oversupply due to angiogenic factorsB. Bony resorption due to parathyroid hormone like substance

C. Infection with coagulase-negative staphylococci

D. Abnormal platelet endothelial interaction

297 Kohler's disease is

A. Osteochondrosis of the lunate

B. Osteochondrosis of the navicular

C. Tuberculosis of the scaphoid


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D. Syphilitic dactylitis

298 Investigation of choice for Acute sinusitis is:

A. X-ray (Waters' view)

B. CT Scan

C. MRI

D. Ultrasonography

299 If mean, median and mode are 10, 18, 26 respectively, the distribution is

A. Symmetric

B. Normal

C. Positively skewed

D. Negatively skewed

300 The theory of MRI was elucidated by:

A. Felix Block and Edward Purcell

B. Werner Forssman

C. Hounsfield

D. Goldman


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y be


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on clicks investigation of choice would be


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ostate suggests


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erapy

ing rashes over palm rhinitis. The most probable diagnosis is


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regnancy


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axillary hair, condition is


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s known as:


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anoid habitus. He also has mucosal neuromas. What is the diagnosis?


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is performed.

o be present in this patient?


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patitis B virus (HBV) infection?

ain vomiting stomatitis and a skin rash that is pigmented and scaling

ngy. This is due to:

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