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SUBJECT / TOPICS: MODEL FULL TEST - I

TIME: 3Hrs MARKS: 150

1. Which two things does Coleridge find as important in poetry?

A) Rhythm, style B) Education, style C) Style, diction D) Independence, Education.

2. „He chooses or arranges his words differently as his audience varies, in automatic or deliberate

recognition of his relation to them. The…. of his utterance reflects his awareness of this relation”

A) Tone B) Sense C) Feeling D) Intention

3. To whom is William Empson indebted for the analysis of poems?

A) Eliot B) I.A. Richard C) Ezra pound D) Lionel Trilling

4. Who wrote the book „Anatomy of Criticism‟?

A) Jung B) Robert Graves C) Northrop Frye D) Wilson Knight.

5. With which season the archetype of Romance is connected?

A) Winter B) Spring C) Autumn D) Summer

6. „poetry is the first and last of all knowledge- it is as immortal as the heart of man” who makes this

observation?

A) Arnold B) Wordsworth C) Shelley D) Keats.

7. What is known as „discovery‟?

A) Hamartia B) Peripetetia C) Hubris D) Anagnorisis

8. Which play of Johnson is praised by Neander?

A) The Alchemist B) The silent Woman C) Volpone D) London

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9. Who supports the use of Blank verse in „Essay on Dramatic poesy‟?

A) Crites B) Neander C) Lisideius D) Eugenius.

10. What is „mimesis?

A) Copy B) reflection C) imitation D) None

11. The play Macbeth is concerned with the historical events of

A) Ireland B) England C) Scotland D) America

12. The character of Lady Macbeth is fully revealed in the famous

A) Murder Scene B) Porter Scene C) Temptation Scene D) Sleepwalking Scene

13. “So fair and foul a day I have not seen” are the words of

A) Macbeth B) Lady Macbeth C) Banquo D) The witches

14. Who is the protagonist of Measure for Measure?

A) Claudio B) Juliet C) Isabella D) The Duke

15. „…….by my modesty, the jewel in my dower, - I would not wish any companion in the world but you‟

The speaker is

A) Miranda B) Ferdinand C) Prospero D) Gonzalo

16. „Shake off slumber, and beware‟ who says this?

A) The invisible Prospero B) The invisible Ariel C) Antonio D) All the above

17. On first looking at Miranda, Ferdinand describes her as

A) A goddess B) A spirit C) A beautiful woman D) A and C

18. According to Arnold what is the remedy for all problems?

A) Science B) Religion C) True love D) Unity.

19. Dover Beach is published in the collection of

A) new poems B) Poems C) A collection of poems D) Poems on Nature.

20. What is an associative poetry?

A) A poem tells about in and around happenings.

B) A poem tells about people

C) A poem tells about Religion

D) a poem about Science



21. Andrea compares himself with

A) Rafael B) Michael Angelo C) Leonard D) Michael.

22. Morte D‟Arthur is published in

A) 1841 B) 1840 C) 1845 D) 1842

23. Who is called as „the prophet of modern society‟

A) Eliot B) Ruskin C) Carlyle D) Arnold.

24. The great prose writer of the Victorian era is

A) Hazlitt B) Arnold C) Carlyle D) Eliot.

25. “Poets are born and not made‟ is told by

A) Johnson B) Carlyle

C) John Webster D) Thomas Middleton.

26. The most popular of Dickens novel is

A) A Tale of Two Cities B) David Copperfield C) Hard Times D) Nicholas Nickleby

27. What are the parts mentioned in “To the Lighthouse”

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

28. Which of the following was not written by Walter Scott?

A) A Dream of Fair Women B) Waverley C) Guy Mannering D) The Antiquary

29. Which one of the following was not written by Shelley?

A) Queen Mab B) Don Juan C) Adonais D) The Cloud

30. Which one of the following was not an essayist of the early nineteenth century?

A) Charles Lamb B) William Hazlitt C) Leigh Hunt D) George Meredith

31. The biographer of Johnson is

A) Mirbeau B) Fletcher C) Boswell D) Beaument

32. The salient qualities of excellent poetry are truth and high seriousness which is addressed by

A) plato B) Aristotle C) Dante D) Acneid

33. What is the meaning of Byzantium?

A) a country of people B) a country of immoral people

C) a country of moral people D) a country of mind



34. Eliot is awarded Nobel prize in

A) 1948 B) 1949 C) 1950 D) 1951

35. How many parts in the „The Waste Land”

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 3

36. The word „Dayatmam‟ quoted in „The Waste Land” means

A) Sympathies B) Control C) Give D) Take

37. In the pastoral elegy the poet assumes to be a

A) Shepherd B) Priest C) pastor D) hunter.

38. Who is the blackmailer of Bulstrode in „Middle March‟?

A) Rafffles B) Lydgate C) Dorothea D) Dunkirk.

39. The other title of „Jude, the Obscure‟ is ---

A) Hardy the Degenerate B) The Anti-marriage League C) Jude, the Victim D) Jude, the rogue.

40. The plays of the early 15th century England was called.

A) miracles B) mysteries C) moralities D) histories

41. Every man is a

A) morality play B) miracle play C) history D) mystery

42. Tindale's translation of the Bible was completed by

A) Luther B) Miles Coverdale C) Calvin D) Lyly

43. The lover of Havisham is

A) Abel Magwitch B) Compeyson C) Jagger D) Herbert pocket.

44. How many plots are intervowen in the novel „Middle March”?

A) 4 B) 3 C) 6 D) 5

45. Which part of England did Burns live?

A) Scotland B) Ireland C) Wales D) South.

46. Which Gallery is called Fourth Estate?

A) Clergy B) Nobles C) People D) Reporters



47. “Hero as the Man of Letters” is the ------------ essay.

A) Second B) first C) third D) fifth.

48. Dickens‟s characters are generally

A) Round B) Flat C) Humorous D) Humanitarian

49. Peroration means

A) Explanation B) summing up C) Understanding D) Concentratio

50. The subtitle of the novel “Middle March” is

A) the study of rich people B) the study of provisional life

C) the study of humans D) the study of psychology

51. Antony‟s first wife is

A) Octavia B) Fulvia C) Cleopatra D) None

52. Prince Hall Kills In single combat.

A) Hotspur B) Henry-IV C) Lancaster D) Falstaff

53. Sycorax was born in ____

A) Naples B) Angier C) Rome D) England

54. Sycorax left Ariel imprisoned in

A) A Cloven pine B) A Boat C) A Cave D) Coconut tree

55. When „Biographia Literaria‟ was first published?

A) 1816 B) 1817 C) 1818 D) 1819

56. In the following line, Chaucer mentions about _______

“A lovyer and a lusty bachelor”

A) Young squire B) Sergent of law C) Monk D) Frier

57. “Faerie Queen poem is cloudily enwrapped in Allegorical devices” – who said?

A) Spenser B) Sidney C) Pope D) Dr. Johnson

58. “The sweet breathing zephyrus did softly play”

This line is from _______

A) Prothalamion B) Epithalamion C) Faerie queen D) None the above



59. Epithalamion poem is published along with ________

A) Shaperds calendar B) Amoretti C) The Faerie queen D) Fowre Hymnes

60. Who is called the father of empiricism?

A) Sidney B) Marlowe C) Bacon D) Kyd

61. Book of job is the greatest poem of ancient and modern times- who said

A) Alfred Lord Tennyson B) Sidney C) Alexander pope D) John Dryden

62. “I will wound Achilles in the heel

And then return to Helen for a kiss.”

Who says these lines?

A) Horatio in Spanish Tragedy B) Subtle in Alchemist

C) Faustus in Dr. Faustus D) Wagner in Dr. Faustus

63. The Name of the knight Rhodes in the play the Spanish Tragedy

A) Erasto B) Erustus C) Euresto D) Erastoe

64. Benjonson‟s Alchemist first performed in _____

A) 1610 B) 1612 C) 1615 D) 1611

65. John Donne‟s canonisation is a ________

A) Spensarion sonnet B) Petrachan sonnet C) Blank verse D) Ode

66. Who is a mighty angel who fought for God in Angelic war?

A) Rapheal B) Michael C) Torquato D) Francesco

67. The Rape of the lock is the most commonly cited example of ______

A) Mock epic B) Satire C) High burlesque D) All the above

68. Milton‟s Samson Agonistus published along with ________

A) Paradise lost B) Comus C) Paradise Regained D) Lycidas

69. “He would adore my gifts instead of me”

This line is from _____ poem

A) Affliction B) To his coy mistress C) The pulley D) Ecstasies

70. To his coy mistress poem is written in _______

A) Iambic pentameter B) Iambic Tetrameter

C) blank verse D) Iambic Hexameter



71. Lives of the poets has short biographies of ______ poets

A) 51 B) 53 C) 54 D) 52

72. Bunyan began “Pilgrims progress” while he was in prison for violating ________ Act

A) conventional B) contrivital C) convinctal D) conventicle

73. Who is Mrs. Deborah Wilkins in Tom Jones?

A) Miss Western‟s servant B) Bridget‟s servant

C) Squire All worthy‟s servant D) None the above

74. “Chill Tulle” is an example of what?

A) Sight rhyme B) Approximate rhyme

C) Alliteration D) Assonance

75. What is the „House” referred to in the fourth stanza?

A) A cellar B) The narrator‟s home C) The grave D) A Church

76. Plath‟s Poetry is considers Part of which movement?

A) Confessional Poetry B) Romanticism

C) Modernism D) Realism

77. What is the name of the collection of poems in which Robert frost‟s poem “Mending Wall” was first

published?

A) New Hampshire B) North of Boston C) A Boy‟s will D) Mountain interwar

78. At one point in “mending wall” the speaker describes his neighbour as:

A) “an old – stone savage” B) “a though old-bird”

C) “an ornamental frog” D) “A Peg-legged manure man”

79. What words best capture the tone of “Birches”?

A) Contemplative expectant B) Grave, despondent

C) Dreamy content D) Meditative, wistful

80. What is Constance‟s in heritance?

A) A Dowery B) She is destitute C) Jewels D) A set of Gours

81. Which of following is not an example of Marlow‟s vanity?

A) His worry about clothes B) His worry about Education

C) His worry about Social Standing D) His worry about a Woman‟s Beauty



82. From whom does Allworthy receive a letter that clears Tom from blame?

A) Square B) Thwackum C) Mrs. Waters D) Blifil

83. Where did fielding travel to study law?

A) Italy B) Holland C) France D) Prussia

84. What does Tom get thrown into jail for?

A) Offending a noble woman B) Public drunkenness C) Stealing a silver candle sticks D) Stabbing Fitz Partrick

85. Who turns out to be Tom‟s real mother?

A) Mrs. Miller B) Bridget Allworthy C) Jenny Jones D) Mrs. Western

86. What does Belinda wear around her neck?

A) A cross B) A locket C) A ribbon D) A ruby

87. Who gets accidentally cut by the scissors?

A) The Bardon B) Clarissa C) One of the Sylphs

88. Whither does umbriel Journey?

A) Hades B) The cave of Spleen

C) The cave of Despair D) The cave of Envy

89. Some readers of Herbert have seen him as a

A) Politician B) Farmer C) Rebel D) Saint

90. Pliable turns back to the city of Destruction after a bad experience in

A) the doubting castle B) the slough of despond

C) the Detectable mountains D) the interpreter‟s house

91. After seeing the cross and climbing the hill of Difficulty, Christian falls asleep and loses

A) his certificate of entry to the celestial city B) his burden

C) his bible D) his money

92. Discretion, Piety, Charity, and Prudence are

A) fellow pilgrims B) mistress of the palace beautiful

C) prisoner of the giant despaid free by Christian D) servants of madam Bubble

93. The streets of the celestial city are paved with________________

A) silver B) gold C) diamonds D) good intentions



94. Stand fast shows admirable courage in resisting

A) Demas B) Giant despair C) Malu D) Madam Bubble

95. Which character sneakers over the wall of salvation?

A) Christian B) Providence C) Piety D) Formalist

96. What best describes Christian?

A) Disorganised B) complex C) Goal oriented D) Erudite

97. Where does Christian rest on the hill of difficulty?

A) a rose garden B) a meadow C) A knoll D) an arbour

98. What do the boys steal from the garden?

A) fruit B) flowers C) a dog D) an arbour

99. Why does Alexas say he was wrong to manipulate Cleopatra?

A) a servant should not control his master B) a person who is suicidal cannot be influenced

C) a person who is in love cannot be influenced D) a man should not control a woman

100. Who is onstage at the beginning of Act 1, Scene 1?

A) only lady Sneer well B) lady Sneer well, snake and servant

C) lady Sneer well and snake D) only snake

101. How is Sir Peter related to Maria?

A) she is his daughter by birth B) she is his word

C) she is his young wife D) she is his mistress

102. Where does the Act 1, Scene 1, take place?

A) a brother B) a tea – house C) a chocolate – house D) lady Wish fort house

103. What sort of verse in the poem Tintern Abbey written in?

A) Leonine verse B) Free verse C) Rhyming D) Blank verse

104. Which of the following is not a kind of punctuation used in this poem Tintern Abbey?

A) Exclamation point B) question mark C) periods D) semicolon

105. Which of the following is a notable adjective used to describe the river?

A) dry B) roaring C) sylvan D) Terrifying



106. What year was the poem Tintern Abbey composed?

A) 1698 B) 1798 C) 1750 D) 1800

107. Where is the wind said to blow?

A) Bare crag B) Bald field C) Burnt forest D) Blue lagoon

108. What does the speaker refer the urn to?

A) “An unravished bride of quietness” B) “Leaf fring‟d legend haunts”

C) “Sylvan author” D) “bold lover”

109. What does citadel mean in the context of the poem?

A) Fortress occupied by soldiers B) A wooden podium

C) Coarse dirt D) The city the urn depicts

110. “Sylvan his torian” refers to anything pertaining to _____________

A) Balloons B) Beans C) Woods D) Food

111. jp tpy; Ny[; fhNy[; vd;w ntspehl;bd; mbg;gilapy; rKjha gs;spia Kjd; Kjypy; epWtpath; ahh;? A),thd; ,ypr; B) n`d;wp Nkhhp]; C) [hd; ^ap D)[hd; N`hy;l; 112. kz;ly fy;tpapay; fy;Y}hpfs; (Regional college of Education) Kjd; Kjypy; Muk;gpf;fg;gl;l Mz;L A) 1961 B) 1962 C) 1963 D) 1964 113. “Communication” vDk; nrhy; ve;j nkhopr;nrhy; A) fpNuf;fk; B) ,yj;jPd; C) gpnuQ;r; D) muG 114. Foe;ijg;gUt fy;tpjpl;lj;ij nfhz;Lte;jth; ahh;? A) GNuhngy; B) &Nrh C) khpah khz;bNrhp D) ngl;uhz;l; u];]y;; 115. Kjd; Kjypy; ______ Mz;L nraw;ifNfhs; cjtpAld; njhiyfhl;rpahy; fy;tp epfo;r;rpfs; xspg;gug;ggl;ld. A) 1974 B) 1975 C) 1976 D) 1977 116. fy;tp El;gtpaiy ,U Kf;fpag; gphpTfshf ________ vd;gtd; tifg;gLj;jpdh;. A) F.D. &];nty;l; B) lhf;lh; Nf. rpq; C) &gp fpl; D)Nfhgp Mde;j; 117. ypguy; fy;tp Kiw cs;s ehL vJ? A) ,q;fpyhe;J B) mnkhpf;fh C) fdlh D) ];fhl;yhe;J



118. jhdhf ,aq;Fk; Nrhjid rhjdq;fis cUthf;fpath; A) ];fpd;dh; B) fpnuslh; C) rpl;dp gpnu];]p D) midtUk; 119. rpwe;j Kiwf;fy;tp Kiw vjd; msthFk;. A) fy;tpapy; fzpdp B) fy;tpapy; Rje;jpuk; C) fy;tpg; gd;dhl;Lkakhjy; D) fy;tpapy; jd;dhl;rp 120. njhopy; rhh;e;j ghlq;fspy; gapw;Wtpf;f Mrphpah;fis mspf;FkhW 10 + 2 + 3 fy;tpf;FO fUj;Jf; $wpa Mz;L A) 1970 B) 1972 C) 1975 D) 1978 121. fy;tp vd;gJ jj;Jtj;jpd; Mw;wy; tha;e;j gf;fkhFk; ,ij $wpath; A) Mjk;]; B) n`h;gh;l; ];ngd;rh; C) nkf;nfd;rp D) bNuth; 122. MML vd;gJ A) Medium Mastery Learning B) Maximum Mastery Learning C) Modern Mastery Learning D) Minimum Master Learning

123. cl;]; mwpf;if ghpe;Jiuj;jJ? A) ngz;fy;tp B) K];yPk; fy;tp C) njhopw;fy;tp D) midj;Jk; 124. Kjd; Kjyhf Nky;epiyg;gs;spf; fy;tpapd; mtrpaj;ij czh;j;jpa fy;tpf;FO. A) rhl;yh; fy;tpf;FO B) `z;lh; fy;tpf;FO C) Kjypahh; fy;tpf;FO D) Nfhj;jhhpf; fy;tpf;FO 125. “The Agriculture of blind” vd;w mikg;G vq;F Vw;gLj;jg;gl;lJ.

A) jkpo;ehL B) uh[];jhd; C) fh;ehlfk; D) F[uhj; 126. UNESCO Mjhpj;jf; fy;tp vJ? A) ngz; fy;tp B) CdKw;Nwhh; fy;tp C) kPj;jpwd; Foe;ij D) midj;Jk; 127. jPq;F tpistpf;ff;$ba fopTfs; tpjp nfhz;L tug;gl;l Mz;L A) 1989 B) 1998 C) 1999 D) 2000 128. Noise vd;w thh;j;ij ve;j nkhop? A) y;j;jPd; B) fpNuf;fk; C) gpnuQ;r; D) Mq;fpyk; 129. ];khh;l; gs;sp gpugykile;j ehL. A) mnkhpf;fh B) ,q;fpyhe;J C) fdlh D) kNyrpah



130. Ftpd;]p Kiwapy; elj;Jk; gs;sp vJ? A) Kw;Nghf;F gs;sp B) elkhL gs;sp C) kpjf;Fk; gs;sp D) ghh;f;fh; gs;sp 131. vhpf;rdpd; r%f kd tsh;r;rp Nfhl;ghL vd;gJ vjd; mbg;gilapypUe;J Njhd;wpaJ. A) vNfhy;gh;f;fpd; Nfhl;ghL B) gpuha;l; Nfhl;ghL C) ght;y; Nfhl;ghL D) gpahN[apd; Nfhl;ghL 132. “Private Speech” vd;wf; fUj;ij mwpKfg;gLj;jpath;. A) itfhl;];fp – Vygotsky

B) Nfghd;];fp – Zobansky

C) fhl;lh Nfhk;];fp – Gata komsky

D) [Pd; gpahN[ - Jean Piaget

133. mwpjpwd; nray;fs; vd;gJ ehd;F NtWgl;l kdr; nray;fshy; eilngWfpwJ ,e;jr; nray;fis thpirg;gLj;J. A) Gyd; czh;T – Gyd;fhl;rp – fw;wy; - ftdk;.

B) Gyd; czh;T – Gyd;fhl;rp – ftdk; - fw;wy; C) Gyd; czh;T – fw;wy; - ftdk; - Gyd;fhl;rp D) Gyd; czh;T – ftdk; - Gyd;fhl;rp – fw;wy; 134. “Occation setting” j];tha; mikg;G vd;wr; nrhy;iy mwpKfg;gLj;jpath;. A) kf;^fy; (1973) B) Nu];Nfhh;yh (1986) C) `hye;j; (1983) D) jhk];Ff; (1990) 135. Mf;fj;jpwNdhL njhlh;GilaJ. A) ehl;lk; B) Mh;tk; C) Ez;zwpT D) MSik 136. “Deviation of IQ” vd;w nrhy;iy ngawpl;lth;. A) [Pd; gpahN[ B) Nltpl; ntf;];yh; C) tpy;ypak; ];nlh;d; D) nlh;kd; 137. PIED d; tphpthf;fk; A) Project Integrated Education for Disabled

B) Project Integrated Education for Devotees C) Project Individualised Education for Disabled D) Problem of Integrated Education for Disabled

138. MSik Nfhl;ghl;by; tifg;ghl;L mZFKiwapid Kjypy; cUthf;fpath;. A) A+q; B) fphpl;r;kh; C) `pg;Nghfpuhl;]; D) n\y;ld;



139. fPo;fz;ltw;iw nghUj;Jf. 1. Nyctophobia - a) fear of darkness

2. Pathophobia - b) fear of blood

3. Toxophobia - c) fear of closed place

4. Clustrophobia - d) fear of diseases

5. Haematopobia - e) fear of being poisoned

A) 1-a, 2-d, 3-e, 4-c, 5-b B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-e, 4-a, 5-b D) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-e, 5-d

140. kdNeha; jPh;f;Fk; khjphpia Kjd; Kjypy; mwpKfk; nra;jth;. A) J. N[hd; B) rpf;kz;l; gpuha;l; C) My;gpul; ghz;LNu D) ,thd; P. ght;yt; 141. Of the following who was the last Governor general of India?

A) Dalhousie B) Canning C) Raja Gopalachari D) Lord Mount Batten

142. Gandhiji‟s famous Quit India Call to the British was given in

A) 1940 B) 1941 C) 1942 D) 1943

143. The metal present in haemoglobin is

A) Magnesium B) Iron C) Copper D) Zinc

144. The first women President of the Indian National Congress was

A) Annie Besant B) Kasturba Gandhi C) Sarojini Naidu D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

145. Barometer is an Instrument to measure

A) Atmospheric pressure B) Blood Pressure C) water pressure D) None of these

146.The next unit in Kalpakkam is going is use

A) Thorium B) Uranium C) Plutonium D) None of these

147. The Industry was started first in India?

A) Leather B) Jute C) Cotton textile D) Iron

148. Vit E deficiency is cause

A) rickets B) Sterility C) anaemia D) night blindness

149. Number of bones in human body is

A) 220 B) 215 C) 206 D) 225

150. The headquarter of Green Peace International is located in

A) Amseudam B) Geneva C) Lisbon D) Australia



ANSWER KEY: MODEL FULL TEST - I

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

D A B C D B D B A C C C A C A

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B A C A A A D D B B B B A B D

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

C B D A B A A A B A A B B D A

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

D D B B B B A C A B A A A B C

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

A C A A B B D C C B D D C B C

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

A B A D C B A B D B A C B D B

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105

A B B D D C D A A C B C D B C

106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

B A A A C B C B C A B B C D D

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135

C D D A D A A A D B A D C C

136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

B A C A D C C B A C B D D C A

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FUTURE VISION STUDY CENTREfuturevisiontnpsc.com/uploads/info_txt/PG-Eng-Model_Test-I_(21-09-2019).pdf · PG – TRB -ENGLISH ~ 4 ~ FUTURE VISION STUDY CENTRE – SALEM CONTACT : 90420