MicrobiologyExcelsior Exam (ISM)

Question Answer

Who observed cells in plant material? Hooke

Who proved that microorganisms caused disease? Koch

Viruses cannot reproduce outside of a _____ ____ host cell

What finding was essential for Jenner's vaccination process?

A weakened microorganism may produce immunity

Recombinant DNA technology can be used to make what? human hormones, vaccines, drugs

You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely has a...........

peptidoglycan cell wall.

A nucleated, green cell that moves by means of flagella is....

an algae

An agent that reproduces in cells but is not composed of cells and contain RNA as its genetic material is a....

virus

A multicellular organism that has a mouth and lives in an animal host is a

helminth

In the name Escherichia coli, coli is the specific..... epithet

You are looking at a white cottony growth on a culture medium. Microscopic examination reveals it is multicellular. You can conclude that the organism......

- has DNA enclosed in a nucleus -has cell walls -absorbs organic nutrients -is eukaryotic

Members of what groups contain DNA? -bacteria -helminths -fungi -protozoa

What groups have cell walls? -bacteria -fungi -plantae

You are observing a cell through a microscope and note that it has no apparent nucleus. You conclude that it most likely has a...........

peptidoglycan cell wall.

What is true about enzymes?- lover activation energy of reaction- are not used up in a reaction- are made of proteins

What type of bond is between molecules of water in a beaker of water?

Hydrogen bond

What type of bond holds hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a molecule of H2O?

covalent bond

What type of molecule contains the alcohol glycerol? lipids

What type of molecule is composed of CH2O units? carbohydrates

Structurally, ATP is most like what type of molecule? nucleic acids

What molecule has chemicals in genes? nucleic acid

Which molecule is composed of a chain of amino acids? proteins

What are the primary molecules making up plasma lipids

membranes in cells?

Starch, dextran, glycogen, and cellulose are polymers of... glucose

What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope?

specimen

What are the steps of the Gram Stain?1. Alcohol-acetane -2. Crystal violet -3. Safranin -4.Iodine

The counterstain in the acid-fast stain is a basic... dye

The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to prevent the..

crystal violet from leaving the cells

The best uses of a negative stain is to determine... cell size and shape

Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in what microscope?

electron microscope

What microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state?

phase-contrast microscope

What microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution?

electron microscope

The light that hits the specimen is scattered and does not come directly from the light source in what microscope?

darkfield microscope

What microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structure?

phase-contrast microscope

What is the appearance of gram-positive bacteria after addition of the first dye in the Gram stain?

purple

What is the appearance of gram-negative bacteria after addition of the decolorizing agent in the Gram stain?

colorless

What is the total magnification of a chloroplast viewed with a 10X ocular lens and a 45X objective lens?

450X

You suspect a 100 nm structure is present in a cell. What provides the lowest magnification that you can use to see this structure?

scanning electron microscope

Assume you stain Bacillus by applying malachite green with heat then counterstaining with safranin. Through the microscope, the green structures are...

endospores

(51)You find colorless areas in cells in a Gram-stained smear. What should you do next?

an endospore stain

What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? Gram-positive

Bacteria smears are fixed before staining to... kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide

The purpose of the ocular lens is to magnify the image from the....

objective lens

What is true about gram-positive cell walls?-maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains teichoic acids

What happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?

water will move out of the cell

Force of which a solvent moves across a semi-permeable membrane from a higher to a lower concentration is....

osmotic pressure

By what mechanism can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration?

active transport

Characteristic of the plasma membrane:1.selectively permeable -2. site of cell wall formation -3.compoed of phospholipid bilayer -4.contains proteins

The mitochondrion most closely resembles what type of cell?

prokaryotic

What is true of prokaryotic cells?1.motile by means of flagella -2.reproduce by binary fission -3.have a semirigid cell wall

What are some structures found in prokaryotic cells?1.axial filament -2.peritrichous flagella -3.flagella -4.Pili

What are some parts of the active transport process?1.transports protein -2.ATP -3.plasma membrane -4.fungi

What Gram reaction do you expect from acid-fast bacteria? Gram-positive

Bacteria smears are fixed before staining to... kill the bacteria and affix the cells to the slide

The purpose of the ocular lens is to magnify the image from the....

objective lens

What is true about gram-positive cell walls?-maintains shape -sensitive to lysozyme -contains teichoic acids

What happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5% NaCl?

water will move out of the cell

In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in... chromatophores

The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion requires

transporter proteins

(67)What cell structure has a role in the initiation of disease?

Fimbria

Fimbria and pili differ in that pili are used to transfer... DNA

Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell?

plasma membrane

What is found in mitochondria and prokaryotes?-the circular chromosome -the ATP generating mechanism -70S ribosomes

What is found in Archaea? Pseudomurein

What is found in mycoplasmas? Sterol-rich cell membranes

(73) What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme?

the cell will undergo osmotic lysis

What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl the cell will plasmolyze

with penicillin?

What are some energy reserves?-sulfur granules -lipid inclusions -metachromatic granules -polysaccharide granules

The bacteria on the outside of termite protozoa.. propel the protozoan

What compounds are enzymes? -dehydrogenase -cellulase -B galactosidase

How many molecules of ATP can be generated from the complex oxidation of glucose to CO2 and H2O?

38

What is true about anaerobic respiration?1.involves the Krebs cycle -2.requires cytochromes -3.involves the reduction of nitrate -4.generates ATP

What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration?

it is oxidized in the Krebs cycle

Fatty acids are catabolized in the... Krebs cycle

According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, ATP is generated when...

protons are moved across a membrane

What are some end products of fermentation? -glycerol -acetone -ethyl alcohol -lactic acid

A strictly fermentative bacterium produces energy by... glycolysis only

What percent of the total ATP produced from the complete catabolism of glucose is produced by aerobic respiration?

89%

What is true about beta oxidation?1.it is the method of catabolizing fatty acids- 2.involves the formation of acetyl CoA- 3.involves the formation of 2 carbon units

The oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors is...

fermentation

Aerobic respiration differs from anaerobic respiration in what respect?

the final electron acceptors are different

In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 come from...

CO2

What uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy? Chemoautotroph

What uses glucose for carbon and energy? Chemoheterotroph

What has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon?

Photoheterotroph

Cyanobacteria are an example of what? Photoautotroph

An enzyme, citrate synthase, in the Krebs cycle is inhibited by ATP; this is an example of what types of inhibitions?

-noncompetitive inhibition-feedback inhibition-allosteric inhibition

A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely

using the peptides

When oxygen is unavailable, Halobacterium produce ATP by

photophosphorylation

The addition of what to a culture medium will neutralize buffers

acids?

Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a hypertonic environment

The term facultative anaerobe refers to an organism that uses

oxygen or grows without oxygen

What are some disadvantages of the standard plate count?-cells may form aggregates -chemical and physical requirements are determined by media and incubation -requires incubation time

What are some disadvantages of the direct microscopic count?

-no incubation time -enumerate dead cells -large number of cells is required -some organisms are motile

What is used to determine metabolic activity?-decreased dissolved oxygen -NO2 produced from the electron transport chain -CO2 produced from the Krebs cycle -acid production from fermentation

Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?

36

Most bacteria grow best at pH of 7

A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo surrounds Staphylococcus aureus colonies is called a...

selective medium and a differential medium

A culture medium consisting of agar, human blood, and beef heart is a __________ medium

complex

During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?

log phase

The length of time it takes for a cell to divide is generation time

What group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?

Halophiles

Name an organic growth factor. NAD+

What is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?

Glucose consumption

An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cell go through?

5

The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is peptone and beef extract

Producers in the hydrothermal vents on the ocean floor use CO2 for their carbon source and what for energy?

sulfide

What best describes the pattern of microbial growth? The cells in a population die at a constant rate

What is a substance that can sterilize? Ethylene oxide

What is used for surgical hand scrubs? Chlorhexidine

Name some heavy metals. -silver nitrate -Merthiolate -Mercurochrome

Phenolics differ from phenol in that phenolics are ... -relatively odorless -more effective antibacterial

agents -nonirritating

(126) What substances achieve sterilization?-Ethylene oxide -autoclave -formaldehyde -dry heat

What is a limitation of the autoclave? Use with heat-labile materials

What is a direct result of heat?-breaking sulfhydryl bonds -breaking hydrogen bonds -denaturing enzymes

What substance is the least effective antimicrobial agent? soap

What are effective against nonenveloped viruses? -Ethylene oxide -Chlorine -Ozone

Which concentration of ethyl alcohol is the most effective bactericide?

70%

What could be used to sterilize plastic Petri plates in a plastic wrapper?

Gamma radiation

(136) Foods are preserved with...-potassium sorbate -sodium propionate -sodium nitrate

What is the most useful for disinfecting medical instruments?

Quats

What is most resistant to chemical biocides? Mycobacteria

A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional product is a

Gene

The lagging strand of DNA is started by an ______ primer. RNA

The leading strand of DNA is made..... continuously

Multiple replication forks are possible on a bacterial ____________

chromosome

________ joins nucleotides in one direction only. DNA polymerase

What are some products of transcription? mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, rDNA

What is true about bacteriocins?

-Bacteria that produce bacteriocins are resistant to their own bacteriocins -the genes coding for them are on plasmids -Nisin is a bacteriocin used as a food preservative

An enzyme produced in response to the presence of a substrate is called

an inducible enzyme

Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell

by a bacteriophage

The initial effect of ionizing radiation on a cell is that it causes the formation of...

highly reactive ions

According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the _______ must bind to the __________

substrate; repressor

Synthesis of a repressible enzyme is stopped by the ______________ binding to the operator

corepressor-repressor

Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation transfers __________horizontally to cells in the same _________

DNA; generation

The necessary ingredients for DNA synthesis can be mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus and the template is from a human cell. The DNA synthesized would be most similar to

human DNA

What is the mechanism by which the presence of glucose inhibits the arabinose operon?

catabolic repression

An enzyme that covalently bonds nucleotide sequences in DNA is..

DNA ligase

An enzyme that copies DNA to make a molecule of RNA is...

RNA polymerase

An enzyme that cuts double stranded DNA at specific nucleotide sequences is

the restriction enzyme

An enzyme that cuts and seals DNA is transposase

In transcription, ______ is copied to ______ DNA; RNA

A cell that cannot make _______, cannot make _______ tRNA; proteins

If you have inserted a gene in the Ti, the next step in genetic engineering is inserting Ti into___________

Agrobacterium

What is a "hit or miss" method of making rDNA? protoblast fusion

Pieces of DNA stored in yeast cells are called a .... Library

A population of cells carrying a desired plasmid is called a.....

clone

Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a ...

vector

A technique used to identify bacteria carrying a specific gene is called a....

Southern blot

What technique is used to alter one amino acid in protein? site-direct mutagenesis

(169) What organism naturally possesses the Ti plasmid? Agrobacterium tumefaciens

What organism degrades PCB's and has been engineered to produce BT toxin?

Pseudomonas

An example of gene therapy is insertion of the _______gene in a diabetic person's _________ cells

insulin; pancreas

The use of antibiotic resistance gene on a plasmid used in genetic engineering makes ____ ______ possible

direct selection

A specific gene can be inserted into a cell by what means?1.a gene gun -2.electroporation -3.microinjection -4.agrobacterium

PCR can be used to identify an unknown bacterium because the...

RNA primer is specific

Foreign DNA can be inserted into cells by what means.-electroporation, -transformation, -a gene gun, -protoplast fusion

What is true of Archaea?

-they lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls, -they are prokaryotes, -some produce methane from carbon dioxide and hydrogen, -some are thermoacidophiles, -others are extreme halophiles

What characterizes Domain Bacteria? Prokaryotic cells; ester linkages in phospholipids

The outstanding characteristic of the Kingdom Fungi is.... absorption of dissolved organic matter

What is true about members of the Kingdom Plantae?-can photosynthesize, -are multicellular, -use inorganic energy sources, -have eukaryotic cells

What is true about the Kingdom Animalia?-use organic carbon sources, -are multicellular, -have eukaryotic cells, -use organic energy sources

A taxon comprised of one or more species and below family is a....

genus

The phylogenetic classification of bacteria is based on ____ sequences

rRNA

In the scientific name Enterobacter aerogenes, Enterobacter is the....

genus

Bacteria and Archaea are similar in which of the following ways?

Possess prokaryotic cells

A group of cells all derived from a single parent is a.... strain

Serological testing is based on the fact that _______ react specifically with an ________

antibodies; antigen

Phage typing is based on the fact that _______viruses attack specific ________

bacterial; cells

Genetically identical cells derived from a single cell is a.... clone

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic cell that lacks a nucleus?

Bacteria

Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls?

Fungi

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group?

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)

What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize

What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods

What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which

Archaea

group?

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)

What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize

What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods

What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group?

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)

What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize

What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods

What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group?

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)

What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize

What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods

What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis

You discovered a unicellular organism that lacks a nucleus and peptidoglycan. You suspect the organism is in which group?

Archaea

Into which group would you place a photosynthetic organism that lacks a nucleus and has a thin peptidoglycan wall surrounded by an outer membrane?

Proteobacteria (Gram-negative bacteria)

What indicates that two organisms are closely related? their DNA can hybridize

What is found primarily in the intestines of humans? facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods

What is most resistant to high temperatures? Bacillus subtilis

What are some characteristics of spirochetes?-difficult to culture in vitro, -helical shape, -possess an axial filament, -gram negative

You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing an organic substrate and nitrate in the absence of oxygen. The nitrate is reduced to nitrogen gas. This bacterium is using _________ _________

anaerobic respiration

What lacks a cell wall? Mycoplasma

What forms conidiospores? Actinomycetes and related organisms

Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify Haemophilus

You have isolated a bacterium that grows in a medium containing only inorganic nutrients. Ammonia is oxidized to nitrate ion. This bacterium is a ____________

chemoautotroph

Escherichia coli belongs to the.... proteobacteria

What is true about the causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

-gram negative, -transmitted by ticks, -in the genus Rickettsia, -an intracellular parasite

The bacteria responsible for more infections and more different kinds of infections are....

Streptococcus

The nonsulfur photosynthetic bacteria use organic compound as...

electron donors to reduce CO2

What is the best reason to classify Streptococcus in the Lactobacillales?

rRNA sequences

Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, and Serratia are all ..... gram negative facultatively anaerobic rods

You have isolated a prokaryotic cell. The first step in identification is a...

gram stain

Actinomycetes differ from fungi because Actinomycetes laca a...

membrane bounded nucleus

Caulobacter are different from most bacteria because they have ______

stalks

What should you do if you suspect a patient has tuberculosis?

Do an acid-fast stain

What is true about fungi?-are heterotrophic, -have eukaryotic cells, -few are pathogenic to humans, -most are aerobic

What is true about helminths?-some have male and female reproductive organs in one animal, -have eukaryotic cells, -are heterotrophic, -are multicellular

What is true about protozoa?-may have flagella or cilia, -may reproduce sexually, -have eukaryotic cells, -are unicellular

A lichen doesn't exist if the ______ and ______ partners are separated.

fungal; algal

In lichen, the fungus provides the _________ holdfast

In lichen, the alga produce_______ carbohydrates

Lichens are important to ________ producers soil

Transmission of helminthic diseases to humans is usually by...

the gastrointestinal route

What characteristics of parasitic Platyhelminthes?-dorsoventrally flattened, -divided into flukes and tapeworms, -are hermaphroditic

Cercariae, metacercaria, miracidia, and rediae are stages in the life cycle of...

nematodes

What arthropods transmit diseases while sucking blood from a human?

-lice, -fleas, -kissing bugs, -mosquitos

What is true about algae?

-some are capable of sexual reproduction, -use CO2 as their carbon source, -use light as their energy source, -produce oxygen from hydrolysis of water

A definitive host harbors which stage of a parasite? adult

The microspora and archaezoa are unusual eukaryotes because they lack...

mitochondria

What is the most effective control for malaria? vaccination

What multinucleated amoebalike cells produce fungus-like spores?

Plasmodial slime mold

What organism can grow photoautotrophically in the light and chemoheterotrophically in the dark?

Euglena

The cells of plasmodial slime molds can grow to several centimeters in diameter because they distribute nutrients by...

cytoplasmic streaming

If larvae of Echinococcus granulosus is found in humans, humans are the....

intermediate host

Yeast infections are caused by... Candida albicans

Leishmania is an euglenozoa. What is true about this organism?

-is flagellated, -is transmitted by sandflies, -a human parasite

What way does viruses differ from bacteria? viruses are not composed of cells

What provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving chemicals?

They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host

What is true about spikes?-only found on enveloped viruses, -used for absorption, -may cause hemagglutination

What is the criterion to classify viruses?-morphology, -size, -Nucleic acid, -number of capsomeres

Phage DNA is incorporated into host cell DNA is lysogeny

A naked infectious piece of RNA is a... viroid

A clear area against a confluent "lawn" of bacteria is called a...

plaque

Lysogeny can result in..-acquisition of new characteristics by the host cell, -transduction of specific genes, -immunity to reinfection by the same phage

An infection protein is a prion

An envelope is acquired during which of the following steps?

release

An example of a latent viral infection is cold sores

The most common route of accidental AIDS transmission to health care workers is...

needle stick

To which group does a small, nonenveloped single stranded RNA virus most likely belong?

Picornavirus

Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA

Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host animal cell supplies..

-tRNA, -RNA polymerase, -nucleotides

Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and _______

Hepadnaviridae; Retroviridae

What is true of viruses?contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery of the cell, -contain DNA or RNA but never both

To which group does a small, nonenveloped single stranded RNA virus most likely belong?

Picornavirus

Bacteriophages derive what from the host cell? -nucleotides, -amino acids, -tRNA

Generally, in DNA-containing virus infection, the host animal cell supplies..

-tRNA, -RNA polymerase, -nucleotides

Viruses that have reverse transcriptase are in _______ and _______

Hepadnaviridae; Retroviridae

What is true of viruses?contain a protein coat, -use the anabolic machinery of the cell, -contain DNA or RNA but never both

Nontoxic strains of Vibrio cholerae can become toxic when they are in the human intestine with toxic strains of bacteria. This suggest that the toxin genes are acquired by

transduction

An oncogenic RNA virus must have what enzyme? reverse transcriptase

Most RNA viruses carry what enzyme? RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

A commensal bacterium may be an opportunistic pathogen

_____ refers to different organisms living together Symbiosis

A nosocomial infection is acquired during the course of hospitalization

Koch's postulates don't apply to disease because all diseases aren't caused by..

microorganisms

What are some diseases that spread by droplet infection? Diphtheria, -tuberculosis, -common cold, -measles

Mechanical transmission differs from biological transmission in that mechanical transmission doesn't

involve specific diseases

What infection can cause septicemia? focal infection

Transient microbiota differ from normal microbiota because transient microbiota are

present for a relatively short time

One effect of washing regularly with antibacterial agents is the removal of normal microbiota. This can result in ..

increased susceptibility to disease

What is a fomite? A hypodermic needle

What is true of biological transmission?

the pathogen may require the vector as a host, -pathogens may be injected by the bite of the vector, -pathogen may enter the host in the vector's feces, -the pathogen reproduces in the vector

A disease that develops slowly and last for months is chronic

A initial illness is a primary infection

A short lasting primary infection is acute

Infection characteristic of a carrier state is inapparent

The science that deals with the point in time when diseases occur and how they are transmitted is called...

epidemiology

A cold transmitted by facial tissue is an example of... vehicle transmission

Influenza transmitted by an unprotected sneeze is an example of...

droplet transmission

A sexually transmitted disease is an example of direct contact

Gastroenteritis acquired from roast beef is an example of vehicle transmission

A needle stick is an example of a fomite

The yeast Candida albicans does not usually cause disease because of

antagonist bacteria

What contributes to the incidence of nosocomial infections?

lapse in aseptic techniques, -lack of insect control, -lack of hand washing, -formation of biofilms

The most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens is the

mucous membranes of the respiratory tract

What diseases are usually contracted by the respiratory route?

measles, -tuberculosis, -pneumonia

How do most pathogens gain access through the skin? enter through hair follicles and sweat glands

Kinase destroys fibrin clots

________ breaks down substances between cells. Hyaluronidase

________ destroys neutrophils Leukocidins

_______ lyse red blood cells Hemolysins

What is true of exotoxins?have specific methods of action, -composed of proteins, -more potent than endotoxins, -produced by gram positive bacteria

Cytopathic effects are changes in host cells due to viral infections

What contributes to symptoms of fungal disease? allergic response to the host, -toxins, -capsules

Methods of avoiding host antibodies Invasims, -IgA protease, -antigenic change

Siderophores are bacterial proteins that compete with animal

transferrin

Botulism is caused by an exotoxin; therefore, it could easily be prevented by

boiling food prior to consumption

(298) What organisms can produce exotoxin?Staphylococcus aureus, -Corynebacterium diphtheriae, -Clostridium tetani, -Clostridium botulinum

The symptoms of tetanus are due to the exotoxin produced by

Clostridium tetani

What is true of staphylococcal enterotoxin? causes vomiting, -diarrhea, -is an exotoxin

Septic shock due to gram positive bacteria is caused by superantigens

A needle stick is an example of what portal of entry? parenteral route

The mechanism by which gram negative bacteria can cross the blood brain barrier is by

inducing TNF

Injectable drugs are tested for endotoxins by the Limulus amoebocyte lysate test

Endotoxins in injectable drugs could cause nerve damage

Antibiotics can lead to septic shock if used to treat... gram negative bacterial infections

The body's defenses against any kind of pathogen is innate immunity

What are some physical factors to protect the skin and mucous membranes from infection?

tears, -saliva, -layers of cells

Removing microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract is the function of the

ciliary escalator

What are some characteristics of inflammation? pain, -swelling, -redness, -local heat

The complement protein cascade is the same for the classical pathway, alternative pathway, and lectin pathway beginning with the activation of_____

C3

Adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels is margination

What is normally found in serum? complement

What is an effect of complement activation?increased blood vessel permeability, -opsonization, -bacterial cell lysis, -increased phagocytic activity

Defensive cells such as T cells identify pathogens by binding

toll like receptors

What are some effects of histamine? redness, -pain, -vasodilation, -swelling

A _____ is a sign the body temperature is rising chill

Complement fixation results inactivation of C3b, -cell lysis, -opsonization, -immune adherence

Neutrophils with defective lysosomes are unable to produce

toxic oxygen products

Activation of C5-C9 results in leakage of cell contents

What is involved in adaptive immunity? lymphocyte

What is involved in resistance to parasitic helminths? Eosinophil

Macrophages arise from what? monocyte

Bacteria have siderophores that capture iron; humans counter this by

transferrins

What are some effects of fever?increases production of T cells, -increases interferon activity, -increases transferrin production

Bacterial enzymes such as a catalase and superoxide dismutase can protect bacteria from

phagocytic digestion

A type of immunity resulting from vaccination is artificially acquired active immunity

The type of immunity resulting from transfer of antibodies from one individual to a susceptible individual by means of injection is

artificially acquired passive immunity

Immunity resulting from recovery from mumps is naturally acquired active immunity

Newborns immunity due to the transfer of antibodies across the placenta is

naturally acquired passive immunity

T-cells are activated by interaction between CD$ and MHC II

The specificity of an antibody is due to the variable portions of the H and L chains

Characteristics of cellular immunity--it can inhibit the immune response, --the cells originate in bone marrow,--cells are processed in the thymus gland

Plasma cells are activated by an antigen

The antibodies that can bind to large parasites are IgE

In addition to IgG, the antibodies that can fix complement are

IgM

Definition of antigenA chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies

Definition of antibodya protein made in response to an antigen that can combine with that antigen

(346) Patients with an inherited type of colon cancer called familial adenomatous polyposis have a mutation in the gene that codes for

apoptosis

Chemical signals sent between leukocytes are interleukins

Natural killer cellsdestroy tumor cells--destroy virus infected cells--destroy cells lacking MHC-I

Antigens coated with antibodies are susceptible to phagocytosis

Cell death caused by perforin and granzymes is caused by cytotoxic T lymphocytes

Antigen-antibody binding may result incomplement activation-- opsonization of the antigen--agglutination of the antigens--neutralization of the antigen

What are normally used in vaccinations?Parts of bacterial cells, inactivated viruses, toxoid, live attenuated bacteria

If a patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin, this indicates

The patient may have been vaccinated, or a recent transfusion may have passively introduced the antibodies, or the patient may have had the disease and has recovered, or the patient may have the disease

Antibodies for serological testing can be obtained fromVaccinated humans, monoclonal antibodies, vaccinated animals

A reaction between an antibody and soluble antigen-forming lattices is called

precipitation reaction

A reaction between antibody and particulate antigen is called

an agglutination reaction

An indirect version of what test using antihuman globulin may be used to detect patient's antibodies against Treponema pallidum?

Immunofluorescence

Toxoid vaccines such as the vaccines against diphtheria and tetanus elicit

an antibody response against these bacterial toxins

What type of vaccine involves host synthesis of viral antigens?

Nucleic acid vaccine

Purified protein from B. pertussis is a subunit vaccine

What type of vaccine is live measles virus? Attenuated whole agent vaccine

A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient is the

direct fluorescent antibody test

What is a pregnancy test used to find the fetal hormone HCG in a woman's uterine using anti HCG and latex spheres?

Passive agglutination reaction

What is a test to determine patient's blood type by mixing patient's red blood cells with antisera?

direct agglutination reaction

What is a test to determine the presence of soluble antigens in patient's saliva?

precipitation reaction

Inactivated tetanus toxin is a toxoid vaccine

To detect botulinum toxin in food, the suspect food is injected into two guinea pigs. The guinea pig that was vaccinated against botulism survives, while the one that was not vaccinated dies. This is an example of

neutralization

Dead Bordetella pertussis can be used in an inactivated whole agent vaccine

What is the third step in a direct ELISA test? Antihuman immune serum

(372) What uses red blood cells as the indicator? complement fixation

The circumsporozite antigen of Plasmodium can be used toproduce monoclonal antibodies, decrease recurring infections, vaccinate healthy people

Hypersensitivity is due to an altered immune response

The chemical mediators of anaphylaxis are found in basophils and mast cells

What may result from systemic anaphylaxis? shock

Graft versus host disease will most likely be a complication of

a bone marrow transplant

Cancer cells may escape the immune system because tumor cells shed their specific antigens

Autoimmunity is due to IgG and IgM antibodies

Immunotoxins can be used to treat cancer because they poison cells

Worldwide, the primary method of transmission of HIV is heterosexual intercourse

A hypersensitivity reaction occurs on a second or subsequent exposure to an antigen

Type IV hypersensitivities

The symptoms occur within a few days after exposure to an antigen, they contribute to the symptoms of certain diseases, they are cell mediated, the symptoms are due to lymphokines

Reactions of antigens with IgE antibodies attached to mast cells causes

release of chemical mediators

Hay fever is an example of Type I hypersensitivity

Transfusion reactions are an example of Type II hypersensitivity

What is true of HIV

Bone marrow can be a reservoir for future infection, HIV can be transmitted by cell to cell contact, the T cell response triggers viral multiplication, viral infection of T-h cells results in signs elsewhere in the patient

Likely vaccines against HIVGlycoprotein, protein core, subunit, antibodies against streptococcus

What causes damage to kidney cells in glomerulonephritis?

complement fixation

HIV is transmitted byHuman milk, homosexual activity, heterosexual activity, hypodermic needles

Drugs such as AZT and ddC that are currently used to treat AIDS act by

stopping DNA synthesis

What describes a cytotoxic autoimmune reaction? antibodies react to cell surface antigens

Clinical AIDS is diagnosed when the CD4 T cell count is <200

MMR vaccine contains hydrolyzed gelatin. A person receiving this vaccine could develop an anaphylactic reaction if the person has

antibodies against gelatin

Penicillin was considered a "miracle drug" becauseIt inhibits gram positive cell wall synthesis, it doesn't affect eukaryotic cells, has selective toxicity

The first antibiotic discovered was penicillin

Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against

bacteria

What antibiotics are bactericidal?Cephalosporins, penicillin, aminoglycosides, rifampin

What antimicrobial agent has the fewest side effects? penicillin

Act by competitive inhibition Ethambutol, Isoniazid, Sulfonamide

What method of action would be bacteriostatic? inhibition of RNA synthesis

What antimicrobial agent is recommended for used against fungal infections?

Amphotericin B

More than half of our antibiotics are produced by bacteria

Flucytosine would be most useful to treat candidiasis

Antibiotics that interfere with cell wall synthesissemisynthetic penicillins, cephalosporins, natural penicillins, vancomycin

The antimicrobial drugs with the broadest spectrum of activity are

tetracylines

Acyclovir inhibits DNA synthesis

Amantadine inhibits release of viral nucleic acid

Fluoroquinolone inhibits DNA synthesis

Protozoans and helminths diseases are difficulty to treat because

their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells

What causes drug resistance?May be due to increased uptake of a drug, may be transferred from one bacterium to another during conjugation, may be carrier on a plasmid

Advantages of using two antibiotics togetherLessening the toxicity of individual drugs, providing treatment prior to diagnosis, prevention of drug resistance

Drug resistance occurs when antibiotics are used indiscriminately

What would be selective against the tubercle bacillus?Ethambutol because it inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because it undergoes

osmotic lysis

Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against

helminths

What are some bactericidals?Semisynthetic penicillin, bacitracin, streptomycin, natural penicillin

Mebendazole is used to treat cestode infections. It interferes with microtubule formation; therefore it would not affect

bacteria------(does affect protozoa, human cells, fungi, helminths)

The antibiotic actinomycin D binds between adjacent G-C pairs, thus interfering with

transcription

Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic resistant bacteria because

the antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant live and reproduce, and

their progeny repopulate the host animal

What are normal microbiota of the skin?Pityrosporum, Staphylococcus, Corynebacterium, Propionibacterium

The etiologic agents of warts is papovavirus

What are transported by respiratory route? smallpox, chicken pox, German measles

What are causes by herpesvirus? keratoconjunctivitis, chicken pox, shingles

Thrush and vaginitis are caused by Candida albicans

The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is trachoma

What causes ringworm? Trichophyton, microsporum, epidermophyton

What is sensitive to penicillin? streptococcus

What infections are caused by S. Aureus? Sty, Carbuncle, furuncle, pimples

What are some causative agents of conjunctivitis?herpes simplex, adenovirus, Haemophilus aegyptii, Chlamydia trachomatis

Congenital rubella syndrome-it is contracted in utero, may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation, may be fatal

The etiologic agent of fever blisters is herpes simplex

Trifluridine is used to treat epidemic herpetic keratitis

What is used to treat sporotrichosis? fungicide

Scabies is a skin disease caused by a mite

A patient has pus filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has

chicken pox

Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by direct contact

(438) A 17 year old male pus filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram positive rods. This infection is

acne

Encephalitis and meningitis are difficult to treat because antibiotics cannot penetrate the blood-brain barrier

Leprosy israrely fatal, diagnosis may be based on the lepromin test, it is transmitted by direct contact

Rabieshydrophobia is an early symptom, it is not fatal in bats, caused by Rhabdovirus, diagnosis is based on immunofluorescent techniques

The symptoms of tetanus are due to clostridial neurotoxin

The treatment for tetanus is antibodies

The most effective control of a vectorborne diseases is elimination of the vector

Treatment for tetanus in an unimmunized person is tetanus immune globulin

Treatment for tetanus in an immunized person is tetanus toxoid

The most common route of central nervous system invasion by pathogens is through

the circulatory system

The most common cause of meningitis in children is Haemophilus influenzae

A 30 yo female was hospitalized after she experienced convulsions. One examination, she was alert and oriented and complained of a fever, headache, and stiff neck. What is most likely to provide rapid identification of the cause of her symptoms?

Gram stain of cerebrospinal fluid

What are caused by prionssheep scrapie, kuru, transmissible mink encephalopathy, Creutzfeldt Jakob disease

(452) A diagnosis of rabies is confirmed by a direct fluorescent antibody test

Streptococcal pneumonia is treated with antibiotics

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals amoeba. What is the organism?

Naegleria

Microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. What is the organism?

Listeria

A vaccine is available fortetanus, neisseria meningitis, Haemophilus meningitis, rabies

What are acquired by ingestion? Poliomyelitis, listeriosis, botulism

Septicemia

Symptoms are due to bacterial endotoxin, symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure, it may be aggravated by antibiotics, lymphangitis may occur

What are treated with penicillin? pericarditis, anthrax, listeriosis

What is a symptom of brucellosis? Undulant fever

What are transmitted in raw milk? Brucellosis, listeriosis, anthrax

Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis found in soil, forms endospores, gram positive

Symptoms of gangrene are due toproteolytic enzymes, necrotizing exotoxins, hyaluronidase, microbial fermentation

High incidence of what diseases is increased by unsanitary and crowded conditions?

endemic murine typhus, epidemic typhus, plague, relapsing fever

(466) Toxoplasmosiscan be congenital, caused by protozoan, the reservoir is cats, is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route

Caused by bacteriumplague, epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, tickborne typhus

Septicemia may result fromcontamination through the parenteral route, pneumonia, a focal infection, a nosocomial infection

Schistosomiasis

the intermediate host is an aquatic snail, a parasite of birds causes swimmers itch in humans, the cercariae penetrate human skin, it is caused by a flatworm

Human to human transmission of plague is usually by respiratory route

A characteristic symptom of plague is bruises on the skin

A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfreinges is

gangrene

Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for Brucellosis

Diseases transmitted to humans from domestic cats Bartonella, Toxoplasmosis, plague

What can be treated with antibiotics Lyme disease, Tularemia, plague

A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. What do you expect?

Dengue

What is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?

Treatable with penicillin

What is the usual cause of septic shock? Endotoxin

What is true about Group B streptococcithey cause gram positive sepsis, they are present in healthy carriers, they cause neonatal sepsis

A patient persents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at the joints; the recommended treatment is

anti inflammatory drugs

What is true about otitis media?caused by Staphylococcus aureus, caused by streptococcus pyogens, transmitted by swimming pool water, a complication of tonsillitis

A diagnosis of strep throat is confirmed byserological test, gram stain, hemolytic reaction, bacitracin inhibition

Penicillin is used to treatscarlet fever, streptococcal sore throat, diptheria, pneumococcal pneumonia

What microorganism causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?

histoplasma

A person can have a positive tuberculin skin test becauseshe has been vaccinated, she has tuberculosis, she is immune to tuberculosis, she has had tuberculosis

What causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

What is the reservoir for Psittacosis? parakeets

What is the reservoir for Tuberculosis? cattle

What is the reservoir for Histoplasmosis? soil

What is the reservoir for Pneumocystis? humans

What produces exotoxin?streptococcus pyogenes, Corynebacterium diptheriae, bordetella pertussis

What produces the most potent exotoxin? Corynebacterium diptheriae

The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to antigenic shift

What etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?

Blastomyces

Infection by what is often confused with viral pneumonia? Mycoplasma

What causes a disease characterized by a red rash? Streptococcus

Inahalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by what?

Coccidioides

Legionella is transmitted by airborne transmission

Infection that begins in the lungs and spreads to the skin Blastomyces

Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick walled cysts. What is the etiology?

Pneumocystis

A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?

Bordetella

What respiratory infection can be contracted by ingestion? Tuberculosis

What produces small "fried egg" colonies on a medium containing horse serum yeast extract?

Mycoplasma

What is required for tooth decay?acid producing bacteria, capsule forming bacteria, sucrose

What is true of salmonellosis?it requires a large infective dose, a healthy carrier state exists, it is a bacterial infection, it is often associated with poultry products

What disease of the gastrointestinal system is transmitted by the respiratory route?

Mumps

The symptoms of trichinellosis are due to the encystement of larval Trichinella in muscles

Poultry products are a likely source of infection by Salmonella enterica

What feeds on red blood cells? Entamoeba histolytica

What is true of staphylococcal food poisoning?

suspect foods are those not cooked before eating, it can be prevented by refrigeration, it is treated by replacing water and electrolytes, it is characterized by rapid onset and short duration of symptoms

The most common cause of traveler's diarrhea is probably Escherichia coli

Thorough cooking of food will prevent salmonellas, beef tapeworm, trichinellosis

Most of the normal microbiota of the digestive system are found in

the large intestine

What organisms is likely to be transmitted via contaminated shrimp?

vibrio

What organism is likely to be transmitted via contaminated pork?

Trichinella

What are transmitted by water?Cryptosporidium, Hepatitis A virus, Salmonella, Cyclospora

"Rice water stools" are characteristic of cholera

Most gastrointestinal infections are treated with water and electrolytes

Vibrio parahaemolyticus gastroenteritis is treated with tetracycline

The most common mode of HAV transmission is contamination of food during preparation

The easiest way to prevent outbreaks of gram negative gastroenteritis is to

cook food thoroughly

Microscopic examination of a patient's fecal culture shows spiral bacteria. The bacteria probably belong to the genus

Campylobacter

Feces from a patient with diarrhea lasting for weeks with frequent, watery stools should be examined for

Cyclospora

Helicobacter can grow in the stomach because it makes NH-3

Eukaryotes that cause gastroenteritis Entamoeba, Giardia, Cryptosporidium, Cyclos pora

Hepatitis C--diagnosed by PCR--incubation of 4 to 22 weeks--transmitted by the parenteral route--it is a flavivirus

Delicatessen meats Listeria

Milk Campylobacter

Oysters Vibrio

Beef E.Coli

(528)Predisposing factors to urinary tract infections diabetes mellitus, toxemia, tumors, kidney stones

Pyelonephritis may result from cystitis, ureteritis, urethritis, systemic infections

Cystitis is most often caused by gram negative rods

The reservoir for leptospirosis is domestic dogs

Trichomoniasis is primarily a sexually transmitted disease

Syphillis is treated with penicillin

What can cause congenital infections or infections of the newborn?

genital herpes, gonorrhea, nongonococcal urethritis, syphilis

(535)Genital warts recurs at the initial site of infection

Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused byTrichomonas vaginalis, Mycoplasma homini, streptococci, Candida albicans

Candidiasis can be caused by an opportunistic infection

Most nosocomial infections of the urinary tract are caused by

E. coli

Glomerulonephritis is an immune complex disease

The most common reportable disease in the United States is

gonorrhea

What is the most difficulty to treat with chemotherapeutic agents?

Genital herpes

Leukocytes at the infected site is a symptom of trichomoniasis

What is caused by Chlamydia? Lymphogranuloma venereum

What forms lesions similar to those of tuberculosis? Syphilis

What disease causes a skin rash, hair loss, malaise, and fever?

Syphilis

Staphylococcus saprophyticus causes cystitis

Nongonococcal urethritis can be caused by ureaplasma, mycoplasma, chlamydia

A patient is experiencing profuse greenish yellow foul smelling discharge form her vagina; she is complaining of itching and irritation. What is the most likely treatment?

Metronidazole

A 25 year old male presents with fever, malaise, and a rash on his chest, arms, and feet. The etiology could be

Rickettsia, Borrelia, Streptococcus, Treponema

A 25 year old male presented with fever, malaise, and rash on his chest, arms, and feet. Diagnosis was made based on serological testing. The patient then reported that he had an ulcer on his penis tow months earlier. This disease can be treated with

penicillin

A pelvic examination of a 23 year old female showed vesicles and ulcerated lesions on her labia. Cultures were negative for Neiseeria and Chlamydia; the VDRL test was negative. What is probable?

Genital herpes

(552)Whare are some habitats for extremophiles?inside rocks, 100 degree water, salt evaporating pond, acid mine wash

What animal would you expect to find a specialized organ that holds cellulose degrading bacteria and fungi?

termite

The addition of untreated sewage to a freshwater lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to

increase

Sludge digestion takes place under anaerobic conditions

When does primary sewage treatment take place? the amount of oxygen doesn't make any difference

Eighty one percent of microorganisms in the soil are bacteria

Most of the microorganisms in the soil are found at a depth of

between 3 and 8

Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are capable of nitrification

What process is done by Rhizobium and certain cyanobacteria?

Nitrogen fixation

What wastewater treatment process is responsible for removal of most of the BOD in sewage?

Secondary sewage treatment

Residual chlorine must be maintained in water treatment

Sedimentation of sludge occurs in primary sewage treatment

The product of what process contains the highest BOD? Primary sewage treatment

Zoogloea form flocculent masses in secondary sewage treatment

Anaerobic respiration occurs in anaerobic sludge digestion

Filtration to remove protozoa occurs in water treatment

Bacteria can increase the Earth's temperature by producing CH4, which is a greenhouse gas

The bacteria contributing most of the bacterial biomass to soil are

actinomycetes

The bacteria that grow first in the microbial succession in a compost pile are

anaerobic mesophiles

The release of phosphate containing detergents into a river would

increase algal growth

What is true about releasing untreated sewage into a river?it decreases the dissolved oxygen, it is a health hazard, it increases BOD

Spoilage due to can leakage after processing is spoilage by mesophile bacteria

Spoilage of canned foods stored at high temperatures, accompanied by gas production is

thermophilic anaerobic spoilage

Spoilage of canned foods due to inadequate processing NOT accompanied by gas production is

flat sour spoilage

What alternative fuels (energy source) is produced by bacteria?

methyl alcohol, hydrogen, ethyl alcohol, methane

What food additives are produced by microorganisms? Citric acid, amylase, protease, Glutamic acid

Wine is made from fruit juices by anaerobic fungal growth

Commercial sterilization differs from true sterilization in that commercial sterilization may result in

the survival of thermophiles

Microbial products can be improved bymodifying culture conditions, mutating existing strains, isolating new strains, genetically engineering strains

Cellulase attached to a membrane filter will degrade cellulose

What are produced using microbial fermentation? yogurt, sour cream, blue cheese

Methane made from biomass is produced by anaerobic respiration

Ethanol for automobile fuel is produced from corn by fermentation

As cheese ages it gets more acidic

Your friend says he had stored a semisoft cheese (blue cheese) in his refrigerator for three weeks. He asks you why the outer "skin" of the cheese is so much thicker than it was when he originally purchased the cheese. You tell him that

fungi have been growing

You are growing Bacillus subtilis in a bioreactor and notice that the growth rate slowed and the pH has decreased. What could you do?

Add oxygen

Radiation is used for killing Trichinella, killing insects eggs and larva, for foods that cannot be heated, preventing

sprouting

Canning preserves food by heating

Canning works to preserve foods because of anaerobic environment and heat

Radiation works to preserve foods because of lethal mutations

Fermentation works to preserve foods because of pH

Created by:   Christy L. Duval on 2008-10-01