FCE, BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, EPOKA …epoka.edu.al/mat/feas/FINAL COMPREHENSIVE EXAM FOR IMLM... · 2019-05-20 · FCE, BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, EPOKA UNIVERSITY

FCE, BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, EPOKA UNIVERSITY

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FINAL COMPREHENSIVE EXAM FOR 2018-2019

FCE for three programs under Business Administration

department will be done from 70 questions. Students will be

provided with a pool of 350 multiple-choice questions

accompanied with the answer keys. The exam will contain

fields taken as compulsory courses during the education.


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PROGRAM OF INTERNATIONAL MARKETING

AND LOGISTICS MANAGEMENT

Management (Introduction to Business, Essentials of

Organizational Behavior, Management and Organization,

Human Resource Management)

1._________ is a managerial task (function) of guiding and

motivating employees to accomplish organizational goals.

a) Organizing

b) Leading

c) Controlling

d) Managing


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2. Which of the followings stands for the 4Ps of marketing?

a) Product, preference, position, possibilities

b) Product, pricing, place, profit

c) Product, pricing, place, population income

d) Product , pricing, place, promotion

3. Race, education, age, family size are parts of________

segmentation.

a) Geographical

b) Physiological

c) Demographical

d) Product-related

4. _______________ is the process of planning and executing

the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas,

goods, services, organizations, and events to create and

maintain relationships that satisfy individual and

organizational objectives.

a) Accounting

b) Marketing

c) Business

d) HRM

5.___________is a book in which accountant record

transactions in chronological order.


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a) Transaction book

b) Audit

c) Journal

d) Ledger

6. ____________is compensation based on an hourly pay rate

or the amount of output produced.

a) Motivate

b) Wage

c) Salary

d) Money

7. __________: battle among businesses for consumer

acceptance.

a) Business

b) Advertise

c) Competition

d) Organization

8._______________ is a system for manufacturing products

in large amounts through effective combinations of

employees with specialized skills, mechanization, and

standardization flow line production.

a) Assembly line

b) Mass Production

c) Continuous Production


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d) Batch Production

9. Steps in the production control are: Planning-Routing-

Scheduling-Dispatching and _________

a) Controlling

b) Acquisition

c) Critical Path

d) Follow-up

10. Which of the following is true about the Balance sheet?

a) Measures Employee Performance.

b) Is a part of the market segmentation process

c) Shows assets and liabilities of a company in a specific point

of time.

d) Shows a sequence of operations that requires the longest time

for completion.

11. Which of the following is an example of the company in

manufacturing sector?

a) Nike

b) Sheraton Hotel

c) Neptune

d) Tirana Bank


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12. Output/Input=…?… formula is used to Compute

following;

a) Profitability

b) Turnover

c) Productivity

d) Sufficiency

13. What is the most important law relating to HR activities?

a) Business Law

b) Tax Law

c) Banking Law

d) Labor Law

14. Which of the following defines the person who is profit

seeker and risk taker?

a)Leader

b)Manager

c)Administrator

d)Entrepreneur

15. Which of the followings is not a function of Human

Resource Management?

a) Organizing

b) Recruiting

c) Selecting

d) Appraisal


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16. The term workforce diversity typically refers to differences in

race, age, gender, ethnicity, and ______among people at

work.

a) social status

b) personal wealth

c) able-bodiedness

d) political preference

17. Eustress is ____________ stress, while distress is

____________ stress.

a) constructive, destructive

b) destructive, constructive

c) negative, positive

d) the most common, the most relevant

18. Companies that ____________ experience the greatest

benefits of workforce diversity.

a) have learned to employ people because of their differences

b) have learned to employ people in spite of their differences

c) have not worried about people’s differences

d) have implemented diversity programs based only on

affirmative action

19. A person who always volunteers for extra work or helps

someone else with their work is said to be high in

____________.


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a) emotional labor

b) affect

c) emotional intelligence

d) organizational commitment

20. Which of the following issues would be most central to the

field of organizational behavior (OB)?

a) How to improve advertising for a new product.

b) How to increase job satisfaction and performance among

members of a team.

c) Making plans for a new strategy for organizational growth.

d) Designing a new management information system.

21. Managers who are hard-driving, detail-oriented, have high

performance standards, and thrive on routine could be

characterized as ____________.

a) Type B

b) Type A

c) high self-monitors

d) low Machs

22. When someone is feeling anger about something a co-worker

did, she is experiencing a/an ____________, but when just

having a bad day overall she is experiencing a/an

____________.

a) mood, emotion

b) emotion, mood

c) affect, effect


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d) dissonance, consonance

23. When a team member shows strong ego needs in Maslow’s

hierarchy, the team leader should find ways to link this

person’s work on the team task with ____________.

a) compensation tied to group performance

b) individual praise and recognition for work well done

c) lots of social interaction with other team members

d) challenging individual performance goals

24. People who are high in internal locus of control

____________.

a) believe what happens to them is determined by environmental

forces such as fate

b) believe that they control their own fate or destiny

c) are highly extraverted

d) do worse on tasks requiring learning and initiative

25. The underlying premise of reinforcement theory is that

____________.

a) behavior is a function of environment

b) motivation comes from positive expectancy

c) higher-order needs stimulate hard work

d) rewards considered unfair are de-motivators

26. When someone has a high and positive expectancy in

expectancy theory of motivation, this means that the person

____________.


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a) believes he or she can meet performance expectations

b) highly values the rewards being offered

c) sees a relationship between high performance and the

available rewards

d) believes that rewards are equitable

27. Improvements in job satisfaction are most likely under

Herzberg’s two-factor theory when ____________ are

improved.

a) working conditions

b) base salaries

c) co-worker relationships

d) opportunities for responsibility

28. Job satisfaction is known to be a good predictor of

____________.

a) deep acting

b) emotional intelligence

c) cognitive dissonance

d) absenteeism

29. A person with high emotional intelligence would be strong in

_________, the ability to think before acting and to control

disruptive impulses.

a) Motivation

b) Perseverance

c) Self-regulation

d) Empathy


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30. The law of ____________ states that behavior followed by a

positive consequence is likely to be repeated, whereas

behavior followed by an undesirable consequence is not likely

to be repeated.

a) reinforcement

b) contingency

c) goal setting

d) effect

31. Emotions and moods as personal affects are known to

influence ____________.

a) attitudes

b) ability

c) aptitude

d) intelligence

32. In the job characteristics model, a person will be most likely

to find an enriched job motivating if him or her

____________.

a) receives stock options

b) has ability and support

c) is unhappy with job context

d) has strong growth needs

33. When a new team member is anxious about questions such as

“Will I be able to influence what takes place?” the underlying

issue is one of ____________.


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a) Relationships

b) Goals

c) Processes

d) control

34. One of the essential criteria of a true team is ____________.

a) large size

b) homogeneous membership

c) isolation from outsiders

d) collective accountability

35. A lose–lose conflict is likely when the conflict management

approach is one of____________.

a) Collaborator

b) altering scripts

c) accommodation

d) problem solving

36. Social power differs from _________, which is power made

operative against another’s will.

a) powerlessness

b) force

c) dependence

d) zero sum game

37. If someone improves productivity by developing a new work

process and receives a portion of the productivity savings as a


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monetary reward, this is an example of a/an____________

pay plan.

a) cost-sharing

b) gain-sharing

c) ESOP

d) stock option

38. An effective team is defined as one that achieves high levels

of task performance, member satisfaction, and

____________.

a) coordination

b) harmony

c) creativity

d) team viability

39. Members of a multinational task force in a large international

business should probably be aware that ____________ might

initially slow the progress of the team.

a) synergy

b) groupthink

c) the diversity–consensus dilemma

d) intergroup dynamics

40. A complex problem is best dealt with by a team using a(n)

____________ communication network.

a) all-channel

b) wheel

c) chain


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d) linear

41. If a manager approaches problems in a rational and analytical

way, trying to solve them in step-by step fashion. He or she is

well described as a/an_____________.

a. Systematic thinker

b. Intuitive thinker

c. Problem seeker

d. Behavioral decision making.

42. The last step in the decision-making process is

to_____________.

a. choose a preferred alternative

b. evaluate results

c. find and define the problem

d. generate alternatives

43. Costs, benefits, timeliness, and _____________ are among

the recommended criteria for evaluating alternative courses of

action in the decision-making process.

a. ethical soundness

b. past history

c. availability

d. simplicity

44. Planning is best described as the process ____________of

and ___________________

a. developing premises about the future; evaluating them


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b. measuring results; taking corrective action

c. measuring past performance; targeting future performance

d. setting objectives; deciding how to accomplish them

45. From a time management perspective, which manager is

likely to be in best control of his or her time? One who

a. tries to never say “no” to requests from others

b. works on the most important things first

c. immediately responds to instant messages

d. always has “an open office door”

46. The benefits of planning should include

a. improved focus

b. less need for controlling

c. more accurate forecasts

d. increased business profits

47. When a soccer coach tells her players at the end of a losing

game, “You did well in staying with the game plan,” she is

using a/an ____________ as a measure of performance.

a. input standard

b. output standard

c. historical comparison

d. relative comparison

48. When a supervisor working alongside of an employee

corrects him or her when a mistake is made, this is an

example of ____________ control.


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a. feed forward

b. external

c. concurrent

d. preliminary

49. A total quality management program is most likely to be

associated with ____________.

a. EOQ

b. continuous improvement

c. return on equity

d. breakeven analysis

50. The functional chimneys problem occurs when people in

different functions ____________.

a. fail to communicate with one another

b. try to help each other work with customers

c. spend too much time coordinating decisions

d. focus on products rather than functions

51. An organization chart is most useful for____________.

a. mapping informal structures

b. eliminating functional chimneys

c. showing designated supervisory relationships

d. describing the shadow organization

52. A manufacturing business with a functional structure has

recently acquired two other businesses with very different

product lines. The president of the combined company might


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consider using a____________ structure to allow a better

focus on the unique needs of each product area.

a. virtual

b. team

c. divisional

d. network

53. Honesty, social responsibility, and customer service are

examples of __________ that can become foundations for an

organization’s core culture.

a. rites and rituals

b. values

c. subsystems

d. ideas

54. The Kindle e-reader by Amazon and the iPad by Apple are

examples of __________ innovations.

a. business model

b. social

c. product

d. process

55. A manager using a force-coercion strategy is most likely

relying on the power of __________ to bring about planned

change.

a. expertise

b. reference

c. legitimacy


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d. information

56. According to the concept of ‘human resource management’,

human resources:

a. are a natural resource available in abundance

b. have workable substitutes

c. are a necessary expense

d. are not easily replaceable

57. A primary advantage of unstructured versus structured

interviewing techniques is that:

a. Unstructured interviews take less time.

b. In an unstructured interview, the interviewer can ask follow-

up questions and pursue points of interest as they develop.

c. Unstructured interviews are in compliance with regulations,

whereas structured interviews are not.

d. Unstructured interviews are more cost effective.

58. Planning for employment requirements requires forecasting:

a. labor needs

b. supply of inside candidates

c. supply of outside candidates

d. all of the above

59. Which of the following would likely be the least effective

method of recruiting internal job candidates?

a. posting information on organizational bulletin boards

b. examining HR records of current employees


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c. advertising in national newspapers and journals

d. consulting organizational skills banks

60. Which of the following is the main piece of legislation

regulating employment relations in Albania?

a. the Constitution

b. employment contracts

c. the Labor Code

d. internal regulations

61. A list of what a job entails is the job’s:

a. Job analysis

b. Job description

c. Job specifications

d. Performance standards

62. All of the following are line managers’ HRM duties,

EXCEPT

a. coordinating the performance management process at

company level

b. training employees for jobs that are new to them

c. creating and maintaining department morale

d. placing the right person on the right job

63. “Suppose you discovered an employee stealing company

property. What would you do?” is an example of a _______

interview questions:

a. Stress

b. job-related


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c. situational

d. behavioral

64. ______ is a training method in which a person with job

experience and skill guides trainees in practicing job skills at

the workplace.

a. Presentation

b. experiential training

c. on-the-job training

d. behavioral modeling

65. Methods of determining employee training needs include all

of the following EXCEPT:

a. reviewing performance appraisals

b. analyzing customer complaints

c. interviewing employees and supervisors

d. examining compensation records

66. Which of the following is NOT an HR Department role in the

performance appraisal process:

a. serves as a policy-making and advising role

b. trains supervisors to improve their appraisal skills

c. perform the actual appraising for each employee

d. prepare forms and procedures

67. A collection of jobs grouped together by approximately equal

difficulty levels is a:

a. Pay grade


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b. Pay for performance system

c. Compensation analysis factor

d. Responsibility level

68. Which of the following types of incentive pay refers to a

wage based on the amount workers produce?

a. Gain sharing

b. Merit pay

c. Scanlon plan

d. Piecework rate

69. The purpose of ________ is to encourage employees to

behave sensibly at work.

a. Rules and regulations

b. Expectation clarity

c. Workplace monitoring

d. Discipline

70. A successful employee orientation should accomplish all the

following EXCEPT:

a. Make the employee feel welcome.

b. Understand the organization in a broad sense.

c. Constitute an employment contract.

d. Employee should be clear about what is expected in terms of

work and behavior.

71. A salary plus incentive/commission compensation plan would

be most appropriate for which of the following workers?


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a. a restaurant chef

b. an automobile salesperson

c. a nurse

d. an administrative assistant

Marketing

1. Marketing management is ________.

a. managing the marketing process

b. monitoring the profitability of the company’s products and

services

c. the art and science of choosing target markets and getting,

keeping, and growing customers through creating, delivering,

and communicating superior customer value

d. developing marketing strategies to move the company

forward

2. Natyra shpk. Employs people to clean fireplaces in homes

and apartments. The firm is primarily the marketer of which

one of the following?

a. An image

b. A service

c. A good

d. An idea


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3. The ________ concept holds that consumers and

businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough of the

organization’s products.

a. production

b. selling

c. marketing

d. holistic marketing

4. The buying process starts when the buyer recognizes a

_________.

a. Product

b. an advertisement for the product

c. a salesperson from a previous visit

d. problem or need

5. If actual performance exceeds the expected performance of

the product, then customer is ___________________

a. Satisfied

b. Dissatisfied

c. Delighted

d. Neutral

6. Salt and milk are which kind of products?

a. Specialty Products

b. Convenience products

c. Shopping products

d. Unsought products


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7. If a firm is practicing ____________________, the firm is

training and effectively motivating its customer-contact

employees and all of the supporting service people to work as

a team to provide customer satisfaction.

a. double-up marketing

b. interactive marketing

c. service marketing

d. internal marketing

8. Select software’s intensively used for analysis purposes in

marketing research?

1. SPSS 2. Microsoft Word 3. Minitab 4. LISREL 5.

Prezi 6. Equis

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 3, 4 and 6

c. 1, 5 and 6

d. 1, 3 and 4

9. One of the key tasks of marketers is ____________ and to

create consumer perceptions that the product is worth

purchasing.

a. To make products easily visible and available

b. To promote sales of products

c. To differentiate their products from those of competitors

d. To do marketing surveys


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10. A transaction in which the organization is making an

initial purchase of an item to be used to perform a new job

refers to which of the following purchases?

a. Straight rebuy purchase

b. Delayed purchase

c. New-task purchase

d. Modified rebuy purchase

11. One of the problems given below is obvious measurable

symptom available to decision-maker according to iceberg

principle of marketing research?

a. Marginal Performance of Sales Force

b. Poor Image

c. Unhappy Customers

d. Inappropriate Delivery System

12.The promotion “P” of marketing is also known as

________.

a. PR

b. Transaction

c. Proclamation

d. Marketing Communication

13. “Generates insights that will help define the problem

situation confronting the researcher or improves the

understanding of consumer motivations, attitudes, and

behavior that are not easy to access using other research

methods.” This is the definition of…


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a. Exploratory research

b. Descriptive research

c. Casual research

d. Semi structured interview

14.In marketing theory, every contribution from the supply

chain adds ________ to the product.

a. value

b. costs

c. convenience

d. ingredients

15. The act of trading a desired product or service to receive

something of value in return is known as which key concept

in marketing?

a. product

b. exchange

c. production

d. customer

16. Anything that can be offered to a market for attention,

acquisition, use, or consumption that might satisfy a want or

need is called a(n):

a. idea.

b. demand.

c. product.

d. service.


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17. Which type of sampling does not exist?

a. Quota

b. Convenience

c. Specialty random

d. Stratified random

18. What abbreviation CATI stands for?

a. Compulsory aggregative telephone interview

b. Computer assisted telephone interview

c. Customer assistedtelephone integration

d. CAllcenter Telephone Interview

19. The ________ holds that the organization’s task is to

determine the needs, wants, and interests of target markets

and to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and

efficiently than competitors in a way that preserves or

enhances the consumer’s and the society’s well-being.

a. customer-centered business

b. focused business model

c. societal marketing concept

d. ethically responsible marketing

20. The four unique elements to services include:

a. Independence, intangibility, inventory, and inception

b. Independence, increase, inventory, and intangibility

c. Intangibility, inconsistency, inseparability, and inventory


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d. Intangibility, independence, inseparability, and inventory

21. ________ pricing is the approach of setting a low initial

price in order to attract a large number of buyers quickly and

win a large market share.

a. Market-skimming

b. Value-based

c. Market-penetration

d. Leader

22. Which definition suits to cover letter best?

a. A separate written communication to a prospective

respondent designed to enhance that person’s willingness to

complete and return the survey in a timely manner.

b. Used to train interviewers how to select prospective

respondents, screen them for eligibility, and conduct the

actual interview.

c. A tracking system that collects data from respondents and

helps ensure that subgroups are represented in the sample as

specified.

d. A form that serves as a blueprint for training people on how

to execute the interviewing process in a standardized fashion;

it outlines the process by which to conduct a study that uses

personal and telephone interviewers.

23. What is given in the picture?


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a. Semantic differentials scale

b. Likert scale

c. Ratio scale

d. Experience scale

24. The extended Ps of service marketing mix are:

a. People, Product, Place

b. Price Physical Evidence, Promotion

c. Physical Environment, Process, People

d. Product, Process, Physical Environment

25. “Collects quantitative data to answer research questions

such as who, what, when, where, and how.” This is the

definition of…

a. Exploratory research

b. Descriptive research

c. Casual research

d. Semi structured interview

26. Customer’s evaluation of the difference between all the

benefits and all the costs of a marketing offer relative to those

of competing offers refers to which of the following options?


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a. Customer perceived value

b. Marketing myopia

c. Customer relationship management

d. Customer satisfaction

27. Buying goods and services for further processing or for

use in the production process refers to which of the following

markets?

a. Consumer markets

b. Government markets

c. Business markets

d. International markets

28.Marketing managers should adapt the marketing mix to

___________________ and constantly monitor value changes

and differences in both domestic and global markets.

a. Sales strategies

b. Marketing concepts

c. Cultural values

d. Brand images

29. The ________ refers to the various companies that are

involved in moving a product from its manufacturer into the

hands of its buyer.

a. distribution chain

b. network chain

c. supply chain


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d. promotion network

30. ________ is the study of how individuals, groups, and

organizations select, buy, use, and dispose of goods, services,

ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and wants.

a. Target marketing

b. Psychographic segmentation

c. Product Differentiation

d. Consumer behavior

31. When the researcher attempts to question or observe all

the members of a defined target population, it is called …

a. Survey

b. Census

c. Sample

d. Sampling

32. The five-stage model of the consumer buying process

includes all of the following stages EXCEPT…

a. problem recognition

b. information search

c. social interaction

d. purchase decision

33. If performance meets consumer expectations, the

consumer is ________.

a. delighted

b. satisfied


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c. disappointed

d. surprised

34. Which one of the following statements by a company

chairman BEST reflects the selling marketing concept?

a. We have organized our business to satisfy the customer needs

b. We believe that marketing department must organize the

activities in order to make individuals buy what we produce

c. We try to produce only high quality, technically efficient

products

d. We try to encourage company growth in the market

35. The factors such as the buyer’s age, life-cycle stage,

occupation, economic situation, lifestyle, personality and self-

concept that influences buyer’s decisions refers to which one

of the following characteristic?

a. Personal characteristics

b. Psychological characteristics

c. Behavioral characteristics

d. Demographical characteristics

36. One traditional depiction of marketing activities is in

terms of the marketing mix or four Ps. The four Ps are

characterized as being ________.

a. product, positioning, place, and price

b. product, price, promotion, and place

c. promotion, place, positioning, and price

d. place, promotion, production, and positioning


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37. Marketing strategies are often designed to influence

________ and lead to profitable exchanges.

a. Consumer decision making

b. Sales strategies

c. Advertising strategies

d. Export strategies

38. The controllable variables a company puts together to

satisfy a target group is called the ____________________.

a. Marketing strategy

b. Marketing mix

c. Strategic planning

d. Marketing concept

39. In order for exchange to occur:

a. a complex societal system must be involved.

b. organized marketing activities must also occur.

c. a profit-oriented organization must be involved.

d. each party must have something of value to the other party.

40. Find correct cycle

a. Determine the Research Problem, Select the Appropriate

Research Design, Execute the Research Design,

Communicate the Research Results


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b. Determine the Research Problem, Execute the Research

Design, Select the Appropriate Research Design,


c. Select the Appropriate Research Design, Determine the

Research Problem, Execute the Research Design,


d. Select the Appropriate Research Design, Execute the

Research Design, Communicate the Research Results,

Determine the Research Problem

41. Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organisation-

sponsored events are most closely associated with the

marketing mix activity of:

a. Pricing

b. Distribution

c. Product development

d. Promotion

42. The basic role of promotion is _____.

a. Information

b. Manipulation

c. Communication

d. Interpretation

43. Price is the only element in the marketing mix that

produces:

a. Fixed cost


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b. Customer satisfaction

c. Variable cost

d. Revenue

44. Which of the following is NOT included in product

decisions?

a. Styling

b. Brand name

c. Warehousing

d. Packaging

45. “Interviewer “curbstoning”, “De-anonymizing data”,

“Stating that interviews are shorter than they are” are related

with…

a. Interviewer training

b. Ethical challenges in research

c. Scaling and measurement

d. Sampling of the population

46. Which is not a type of secondary data source?

a. Company’s data warehouse

b. Internet Web sites

c. Commercial data purchased from firms

d. Marketing intelligence

47. How we call the method used by marketing researchers in

the collection of macroenvironmental


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Information, in which researchers analyze various trade

publications, newspaper articles, academic literature, Web

sites, or computer databases for information on trends in a

given industry?

a. Content analysis

b. Case study

c. In-depth interview

d. Formal rating procedure

48. Which of the following is NOT a part of marketing

communication mix?

a. Telemarketing

b. Public relations

c. Sales promotion

d. Advertising

49. Which of these steps is related with selection of research

design?

a. Specifying research objectives and confirm the information

value

b. Interpreting data to create knowledge

c. Developing the sampling design and sample size

d. Collecting and preparing data

50. During which step of the marketing segmentation,

targeting, and positioning process does the firm ―develop a

marketing mix for each segment?


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a. market segmentation

b. market targeting

c. market positioning

d. The firm does not go through the development during any of

the above steps.

51. A products position is located in the minds of

______________________.

a. Advertiser

b. Salesman

c. Consumer

d. All of these

52. Narrowly focused markets that are defined by some

special interest are termed as ___________.

a. Target markets

b. Mass markets

c. Niche markets

d. Undifferentiated markets.

53. __________________ is the process of evaluating each

market segment‘s attractiveness and selecting one or more

segments to enter.

a. Mass marketing

b. Market segmentation

c. Market targeting

d. Market positioning


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54. Which factor given below is not the reason for quitting

marketing research project?

a. Research knowledge of staff

b. Costs outweigh the value

c. Insufficient time frames

d. Inadequate resources

55. It is a fact that there are 32.5 million left-handed people in

the India. However, most marketers do not attempt to appeal

to or design products for this group because there is little in

the way of census data about this group. Therefore, this group

fails in one of the requirements for effective segmentation.

Which of the following is most likely to apply in this case?

a. actionable

b. substantial

c. differentiable

d. measurable

56. Micromarketing includes:

a. segment marketing and niche marketing.

b. mass marketing and demographic marketing.

c. local marketing and individual marketing.

d. individual marketing and self-marketing.

57. Which are the types of marketing research firm?

a. Positioned, Online

b. Syndicated, Nonsyndicated

c. Customized, Standardized


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d. Targeted, Segmented

58. Readiness stage and attitude towards product are major

segmentation variable in which category?

a. Geographic

b. Behavioral

c. Demographic

d. Psychographic

59. Mercedes offers the SLK, CLK, A‘ and B‘ series. These

are product ________ which together make up the product

_________.

a. Items, depth

b. Lines, depth

c. Lines, width

d. Items, width

60. The AIO (activities, interests, opinions) questions are

used for analyzing which of the following types of

segmentation?

a. Benefit

b. Psychographic

c. behavioral

d. Psychoanalytic

61. The strategy of choosing one attribute to excel at to create

competitive advantage is known as (the):


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a. Unique selling proposition.

b. Underpositioning.

c. Overpositioning.

d. Confused positioning.

62. All of the following would be considered to be in a

company‘s microenvironment EXCEPT:

a. Marketing channel firms.

b. Political forces.

c. Publics.

d. Customer markets.

63. _________________ help the company to promote, sell,

and distribute its goods to final buyers.

a. Marketing intermediaries

b. Competitor networks

c. Suppliers

d. Service representatives

64. If your company were to make a product, such as a suit of

clothes, and sell that product to a retailer, your company

would have sold to the ___________ market.

a. reseller

b. business

c. government

d. service


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65. A ______________ is any group that has an actual or

potential interest in or impact on an organization‘s ability to

achieve its objectives.

a. competitive set

b. marketing intermediary

c. supplier

d. public

66. Your marketing department is currently researching the

size, density, location, age, and occupations of your target

market. Which environment is being researched?

a. demographic

b. psychographic

c. economic

d. geographic

67. Marketing Environment analysis helps to –

a. Avoid costly mistakes of reacting too slowly

b. Identify tomorrow‘s opportunities

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

68. The clothing retailer Top Shop tries to appeal to the style-

conscious, independent girl- ie. the "fashion junkie" who goes

shopping every week in pursuit of the latest hot fashions.

What kind of market segmentation is being used by Top

Shop?


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a. socio-economic segmentation

b. psychographic segmentation

c. religious segmentation

d. demographic segmentation

69. Wants can become demands if they are backed by

__________.

a. Products

b. Consumer research

c. Needs

d. Buying power

70. The process of determining target customers' needs and

delivering desired satisfactions more effectively and

efficiently than competitors is called __________.

a. The marketing concept

b. The product concept

c. The production concept

d. The selling concept

71. In order to carry out a SWOT analysis, a company must

__________.

a. Identify the main threats in the external environment

b. Identify the company's main internal weaknesses

c. Identify the main opportunities in the external environment

d. All of the above


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72. What does SBU stand for?

a. Single business unit

b. Strategic business unit

c. Sales business unit

d. Strategic buying unit

73. What is defined as “An intranet for a select group of

managers who are decision makers in the company”?

a. Executive dashboard

b. Focus group

c. Census

d. Monitoring

74. Which part of the marketing plan presents the approach

that will be used to meet the plan's objectives?

a. Action programs

b. Marketing strategy

c. SWOT and issue analysis

d. Current marketing situation

75. What is a company's marketing environment?

a. The climate and nature

b. Actors and forces outside of a company and the marketing

functions that affect marketing management

c. The marketing department within a company


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d. The land area around a company's headquarters

76. What are marketing intermediaries?

a. Banks and credit unions

b. Competitors that come between a company and its customers

c. Firms that help the company promote, sell and distribute its

goods to final buyers

d. Wholesalers

77. What is the name for any group that has actual or

potential interest in or impact on an organization’s ability to

achieve its objectives?

a. Publics

b. Suppliers

c. Competitors

d. Customers

78. Which of the main stages of Marketing Strategy

perceptual maps directly linked with?

a. Segmentation

b. Targeting

c. Positioning

d. Differentiation

79. Changing consumer spending patterns is an element of

which environment?

a. Political


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b. Demographic

c. Cultural

d. Economic

80. The marketing information system (MIS) begins and ends

with __________.

a. Consumers

b. Information technologies

c. Marketing intelligence

d. Marketing managers

81. What are secondary data?

a. Information based solely on rumors

b. Information that has already been collected and recorded for

another purpose and is thus readily accessible

c. Information based on second-rate research

d. Information that has been collected for the specific purpose at

hand

82. Which of marketing research tasks given below related

with distribution decisions?

a. Demand analysis

b. Sales forecasting

c. Logistic assessment

d. Attitudinal research

83. What is the first stage of the marketing research process?


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a. Report the findings

b. Define the research problem and objectives

c. Develop the research plan

d. Implement the research plan

84. __________ research is the gathering of primary data by

watching people.

a. Observational

b. Survey

c. Causal

d. Experimental

85. What does the term 'black box' refer to in consumer

buying behaviour?

a. The personal buying decision process that consumers go

through in response to marketing efforts

b. Mystery prizes in gift stores

c. Gift wrapping services offered in stores with high levels of

customer service

d. The dark feeling consumers get when they realise that a

purchase does not measure up to their expectations

86. What are the four key characteristics that influence

consumer buying behavior?

a. Psychological, personal, cultural and social

b. Psychological, demographic, cultural and social

c. Social, cultural, economic and technological


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d. Economic, technological, political and cultural

87. Which of the following characteristics is not used in

psychographic segmentation?

a. Age

b. Personality

c. Socio-economic status

d. Lifestyle

88. What is the name of the analysis tool used by marketers to

position products/brands?

a. Brand map

b. Perceptual map

c. Product map

d. Competitive map

89. Strengths and Weaknesses are related to:

a. the company itself

b. the competitor

c. shareholders

d. all of them

90. Which of marketing research tasks given below not

related with Marketing strategy design?

a. Target market analysis

b. Benefit and lifestyle studies

c. Perceptual mapping


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d. Concept and product testing

Accounting (Introduction to Accounting, Cost Accounting,

Managerial Accounting, Financial Accounting I and II)

1. Which of the following is not a step in the accounting

process?

a. Identification

b. Verification

c. Recording

d. Communication

2. Accountants refer to an economic event that affects a

company's financial statements as a

a. Transaction

b. Purchase event.

c. Sale event.

d. Recording event.

3. Bookkeeping, as opposed to accounting, usually involves

only

a. Identifying

b. Recording


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c. Communicating

d. reporting

4. Which of the following statements about users of accounting

information is incorrect?

a. Management is an internal user.

b. Taxing authorities are external users.

c. Present creditors are external users.

d. Regulatory authorities are internal users.

5. The left side of an account

a. Is always the balance side.

b. May represent the debit side or the credit side.

c. Is always the debit side.

d. Is always the credit side.

6. A credit to a liability account

a. Indicates an increase in the amount owed to creditors.

b. Indicates a decrease in the amount owed to creditors.

c. Is an error.

d. Must be accompanied by a debit to an asset account.

7. Debits

a. Increase both assets and liabilities.

b. Decrease both assets and liabilities.


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c. Increase assets and decrease liabilities.

d. Decrease assets and increase liabilities.

8. The expanded accounting equation is

a. Assets + Liabilities = Owner's Capital + Owner's Drawings +

Revenues + Expenses

b. Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Capital + Owner's Drawings +

Revenues – Expenses

c. Assets = Liabilities – Owner's Capital – Owner's Drawings -


d. Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Capital – Owner's Drawings +


9. The first step in the recording process is to

a. Prepare the financial statements.

b. Analyze each transaction for its effect on the accounts.

c. Enter in a journal.

d. Prepare a trial balance.

10. A complete journal entry includes all of the following except

a. The date of the transaction.

b. A brief explanation of the transaction.

c. The balance of the accounts in the entry.

d. The accounts and amounts to be debited and credited.


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11. Which of the following is false about a journal?

a. It discloses in one place the complete effects of a transaction.

b. It provides a chronological record of transactions

c. It helps to prevent or locate errors because debit and credit

amounts for each entry can be easily compared

d. It keeps in one place all the information about changes in

specific account balances.

12. The time period assumption states that

a. Companies must wait until the calendar year is completed to

prepare financial statements.

b. Companies use the fiscal year to report financial information.

c. The economic life of a business can be divided into artificial

time periods.

d. Companies record information in the time period in which the

events occur.

13. Which of the following statements about the accrual-basis of

accounting is false?

a. Events that change a company's financial statements are

recorded in the periods in which the events occur.

b. Revenue is recognized in the period in which services are

performed.

c. Accrual-basis is in accordance with generally accepted

accounting principles.


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d. Revenue is recorded only when cash is received, and expense

is recorded only when cash is paid.

14. Adjusting entries are made to ensure that

a. Expenses are recognized in the period in which they are

incurred.

b. Revenues are recorded in the period in which services are

performed.

c. Balance sheet and income statement accounts have correct

balances at the end of an accounting period.

d. All of the answer choices are correct.

15. Closing entries are necessary for

a. permanent account only

b. temporary accounts only

c. both permanent and temporary accounts

d. permanent or real accounts only

16. All of the following are required steps in the accounting

cycle except

a. journalizing and posting closing entries

b. preparing financial statements

c. journalizing the transactions

d. preparing a worksheet


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17. The steps in the accounting cycle for a merchandising

company are the same as those in a service company except

a. An additional adjusting journal entry for inventory may be

needed in a merchandising company.

b. Closing journal entries are not required for a merchandising

company.

c. A post-closing trial balance is not required for a

merchandising company.

d. A multiple-step income statement is required for a

merchandising company.

18. Two accounts with subsidiary ledgers are

a. Accounts receivable and cash receipts.

b. accounts payable and cash payments

c. accounts receivable and accounts payable

d. sales revenue and cost of goods sold

19. Which of the following lists correctly first four steps of

accounting cycle which are given randomly below;

Prepare a trial balance, Journalize (record) transactions,

Making end-of-period adjustments, Post journal entries

to ledger accounts.

a. Making end-of-period adjustments; Prepare a trial

balance; Post journal entries to ledger accounts;

Journalize transactions;


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b. Prepare a trial balance; Making end-of-period

adjustments; Journalize transactions; Post journal

entries to ledger accounts

c. Journalize transactions; Post journal entries to ledger

accounts; Prepare a trial balance; Making end-of-period

adjustments

d. Journalize transactions; Post journal entries to ledger

accounts; Making end-of-period adjustments; Prepare a

trial balance

20. Vision Furniture sold five tables on account to Tough

Wood Corp. at price of $100 each. Which of the

following journal entry should be made by Vision

Furniture?

a) /

Cash 500

Sales Revenue 500

b) /

Accounts Receivable 500

Sales Revenue 500

c) /

Sales Revenue 500



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d) /


Cash 500

21. According to transaction is given in question 2, which

of the following journal entry should be made by Tough

Wood Corp?

a) /

M. Inventory 500

Sales Revenue 500

b) /

M. Inventory 500


c) /

Accounts Payable 500

M. Inventory 500

d) /

M. Inventory 500

Accounts Payable 500

22. On 22 August 2010 Express Organization Company

received $30.000 advance from Epoka University, for

organization of an accounting conference. The


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conference will be held on 4 October 2010. Which of

following journal entry should be made by Express

Organization on 22 August 2010?

a) /

Cash 30.000

Sales Revenue 30.000

b) /

Accounts Receivable 30.000

Unearned Revenue 30.000

c) /

Cash 30.000


d) /

Cash 30.000

Service Revenue 30.000

23. After the successfully organized conference, on 5

October 2010 Express Organization refunds unused

portion of the advance is $5000 and sends the invoice

amounted $25.000 to Epoka University. Which of


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following journal entry should be made by Express

Organization on 5 October 2010?

a) /


Cash 5.000


b) /



Cash 5.000

c) /


Cash 25.000


d) /



Cash 5.000


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24. CBA supermarket uses periodic inventory system and

some information about the company such as:

a. Inventory on hand on 1 January 2010 is $20.000

b. During 2010, purchases of merchandise is $40.000

c. Inventory on hand on 31 December 2010 is $15.000

Which of the following gives amount of CBA’s Cost of

Goods sold for 2010?

a. 40.000

b. 45.000

c. 55.000

d. 15.000

e. 60.000

25. According to adjusted trial balance of CBA Corporation

some expense and revenue accounts’ balances such as;

Sales Revenue: $35.000 Rent Revenue: $5000 Interest

Revenue: $1000 Cost of Goods Sold: $12.000

Advertising Expense: $5000 Interest Expense: $3000

After preparing of closing journal entries, which of

following entry shows transfer of profit to balance

sheet?

a. /

Cash 21.000

Income Summary 21.000

b. /



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c. /


Retained Earnings 21.000

d. /

Retained Earnings 21.000


26. IBM sold 20 computers on account to Saturn

Technology which unit sale price of computer is $1000.

Both companies use perpetual inventory system and unit

cost of computers is $500. Which of the following

journal entry belongs to recognition of revenue for

IBM?

a) /

Cash 20.000

M. Inventory 20.000

b) /

Cash 20.000


c) /


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M. Inventory 20.000

d) /



27. According to transaction given in question 8, which of

the following journal entry belongs to recognition of

cost and decrease in inventory for IBM?

a) /

COGS 10.000

M. Inventory 10.000

b) /

COGS 20.000

M. Inventory 20.000

c) /

M. Inventory 10.000

COGS 10.000

d) /

M. Inventory 10.000

COGS 10.000


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28. According to transaction given in question 8, sometimes

later, Saturn Technology returned 5 computers due to

some defects in these computers. Both companies use

perpetual inventory system. Relating to return, which of

the following belongs to the first journal entry should

be made by IBM?

a) /


M. Inventory 5.000

b) /

Sales Returns 5.000


c) /

Sales Returns 2.500


d) /

M. Inventory 5.000

Sales Revenue 5.000

29. Relating to return, which of the following belongs to the

second journal entry should be made by IBM?


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a) /

M. Inventory 5.000

COGS 5.000

b) /

M. Inventory 2.500

COGS 2.500

c) /

M. Inventory 2.500


d) /

M. Inventory 2.500

Sales Revenue 2.500

30. In connection with transaction given in question 8, which

of the following journal entry should be made by Saturn

Technology relating to return of five defected

computers?

a) /


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M. Inventory 5.000

b) /

Sales Returns 5.000

M. Inventory 5.000

c) /

Accounts Payable 5.000

M. Inventory 5.000

d) /

M. Inventory 5.000


31. On November 1, Blue Corp. purchased a six months

insurance policy from Green Insurance Corp. for $

6000. On November 30, Blue Corp. recorded this

expenditure on November 1 as Unexpired Insurance.

Which of the following journal entry belongs to

adjusting entry should be made on November 30 by

Blue Corp.?

a) /


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Insurance Expense 1.000

Unexpired Insurance 1.000

b) /


Unexpired Insurance 6.000

c) /


Cash 1.000

d) /


Cash 5.000

32. Starlight, a broadways media firm, uses the balance sheet

approach to estimate uncollectible accounts expense. At year-

end and aging of the accounts receivable produced the

following five groups, and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

credit balance is $32.000: Which of the following shows the

correct amount of the doubtful accounts at the end of year?


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a) 35.000

b) 39.300

c) 17.300

d) 49.300

33. Which of the following is a cost flow assumption in the

calculation of COGS for inventories?

a) Net Cost Method

b) LIFO

c) Periodic Inventory

d) Specific Identification

34. Which of the following valuation principle is applied to

‘Accounts Receivable’?

a) Current Market Value

b) Face Amount

c) Collectible Amount

Not Yet Due $500,000 1%

1-30 Days past Due $110,000 3%

31-60 Days past Due $50,000 10%

61-90 Days past Due $30,000 20%

Over 90 Days past Due $60,000 50%

Total $750,000


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d) LCM

35. If there is a difference between in the balance of Marketable

Securities and their current market value, which account

should be used for adjustment?

a) Gain/Loss from write-downs

b) Unrealized Holding gain/loss of investments

c) Gain/Loss from sale of investments

d) None of them

36. Which of the following valuation principle is applied to

‘Inventories’?

a) Current Market Value

b) Par Value

c) Net Realizable Value

d) LCM

37. On 1 November 2009 EPK Company borrows 100.000

Euros from a bank by the issuing a note for a period of

6 months at an annual interest rate of %12. Which of the

following journal entry shows the borrowing for EPK

Company?

a. /

Cash 100.000

Notes Payable 100.000

b. /


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Cash 100.000


c. /

Cash 100.000

Notes Receivable 100.000

d. /

Cash 106.000



following journal entry belongs to settlement of

borrowing by Company?

a) /


Cash 100.000

b) /


Interest Expense 6.000

Cash 106.000

c) /



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Interest Payable 2.000

Cash 106.000

d) /



Interest Payable 4.000

Cash 106.000

39. On 31 March 2010 ABC Company was established by Mr. A,

Mr. B and Mrs. C. On that day, each partner committed to

pay 100.000 Euros in 2010. On 1 July 2010 all the partners

paid their commitments in cash. Which of following journal

entry belongs to 31 March 2010?

a) /

Unpaid Capital 300.000

Capital Stock 300.000

b) /

Cash 300.000


c) /


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d) /




following journal entry belongs to 1 July 2010?

a) /


Cash 300.000

b) /

Cash 300.000


c) /



d) /

Cash 300.000



Page 70 of 127

41. Mercury Corp. decides to issue 500.000 shares of $10 par

value each on 26 July 2010. On 22 August 2010, underwriter

sent a memo explaining that shares were sold for $11 each

and money transferred.

Which of the following accounting treatment is correct

regarding this transaction?

a. Cash accounts is debit $5M on 26 July.

b. Share Premiums account is credit $500K

c. Cash account is debit $5M on 22 August

d. Unpaid Capital account is credit $5,5M

42. On June 1 Aspen Corp. has outstanding 200.000 shares of $1

par value of common stock with a market value of $5 per

share. On this date company declared and distributed a 5%

stock dividend. Which of the following accounting treatment

is correct regarding this transaction?

a. Cash accounts is debit $50K.

b. Capital Stock is debit $50K

c. Retained Earnings is debit $10K.

d. Retained Earnings is debit $50K.

43. CBA Corp. has 100.000 outstanding shares par value $1 and

50.000 preferred shares par value $10, additional paid-in

capital 250.000$, legal reserves $200.000. Total assets of

company $1.400.000 and total liabilities are $300.000.

According to this information, how much retained earnings

CBA has?


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a. $350.000

b. $150.000

c. $50.000

d. $250.000

44. According to information given in question 25, what is the

total of shareholder’s equity section in the balance sheet?

a. $1.100.000

b. $1.400.000

c. $250.000

d. $100.000

45. According to income statement and balance sheet of April

Corp in 2010. Net sales are $200.000 and Accounts

Receivable is $90.000 in 2010 and $10.000 in 2009. How

much cash collected from customers in 2010?

a) $80.000

b) $120.000

c) $200.000

d) $100.000

46. Which of the following is used as starting item in preparation

of the cash flows statement by indirect method

a) Net Income

b) Net Sales

c) Operating Income

d) COGS


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47. Which of the following is not a section in Cash Flows

Statement

a) Operating Activities

b) Financing Activities

c) Investing Activities

d) Selling Activities

48. Company has a vehicle which has $30.000 acquisition cost,

ten years useful life and $2000 residual value. According to

straight method depreciation; how much depreciation expense

should be recognized for each year?

a) $6000

b) $1400

c) $2800

d) $3.000

49. Which of the following ratio is used to measure liquidity of a

company?

a) Debt ratio

b) Current ratio

c) Operating Income ratio

d) Dividend yield ratio

50. Operating Income/Average Total Assets is used to measure

a) Productivity of the equity investment

b) Productivity of the assets of company

c) Productivity of sales

d) Effectiveness of assets of the company


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51. Net Income/Average shares of outstanding capital gives

following;

a) Earnings per share

b) Return on Equity

c) Return on Asset

d) Dividend yield

52. Which of the following is long term liability account?

a) Interest Payable

b) Accounts Payable

c) Retained Earnings

d) Bonds Payable

53. On 31 December 2015, ABC corporation’s credit balance of

income summary account is $2,000,000. Tax rate is 20 %

and company has to allocate 5% of legal reserves. How

much legal reserves will be added to share holder’s

equity?

a) $60.000

b) $160.000

c) $80.000

d) $30.000

54. According to information given in question 35, which of the

following accounting treatment is correct?

a) Tax payable is debit $400.000

b) Income summary is debit $1.600.000

c) Retained earnings is credit 1.520.000


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d) Income summary is credit $ 1.600.000

55. Which of the following is an intangible asset item?

a) Lands

b) Goodwill

c) Prepaid Insurance

d) Accumulated Depreciation

Operations Management (Operations Management,

Operations Research)

1. Operations Management is about:

a. Provision on a proper way of goods and services

b. The set of activities that provides value in the form of goods

and services by transforming inputs into outputs

c. Marketing, production, financing, forecasting etc.

d. All of the above.

2. Which one of the below mentioned function is not a basic

function of Operations Management?

a. Planning

b. Controlling

c. Financing

d. All of the above

3. Which one is part of the 10 strategic decisions of Operations

Management?

a. Location Strategy

b. Layout Strategy


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c. Supply Chain Management

d. All of the above

4. Distinguish the difference between goods and services:

a. Products are tangible while services are not.

b. Products are offered on a daily basis while services are not.

c. Products have a high customer interaction while services have

not.

d. Products cannot be inventoried while services can be

inventoried.

5. What is value-added?

a. A good needed to complement another good.

b. The difference between the cost of inputs and the value or

price of outputs.

c. The feedback that you get out of your service.

d. The measurement of process improvement.

6. Which one is the formula of productivity?

a. Input*Output

b. Input/Output

c. Output/Input

d. Efficiency*Input

7. Which one is not part of the input factors to measure

productivity?

a. Labor

b. Capital


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c. Material

d. Books

8. Efficiency, in capacity terms, is the ratio of:

a. Actual output to effective capacity.

b. Actual output to design capacity.

c. Effective capacity to actual output.

d. Design capacity to effective capacity.

9. The efficiency ratio must be larger than the utilization ratio

because:

a. Effective capacity is larger than design capacity.

b. Actual output is larger than effective capacity.

c. Design capacity is larger than effective capacity.

d. Actual output is larger than design capacity.

10. A precedence diagram:

a. Contain all the tasks.

b. Shows the sequences in which tasks are performed.

c. Shows all of the paths from the beginning to end of

completion of the product.

d. All of the above.

11. Which one of the following will always lead to an increase in

productivity?

a. Increase inputs and increase outputs

b. Increase outputs and hold inputs constant

c. Decrease both inputs and outputs


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d. Decrease outputs and hold inputs constant.

12. The critical path of a network is the:

a. Path with the fewest activities.

b. Shortest time path through the network.

c. Path with the most activities.

d. Longest time path through the network.

13. Which one is not an inventory management cost?

a. Holding cost

b. Setup cost

c. Ordering cost

d. Marketing cost

14. Which one is not a layout design consideration?

a. Higher utilization of space, equipment, and people.

b. Improved flow of information.

c. Improve working conditions.

d. Distinguish consumer preferences.

15. Low-volume, high-variety production is best suited for which

of the following process strategies?

a. Product focus

b. Process focus

c. Mass customization

d. Repetitive focus


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16. A large quantity and large variety of products are produced

in:

a. Mass customization

b. Process focus

c. Repetitive focus

d. Product focus

17. Quantitative methods of forecasting include:

a. Consumer market survey

b. Sales force composite

c. Jury of executive opinion

d. Exponential smoothing

18. What is the major difference in focus between location

decision in the service sector and in the manufacturing

center?

a. The focus in manufacturing is revenue maximization, while

the focus in service is cost.

b. The focus in service is revenue maximization, while the focus

in manufacturing is cost minimization.

c. The focus in manufacturing is on labor, while the focus in

service is on raw materials.

d. There is no difference in focus.

19. In the service sector, aggregate planning for the production of

high-volume intangible output is directed toward:

a. Attempting to manage demand to keep equipment and

employees working.


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b. Finding the size of the workforce to be employed.

c. Smoothing the production rate.

d. Planning for human resource requirements and managing

demand.

20. Activities A and B are both 6 days long and the only

immediate predecessors to activity C. Activity A has ES=8

and LS=8 and activity B has ES=7 and LS=10. What is the

ES of activity C?

a. 15

b. 14

c. 13

d. 16

21. A company wishes to determine the EOQ for an item that has

an annual demand of 2,000 units, a cost per order of $75, and

annual carrying cost of $7.50 per unit. What is the EOQ?

a. 40’000 units

b. 200 units

c. 100

d. 73

22. Using the tasks, task times in minutes and required

predecessors shown in the table, what is the cycle time

necessary to achieve maximum output?

Task Time Predecessor

A 2.0 --

B 1.0 A

C 2.0 A


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D 1.5 B,C

E 1.5 D

F 1.5 D

a. 9.5 minutes

b. 4.0 minutes

c. 1.0 minutes

d. 2.0 minutes

23. Champion Cooling Company is locating a warehouse that will

provide service to four store location: Seattle, with an annual

volume of 1’000 units; Fargo, with an annual volume of

2’000 units; Miami, with an annual volume of 6’000; and Las

Vegas, with an annual volume of 6’500 units. Las Vegas is

located at (1,1); Miami is located at (10,1); Seattle is located

at (1,6), and Fargo is located at (5,6). What is the best

location for the new warehouse?

a. (2,2)

b. (5,5)

c. (2,5)

d. (5,2

24. The U.S. Navy is considering four ports for their submarine

squid proofing operations: San Diego, Bremerton, Virginia

Beach, and Tulsa. The fixed costs at each location are

$500,000, $700,000, $1,000,000, and $250,000 respectively

and the variable costs are $300,000, $200,000, $100,000, and

$1,000,000. Which location can most economically service


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the 4 submarines per year that need this valuable service

performed?

a. Virginia Beach

b. Tulsa

c. Bremerton

d. San Diego

25. If demand is 106 during January, 120 in February, 134 in

March, and 142 in April, what is the 3-month simple moving

average for May?

a. 132

b. 126

c. 142

d. 138

26. The design and management of seamless, value-added processes

across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end

customer is called.

a. Supply Chain Management b. Supply Management

c. Operations Management

d. Demand Management

27. For supply chain management to be successful firms must work

together by sharing information on the following things, EXCEPT: a. Demand forecasts

b. Production plans and changes

c. Personal Plans

d. New marketing strategies

28. Which of the following represent reason(s) to employ Supply Chain

Management?


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a. Cost savings

b. better coordination of resources

c. meeting customer demand

d. All of above

29. The foundations of Supply Chain Management are:

a. Supply, Operations, Logistics, and Integration

b. Supply, Operations, and Logistics

c. Supply, Operations, and Integration d. Supply, Logistics, and Integration

30. Logistics elements are the following:

a. Transportation management b. Customer relationship management

c. Network design

d. All of above

31. One of the current trends in SCM is increased supply chain

visibility, which includes: a. Knowing exactly where products after they are sold to customers

b. Knowing exactly where your products are along supply chain

c. Knowing the problems that products might incur on delivery

d. All of above

32. The primary goals of purchasing include all, EXCEPT:

a. Ensure uninterrupted flows of raw materials at the lowest total cost

b. Improve quality of the finished goods produced c. Maximize customer satisfaction

d. Ensure uninterrupted flows of raw materials at any cost

33. The keys to successful partnershipsinclude the following,

EXCEPT.


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a. Shared Vision & Objectives

b. Strong supplier partnerships

c. Mutual Benefits & Needs

d. All of above

34. True source of income for all supply chain organizations include: a. customers

b. suppliers

c. own operations

d. All of above

35. The keys to successful supply chain management rely on the

following aspects, EXCEPT: a. Trust among partners

b. Unbalanced relationship among partners

c. honest communication among partners d. accurate communication among partners

36. Integration elements of SCM include the following, EXCEPT: a. Supply Chain Process Separation

b. Supply Chain Marketing

c. Supply Chain Performance Measurement

d. All of above

37. Which of the following SC impacts are NOT considered inside of

supply chain management? a. Environmental impacts

b. Social impacts

c. Supplier impact

d. Weather impact

38. Identification, acquisition, access, positioning, and management of

resources an organization needs or potentially needs in the attainment of its strategic objectives is called:

a. Supply Chain Management


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b. Supply Management

c. Operations Management

d. Demand Management

39. A certain supply chain is made up of: 1. Raw Materials Supplier 2.

Components Manufacturer 3. A firm that manufacturers Sub-assemblies 4. End Item Manufacturer 5. Wholesale Distributor 6.

Local Retail Chain Warehouse. Who is considered the second-tier

supplier of the firm that manufacturers Sub-assemblies?

a. Raw Materials Supplier

b. Wholesale Distributor

c. The end item consumer

d. Components Manufacturer

40. Companies hold a supply of inventory for all the following reasons

EXCEPT: a. meet variation in product demand

b. increase production change/setup costs

c. allow production scheduling flexibility

d. purchase in bulk to take advantage of quantity discounts

41. JIT in relation to SCM emphasizes all the following, EXCEPT:

a. Reduction of waste b. Continuous improvement

c. Keeping high inventory

d. Channel integration

42. The process of planning, implementing, and controlling procedures

for the efficient and effective transportation and storage of goods

including services, and related information from the point of origin to the point of consumption for the purpose of conforming to

customer requirements is also referred to as:

a. Operations b. Transportation planning

c. Logistics


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d. Procurement

43. Which of the following carriers typically transports goods for the company that owns the carrier, they are not subject to economic

regulation, and since the fleets are rather large the cost of transport

is very likely less than if the company had hired another company to provide the service?

a. Private Carrier

b. Exempt Carrier c. Contract Carrier

d. Common carrier

44. According to the text, the FOUR important elements of the supply chain are:

a. Purchasing, manufacturing, transportation, retail stores

b. Purchasing, operations, logistics, integration c. Purchasing, manufacturing, logistics, transportation

d. Purchasing, operations, manufacturing, distribution

45. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cost-of-service

pricing?

a. Prices are established based on fixed and variable costs of

transportation b. Prices vary based on volume and distance

c. Prices tend to rise as shipping distance increases

d. Carriers price their services at the highest levels the markets

will bear

46. Which of the following statements is TRUE? Consumers buy

products based on a combination of: a. Cost, quality, availability, maintainability, and reputation

b. Cost, quality, availability, and brand

c. Cost, quality, advertising, store preference, and appearance d.Cost, quality, manufacturer, and simplicity of use


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47. Which of the following is a reverse logistics activity?

a. Recycling products and components

b. Delivering finished goods to your customer c. Developing a collaborative relationship with your supplier

d. Managing the quality of products

48. Which strategy relies on a constant output rate and capacity while

varying inventory and backlog levels to handle the fluctuating

demand pattern? a. Mixed Production Strategy

b. The Level Production Strategy

c. The Chase Production Strategy

d. The Aggregate Production Strategy

49. Lean production emphasizes allthe following, EXCEPT:

a. Continuous improvement b. Reduction of waste

c. Synchronization of material flows

d. Large batch sizes

50. The four primary activities of concern in service response logistics

are the management of:

a. Distribution channels, service quality, reputation and waiting times

b. Service capacity, waiting times, distribution channels and

service quality c. Labor standards, distribution channels, waiting times and service

quality

d. Service capacity, visual workplace, waiting times and distribution

channels

51. Other alternative names of the Operations Research include

all, EXCEPT:

a. Management Science

b. Decision Analysis


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c. Qualitative analysis

d. Decision science

52. In which of the following situations Operations Research is

applied:

a. where there is a need to allocate scarce resources

b. where there is a need to choose between alternative courses of

action

c. where there is a need to find an optimal solution

d. All of above

53. Which of the following aim is NOT one of Operations

Research?

a. to sound as a smart manager

b. to provide a rational basis for decision

c. to offer solution for improving performance

d. to facilitate evidence-based decision making

54. The problem-solving process of OR can be initiated by:

a. a customer complaint

b. an employee

c. a supplier

d. All of them

55. Operations Research techniques consist of:

a. general mathematical models

b. analytical procedures

c. algorithms

d. All of above


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56. A situation that requires operations research solution may be

in case of:

a. a conscious effort to decrease efficiency

b. respond to an unexpected crisis

c. when interviewing an operations expert

d. None of above

57. Problem Solving process in Operations Research includes:

a. Defining variables

b. Definingconstraints

c. Identifying data requirements

d. All of above

58. Linear programming (LP)characteristics include all,

EXCEPT:

a. LP is ranked as the most important scientific advance of the

mid-20th century

b. LP is the answer to all business problems

c. LP is the most common type of application when allocating

limited resources among competing activities in a best

possible

d. LP is a standard tool that has saved many thousands or

millions of dollars for most companies or businesses?

59. When finding an optimal solution to a LP problem you need

the following DATA:

a. Number of resources available

b. Number of resources used

c. Profit contribution for each product

d. All of above


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60. The tableau method can be applied when you have:

a. minimization LP problems

b. maximization LP problems

c. minimization and maximization problems

d. none of above

61. What is an optimal solution to a certain problem?

a. A solution to the model that maximizes or minimizes some

measure of merit over all feasible solutions.

b. A solution to the model that only maximizes some measure of

merit over all feasible solutions.

c. A solution to the model that only minimizes some measure of

merit over all feasible solutions.


62. Which of the following is not a phase of the OR Problem

Solving Process?

a. Formulating the model

b. Weekly scheduling

c. Testing the model

d. Implementing the model

63. The following should be taken in consideration when

constructing a model?

a. Problem must be translated from qualitative to quantitative

terms

b. Form a logical model with a series of rules

c. Define relationships between various factors of the problem.

d. All the above

64. A solution for which all constraints are satisfied is called:

a. Infeasible solution


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b. Feasible solution

c. Optimal solution


65. Afeasible solution that has the most favorable value of the

objective function is called:

a. Infeasible solution

b. Feasible solution

c. Optimal solution


66. When defining a problem in OR, all the following should be

considered, EXCEPT:

a. Short run over long-run profit maximization

b. Long run over short-run profit maximization

c. Ensuring the appropriate objectives

d. Social responsibility to stakeholders

Questions 20 – 23 apply to the following linear programing

problem:

67. X1 and X2 variables in the above model represent:


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a. Constraints

b. Decision variables

c. Objective function

d. Profit variables

68. Equation Z = 10X1 + 20X2 in the above model represents:

a. Constraints



d. Profit variables

69. Equation X1 + 3X2 ≤ 45 in the above model represents:

a. Constraint



d. Profit variables

70. Equations X1≥ 0 and X2 ≥ 0in the above model represent:

a. Profit Variables



d. Non-negativity constraints

71. What is the optimal solution in the following graphical

solution of an LP problem?


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a. (0,0)

b. (0,10)

c. (10,20)

d. (25,0)

72. What is the optimal solution in the following graphical

solution of an LP problem?


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a. (0,0)

b. (0,5)

c. All points in the line from (2,4) until (6,0)

d. All points in the line from (0,5) until (2,4)

73. What is the next step in solving the following problem by

Simplex Tableau Method, after adding the slack variables?

a. Step a


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b. Step b

74. What is the dual form of the following LP problem?

a. Formulation a

b. Formulation b


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c. None of above

75. Given the following data, what is the correct formulation of

the linear programming model for this problem?

a. Formulation a

b. Formulation b


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c. None of above

Finance

1. The tuition fees that Epoka receives from the students, are

component of its:

a) Operating Cash Flow

b) Net Capital Spending

c) Liabilities

d) None of them

2. Which of the following does not affect the sustainable growth

rate:

a) Retention ratio

b) ROE

c) EM

d) Current Ratio

3. Zero-coupon bonds method of payment is similar to:

a. Pure-Discount loans


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b. Interest only loans

c. Amortized loans

d. None of them

4. Which of the following is not a stock component:

a. Dividend (D)

b. Growth rate (g)

c. Required Return (R)

d. Yield to Maturity (YTM)

5. For a bond selling at face value, the following is always true:

a. YTM > Cr

b. YTM = Cr

c. YTM < Cr

d. None of them

6. The receivables turnover is 10 times; accounts receivable is

$24,000; costs are $80,000, and Earnings before Taxes (EBT)

is -$20,000. The Operating Cash Flow for this company are:

a. $140,000

b. $160,000

c. $180,000

d. $200,000

7. If Current Ratio is 1.5 and Net Working Capital is $5,000;

then Current Assets are:

a. $5,000

b. $10,000

c. $15,000


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d. $20,000

8. If Total Debt Ratio is 0.6; then the Equity Multiplier is:

a. 1.5

b. 2.5

c. 3.5

d. 4.5

9. What is your tax bill if you have a wage of 250,000 leke:

a. 13,000

b. 27,600

c. 40,600

d. 50,600

10. You deposit $5,000 in Raiffeisen Bank. The bank pays you

8% simple interest. How much will you have after 15 years:

a. $3,000

b. $6,000

c. $9,000

d. $11,000

Taxable Income (leke) Tax Rate

0-30,000 0%

30,000-130,000 13%

Above 130,000 23%


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11. You want to get a loan worth $200,000. In order to get this

loan, the bank requires you to have 20% of the loan’s value in

deposits. If, you currently have only 35,000$ in an account

that pays 10% interest, in how many years you can get the

loan?

a. 0.4 years

b. 1.4 years

c. 2.4 years

d. 3.4 years

12. You deposit $2,000 in BKT. If your account pays 6% for the

first year, 7% for the next year, and 8% for all consecutive

years, how much will you have after 10 years?

a. $2,198.65

b. $3,198.65

c. $4,198.65

d. $8,587.05

13. You will receive $1,000 in four years, $2,000 in five years

and $3,000 in six years. With an interest rate of 10%, what is

the present value of these cashflows (their value at year 0)?

a. $3,618.28

b. $4,618.28

c. $6,000

d. $6,618.28

14. Which of the following is the best investment option as a

depositor:


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a. 12 % compounded monthly

b. 12.3% compounded quarterly

c. 12.5 % compounded annually

15. The present value of a perpetuity making monthly payments

of $500 with an interest rate of 6% compounded monthly is:

a. $8,333

b. $10,000

c. $83,333

d. $100,000

16. The current price of a zero-coupon bond with a YTM of 7%

and 10 years to maturity is:

a. $499

b. $508

c. $614

d. $1082

17. If the coupon rate on a bond is 8%, and the current yield is

9%, then this bonds price is:

a. $780

b. $800

c. $888

d. $1012

18. The current price of a constant growth stock with D0 = $5, R

= 12% and g = 7% is:

a. $87


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b. $97

c. $107

d. $117

19. If a project has: year 0 = -$500 year 1 = $200 year 2 =

$200 and year 3 = $200, then the payback period for this

project is:

a. 2 years

b. 2.5 years

c. 3 years

d. 3.5 years

20. A project has an initial cost of -10,000. Cash flows of 3,000

will be generated for the next 7 years. If required return is

10%; what is the NPV of this project

a. $4,605

b. $8,605

c. $10,605

d. $14,605

Economics (Introduction to Economics 1& 2,

Macroeconomics)

1. The central problem in economics is that of a. comparing the success of command versus market economies b. guaranteeing that production occurs in the most efficient

manner c. guaranteeing a minimum level of income for every citizen


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d. allocating scarce resources in such a manner that society's

unlimited needs or wants are satisfied as well as possible

2. In a free-market economy the allocation of resources is

determined by

a. votes taken by consumers

b. a central planning authority

c. By consumer preferences

d. the level of profits of firms

3. What are the three problems of societies have to solve?

a. What, how and where is produced?

b. What, how and for you is produced?

c. Why, what and how is produced?

d. What, how is produced and for whom it will be produced?

4. Which of the following shows the relationship between the

price of a good and the amount of that good that consumers

want at that price?

a. supply curve

b. demand curve

c. supply schedule

d. production possibilities frontier

5. Which of the following is not a determinant of demand for

good X:

a. Average income.


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b. input prices

c. Tastes and preferences.

d. Price of good X

6. Which of the following factors will cause the supply curve to

shift:

e. Changes in technology.

f. Changes in input prices.

g. Changes in the prices of related goods.

h. All

7. Other things held equal, if demand increases, equilibrium

price will __________ and equilibrium quantity will

__________. However, if supply increases, equilibrium price

will _________ and equilibrium quantity will ________,

other things held equal.

a. decrease; decrease; increase; increase

b. increase; increase; decrease; increase

c. decrease; decrease; increase; decrease

d. increase; increase; decrease; decrease

8. Which of the following situations leads to a lower equilibrium

price?

a. A decrease in demand accompanied by an increase in supply

b. A decrease in supply accompanied by an increase in demand

c. A decrease in supply, without a change in demand

d. An increase in demand, without a change in supply


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9. When the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater

than the percentage change in price:

a. There is little responsiveness in quantity demanded to

changes in price.

b. There are few substitutes for the good in question.

c. The demand curve is relatively steep.

d. The value of demand elasticity is greater than one.

e. All of the above.

10. We get fewer and fewer additional units as we add more and

more units of the inputs to production process. We call this

fact the:

a. Law of diminishing marginal utility.

b. Law of diminishing returns.

c. Law of supply.

d. Law of demand.

11. Which of the following fits the definition of GDP?

a. The value of all final goods and services produced within a

given period.

b. The market value of a country’s output.

c. The value of output produced by factors of production located

within a country.

d. The market value of all final goods and services produced

within a given period in a country.

12. An increase of 10% in nominal GDP indicates that:


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a. Both real GDP and the price level could have contributed to

that increase.

b. The aggregate price level has increased by 10%.

c. Real output and the aggregate price level have increased by

5% each.

d. Real output has increased by 10%.

13. Which of the following is a measure of the overall price

level?

a. Nominal GDP.

b. The GDP deflator.

c. The inflation rate.

d. Real GDP.

14. In 2003, the consumer price index (CPI) was 184.0. In 2004,

the CPI rose to 188.9. Using these CPI figures, what was the

rate of inflation between these two years?

a. 188.9%.

b. 2.66%.

c. 2.59%.

d. 4.9%.

15. GDP=

a. C+I+G

b. C+G+X

c. .C+I+G+X

d. none of the above


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16. Perfect competition is found when:

a. A large number of firms produce slightly differentiated

products.

b. A single firm produces the entire output of an industry

c. No firm is large enough to affect the market price.

d. An industry is dominated by few firms.

17. The zero-profit point will occur where:

a. MC=P

b. MC=MU

c. AC=P

d. AC=MP

18. In monopolistic competition there is/are:

a. Many sellers who each face a downward, sloping demand

curve.

b. A few sellers who each face a downward, sloping demand

curve.

c. Only one seller who faces a downward, sloping demand

curve.

d. Many sellers who each face a perfectly elastic demand curve.

19. If a perfectly competitive firm cannot avoid economic losses,

it should continue to operate in the short run as long as

a. price exceeds average variable cost

b. price exceeds average total cost

c. the market price exceeds average total cost

d. marginal revenue exceeds average fixed cost


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20. Suppose, in 2010, you purchased a house built in 2003.

Which of the following would be included in the gross

domestic product for 2010?

a. the value of the house in 2010

b. the value of the house in 2003

c. the value of the house in 2010 minus depreciation

d. the value of the services of the real estate agent

Law (Introduction to Law, Business Law)

1. Which of the following differentiates “law” from the other

rules that exist in the society?

a) compulsory nature

b) enforcement by state authorities

c) legal consequences in case of non-compliance

d) all of them

2. Which of the following is not a formal source of law in

Albania?

a) laws approved by the parliament

b) international agreements ratified by the parliament

c) “Leke Dukagjini” Canon

d) normative acts of the Council of Ministers

3. Which of the following is not true about courts?

a) their function is conflict resolution

b) they are part of the judicial system


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c) they enjoy independency from other powers

d) they approve laws

4. In Albania, if the law does not provide otherwise, the law

enters into force:

a) 15 days after the approval in the Parliament

b) 20 days after the publication in the Official Gazette

c) 15 days after the publication in the Official Gazette

d) 30 days after publication in the Official Gazette

5. The main organs of the judicial power in Albania are:

a) the first instance court, higher court, constitutional court

b) the first instance court, appellate court, higher court

c) first instance court, appeal court, higher court, European

Court of Human Rights

d) first instance, appeal, higher court, High Council of

Justice, Constitutional Court

6. The limitation of the rights and freedoms recognized in the

Constitution of the Republic of Albania is not valid when

established:

a) for a public interest

b) by a decision of the Council of Ministers

c) for the protection of the rights of others

d) in proportion with the situation that has dictated it

7. Which of the following does not have the right to propose

laws in the Parliament in Albania?


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a) Council of Ministers

b) Every deputy

c) Judicial Power

d) 20 000 people with the right to vote

8. Which one is not true about the principles of the Constitution

in the Republic of Albania?

a) It is the fundamental law

b) Separation of judicial power, legislative power and

executive power

c) The principle of respecting the dignity of the citizen

d) Albania is a semi-presidential system

9. Which one is not true about the capacity to act?

a) It is the ability of an individual to exercise rights and

obligations

b) At the age of 18 the person has full capacity to act

c) The capacity to act can be limited by a court decision because

of mental disease

d) The capacity to act can be limited by a court decision because

of physical disability

10. Which of the following is the mode of acquisition of

ownership?

a) Through contract

b) Through inheritance

c) Through objects found

d) All of them


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11. Which is one of the main documents served for the

establishment of the commercial company?

a) The Prospect

b) Financial Statement

c) The Statute

d) The Competition’s Authority Report

12. Which of the following constitutes the right feature of the

Limited Liability Company?

a) Partner’s death leads to the breach of company

b) It has unlimited liability to the creditors

c) Its required registered capital is ALL 5 million

d) The law permits the company to run the business even with

only one partner

13. Which of the following is not true about the features of the

registered capital in commercial companies?

a) The whole contributions brought by partners to establish a

joint-venture organized as a company

b) The participation part in the registered capital prevent the

partners to exercise rights and duties in the company

c) Fundamental capital is divided into some basic units with

equal value

d) The capital is considered as a guarantee for the creditors of

the company


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14. Which of the following is not correct about the features of

commercial company?

a) Commercial company has a contractual nature

b) It has independent and personal wealth

c) Companies are divided into unlimited and limited companies

d) The company gains its juridical personality before its

registration in the Business Registration Center

15. Which of the following constitutes the right feature of the

Joint-Stock Company with public offer?

a) The invitations to sign securities are addressed to an

unspecified number of investors

b) The legal requirement for the registered capital is ALL 100

lek

c) This type of company operates with limited and unlimited

partners

d) The company contributes unlimited

16. Which of the following is considered a mixed company?

a) General Partnership

b) Joint Stock Company

c) Limited Liability Company

d) Limited Company

17. Which of the following constitutes the wrong statement about

the effect of the control group existence?


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a) The parent company is obliged to cover annual losses of the

controlled company

b) Creditors of the controlled company have the right to ask

anytime to the parent company to provide sufficient

guarantees for their credits

c) Partners or shareholders of the controlled company has the

right to ask to the parent company anytime to purchase their

quotes, stocks or liabilities owned by them in the company

d) The controlled company is responsible for the results and

consequences of the parent company’s trade activity

18. Which of the following refers to the case when the

commercial company does not have criminal liability?

a) Criminal offence is committed by its bodies or its legal

representatives

b) The criminal offence is committed neither on behalf of the

company and nor in favor of it

c) Criminal offence is committed by a person that is under the

authority of the person that represents, administrates and

manages the company

d) Criminal offence is committed because of lack of control or

omission of supervisory body

19. Why is it necessary to protect the Intellectual Property?

a) To grant the license of your creation

b) To avoid the attempts of the others to make similar or

identical products as yours

c) To maintain it as a value asset of the business

d) All of the above


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20. Find the correct alternative regarding the characteristic of the

public procurement system.

a) It is not a public competition procedure

b) The contract should be signed among the Contracting

Authority and Economic Operators

c) Payment does not derive from public funds

d) It is not obligatory to sign any declaration in terms of conflict

of interest by the organs of the public procurement system


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Answer key MANAGEMENT

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X

15 X

16 X

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X

21 X

22 X

23 X

24 X

25 X

26 X

27 X

28 X


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29 X

30 X

31 X

32 X

33 X

34 X

35 X

36 X

37 X

38 X

39 X

40 X

41 X

42 X

43 X

44 X

45 X

46 X

47 X

48 X

49 X

50 X

51 X

52 X

53 X

54 X

55 X

56 X

57 X

58 X

59 X


Page 116 of 127

60 X

61 X

62 X

63 X

64 X

65 X

66 X

67 X

68 X

69 X

70 X

71 X

Answer key MARKETING

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X

15 X

16 X


Page 117 of 127

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X

21 X

22 X

23 X

24 X

25 X

26 X

27 X

28 X

29 X

30 X

31 X

32 X

33 X

34 X

35 X

36 X

37 X

38 X

39 X

40 X

41 X

42 X

43 X

44 X

45 X

46 X

47 X


Page 118 of 127

48 X

49 X

50 X

51 X

52 X

53 X

54 X

55 X

56 X

57 X

58 X

59 X

60 X

61 X

62 X

63 X

64 X

65 X

66 X

67 X

68 X

69 X

70 X

71 X

72 X

73 X

74 X

75 X

76

77 X

78 X


Page 119 of 127

79 X

80 X

81 X

82 X

83 X

84 X

85 X

86 X

87 X

88 X

89 X

90 X

Answer key ACCOUNTING

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X


Page 120 of 127

15 X

16 X

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X

21 X

22 X

23 X

24 X

25 X

26 X

27 X

28 X

29 X

30 X

31 X

32 X

33 X

34 X

35 X

36 X

37 X

38 X

39 X

40 X

41 X

42 X

43 X

44 X

45 X


Page 121 of 127

46 X

47 X

48 X

49 X

50 X

51 X

52 X

53 X

54 X

55 X

Ans23r key OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X

15 X

16 X


Page 122 of 127

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X

21 X

22 X

23 X

24 X

25 X

26 X

27 X

28 X

29 X

30 X

31 X

32 X

33 X

34 X

35 X

36 X

37 X

38 X

39 X

40 X

41 X

42 X

43 X

44 X

45 X

46 X

47 X


Page 123 of 127

48 X

49 X

50 X

51 X

52 X

53 X

54 X

55 X

56 X

57 X

58 X

59 X

60 X

61 X

62 X

63 X

64 X

65 X

66 X

67 X

68 X

69 X

70 X

71 X

72 X

73 X

74 X

75 X


Page 124 of 127

Answer key FINANCE

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X

15 X

16 X

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X

Answer key ECONOMICS

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X


Page 125 of 127

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X

15 X

16 X

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X

Answer key LAW

A B C D

1 X

2 X

3 X

4 X

5 X

6 X

7 X

8 X

9 X


Page 126 of 127

10 X

11 X

12 X

13 X

14 X

15 X

16 X

17 X

18 X

19 X

20 X


Page 127 of 127

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FCE, BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, EPOKA …epoka.edu.al/mat/feas/FINAL COMPREHENSIVE EXAM FOR IMLM... · 2019-05-20 · FCE, BUSINESS ADMINISTRATION DEPARTMENT, EPOKA UNIVERSITY