INFECTIOUS DISEASE TEST 1

1. Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis:

(a) Staphylococcus albus

(b) Streptococcus facalis

(c) Salmonella typhi

(d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

2. Bacterial endocarditis is most commonly caused by:

(a) Beta- Hemolytic Streptococci

(b) Alpha- Hemolytic Streptococci

(c) Staphylococcus aureus

(d) Cardiobacterium

3. SBE is commonly caused by:

(a) Streptococcus viridans

(b) Strept-facalis

(c) Staphyloccus

(d) Pneumococcus

4. Infective endocarditis in drug abuse commonly affects:

(a) Tricuspid valve

(b) Mitral valve

(c) Aortic valve

(d) Pulmonary valve

5. Commonest complication of subacute bacterial endocarditis:

(a) CCF

(b) Thromboembolism

(c) Pulmonary edema

(d) Renal failure

6. In SABE test of most diagnostic significance:

(a) Serial blood culture

(b) Anti DNAase

(c) ASLO

(d) Anti streptolysin

7. Commonest route of infection in acute pyogenic abscess of liver is:

(a) Ascending infection

(b) Haematogenous

(c) Lymphatic

(d) Trauma

8. MC cause of liver abscess:

(a) Streptococcus

(b) Staph aureus

(c) E. Coli

(d) Staph pyogenes

9. In a patient presenting with diarrhea due to vibrio cholera, which of the following will be present:

(a) Abdominal pain

(b) Presence of leukocytes in stool

(c) Fever

(d) Occurrence of many cases in the same locality

10. In a patient presenting with diarrhea and pus cells in stool, the causative organism can be:

(a) Non vibrio cholera

(b) Enterotoxigenic E. coli

(c) Enteroinvasive E. coli

(d) Vibrio cholera

11. A group of students who attended a college banquet reported vomiting, watery diarrhea in 6 hours. The most causative organism is:

(a) Shigella

(b) Clostridium botulinum

(c) E. Coli

(d) Bacillus cerus

12. Poisoning of food by which of the organisms has the shortest incubation period:

(a) S. aureus

(b) Salmonella

(c) Botulism

(d) Cl. perfringesn

13. Treatment of travellers diarrhea is:

(a) Sulfaguandine

(b) Diphenoxylate and atropine

(c) Loperamide and Quinolones

(d) Chloromycetic and streptomycin

14. Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis:

(a) Penicillin

(b) Metronidazole

(c) Ciprofloxacin

(d) Vancomycin

15. The parasite which is transmitted sexually:

(a) Strongyloidesstercoralis

(b) Necatoramericanus

(c) Ankylostomaduodonale

(d) None

16. A 45 year old female complains of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On examination there is cervicitis along with a mucopurulent discharge best approach to isolate the causative agent would be:

(a) Culture chocolate agar supplemented with Haemin

(b) Culture on McCoy cells

(c) Culture on a bilayer human blood agar

(d) Culture on vero cell lines

17. The syndromic management of urethral discharge includes treatment of:

(a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and herpes genitalis

(b) Chlamydia trachomatis and herpes genitalis

(c) Neisseria gonorrhea and Chlamydia trachomatis

(d) Syphilis and chancroid

18. Painful lymphadenopathy is seen in:

(a) Donovanosis

(b) Syphilis

(c) Chancroid

(d) Gonorrhea

19. In a post-operative intensive care unit, five patients developed post-operative wound infection on the same wound. The best method to prevent cross infection occurring in other patients in the same ward is to:

(a) Give antibiotics to all other patients in the ward

(b) Fumigate the ward

(c) Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite

(d) Practice proper hand washing

20. Most common mode of transmission of nosocomial infections:

(a) Nasal droplets

(b) Catheters

(c) Contact with hospital personal

(d) Contaminated needles

21. Nosocomial pneumonia is most common due to:

(a) Gram +ve bacilli

(b) Gram –vecocci

(c) Gram +ve normal

(d) Gram –ve bacilli

22. Most common catheter induced blood infections is due to;

(a) Staphylococcus aureus

(b) Coagulase negative staphylococci

(c) Gram negative bacilli

(d) Candida

23. Universal precaution is applicable to all, EXCEPT:

(a) Urine

(b) Semen

(c) Feces

(d) Sputum

24. A patient of immunocompromised due to transplantation is suffering from pyrexia and neutropenia. Most likely cause is:

(a) HSV

(b) CMV

(c) Gram –ve organism

(d) Gram +ve organism

25. Most common cause of death in renal transplant patient in India:

(a) Rejection

(b) Infection

(c) Uremia

(d) Haemorrhage

26. Pneumococcal vaccination is indicated in all except:

(a) Post splenectomy

(b) Sickle cell anemia

(c) HIV

(d) After radiotherapy

27. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week. He is on ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever an his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infections is:

(a) Staphylococcus aureus

(b) Viridans streptococci

(c) Enterococcus faecalis

(d) Coagulase negative staphylococcus

28. Young female presents with myalgia, fever, headache, diarrhea and an erythematous rash which first appeared in the groin. Most likely diagnosis is:

(a) Toxic epidermal necrolysis

(b) Staph. Scalded skin syndrome

(c) Toxic shock syndrome

(d) Epidermolysisbullosa

29. A patient in an ICU is on a CVP line. His blood culture shows growth of grain positive cocci which are catalase positive and coagulase negative. The most likely etiological agent is:

(a) Staplycoccus aureus

(b) Staplylococcus epidermidis

(c) Streptococcus pyogenes

(d) Enterococcus faecalis

30. The following drug is not useful for MRSA:

(a) Cefaclor

(b) Cotrimoxazole

(c) Ciprofloxacin

(d) Vancomycin

31. All of the following are true regarding diphtheria, EXCEPT:

(a) Tonsillar membrane can be easily wiped off

(b) There may be swelling of neck causing bull neck appearance

(c) With high degree of immunity a membrane may never appear

(d) In laryngeal diphtheria, tracheostomy may be needed to relieve respiratory obstruction

32. All are seen in diphtheric outcome, EXCEPT:

(a) Pseudomembrane formation

(b) Cardiomyopathy

(c) Endotoxemia

(d) Polyneuropathy

33. Acute ascending paralysis is seen in all, EXCEPT:

(a) Diptheria

(b) Porphryia

(c) DM

(d) GBS

34. Tetanus is characterized by:

(a) Can be cultured from wound

(b) Spasm of masseter occurs first

(c) Incubation period is 2-3 days

(d) Accompanied by loss of consciousness

35. Among the toxins produced by clostridium botulinum the non-neurotoxic one is:

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C1

(d) C2

36. Crepitus in a wound is produced by:

(a) Staph aureus

(b) Clostridium tetani

(c) Clostridium welchii

(d) Pseudomonas

37. Best treatment to prevent gas gangrene:

(a) Thorough debridement

(b) Anti serum

(c) Vaccination

(d) Antibiotics

38. A 60 years old is diagnosed to be suffering from legionnaires disease after he returns home from attending a convention. He could have acquired it:

(a) From a person suffering from the infection while traveling in the aeroplane

(b) From a chronic carrier in the convention center

(c) From inhalation of the aerosol in the air conditioned room at convention centre

(d) By sharing an infected towel with a fellow delegate at the convention

39. Pontiac fever is caused by:

(a) Marbug virus

(b) Legionella

(c) Tuberculosis bacilli

(d) Sindbis virus

40. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents, EXCEPT:

(a) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

(b) Legionella

(c) Human Corona virus

(d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

41. An elderly male patient presented with fever, chest pain and dry cough, Sputum culture showed growth on Charcol Yeast Extract Medium. The organism is:

(a) H. influenza

(b) Moraxella cartarrhalis

(c) Legionella

(d) Burkholderiacepacia

42. All of the following are true regarding whooping cough, EXCEPT:

(a) Spread by droplet infection

(b) 90% of cases occur in children under 5 years of age

(c) The whoop stage is more infection than catarrhal stage

(d) Blood count shows lymphocytosis

43. A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent:

(a) 0 157:H 7

(b) 0 159:H 7

(c) 0 107:H 7

(d) 0 55:H 7

44. With reference to infections with E.coil the following are true, EXCEPT:

(a) Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with persistent diarrhoea

(b) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome

(c) Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis

(d) Enterotoxigenic E. coil is a common cause of travellersdiarrhoea

45. Infective endocarditis due to pseudomonas is most commonly seen with:

(a) Intravenous drug abuse of pentazocin

(b) HIV patient

(c) Chronic steroid therapy

(d) Elderly with community acquired penumonia

46. The blood culture from a patient of febrile neutropenia has grown Pseudomonas aeruginosa. It was found to be a producer of extended spectrum beta lactamase enzyme. The beast choice of antimicrobial therapy should be:

(a) Ceftazidime + Amikacin

(b) Azireonam + Amjkacin

(c) Cefkirome + Amikacin

(d) Imipenem + Amikacin

47. All are effective against pseudomonas, EXCEPT:

(a) Azithromycin

(b) Imipenem

(c) Ceftazidine

(d) Piperacillin

47. A farmer rearing sheep, presented with complaints of fever and weakness for the last 10 days & hepatomegaly. Biopsy of liver showed non caseating granuloma. These are most likely due to infection with:

(a) Brucella melitensis

(b) Brucella canis

(c) Francisellatularensis

(d) Yersinia pestis

48. Which one of the following is effective in the treatment of brucellosis:

(a) Rifampicin

(b) Amphotericin

(c) Ketoconazole

(d) Pencillin

49. Actinomycosis is commonly seen in:

(a) Tibia

(b) Mandible

(c) Scapula

(d) Femur

50. In actinomycosis of the spine, the abscess usually erodes:

(a) Intervertebral disc

(b) Into the pleural cavity

(c) Into the reteroperitoneal space

(d) Towards the skin

51. Which of the following antituberculosis drug is not given in pregnancy:

(a) Streptomycin

(b) INH

(c) Ethamutol

(d) Rifampicin

52. Tubercular nephritis is characterized by:

(a) Pus cells without organism in the acidic urine

(b) Pus cells with organism in the acidic urine

(c) Pus cells without organism in the alkaline urine

(d) Pus cells with organism in the alkaline urine

53. A poverty stricken mother suffering from active tuberculosis delivers a baby. Which one of the following advices would be the most appropriate in her case:

(a) Breast feeding and BCG immunization

(b) Breast feeding and isoniazid administration

(c) Expressed breast milk and BCG immunization

(d) Stop feeds and isoniazid administration

54. Nerve abscess in tuberculoid leprosy treatment of choice:

(a) Incission and drainage

(b) High dose clofazimine

(c) Steroids

(d) Thalidomide

55. Single skin lesion is seen in which type of Leprosy:

(a) LL

(b) TT

(c) BL

(d) BT

56. Leonine facies is seen in which disease:

(a) Leprosy

(b) Syphilis

(c) Jaws

(d) Trypanosomiasis

57. In leprosy nerves commonly involved are:

(a) High ulnar, low median

(b) High median, low ulnar

(c) Triple nerve palsy

(d) High radial, low median

58. Treatment of lepra type II reaction are all, EXCEPT:

(a) Clofazimine

(b) Thalidomide

(c) Corticosteroids

(d) Cessation of antileprosy treatment

59. Drug of choice with type I lepra reaction with severe neuritis is:

(a) Steroids systemic

(b) Clofazimine

(c) Thalidomide

(d) Chloroquine

60. Thalidomide is useful in:

(a) Treatment of leprosy

(b) Treatment of lepra reaction type I

(c) Treatment of lepra reaction type II

(d) Treatment of pure neuritic leprosy

INFECTIOUS DISEASE TEST 2

61. Components of Innate immunity that are active against viral cells include:

(a) NK cells

(b) Cytotoxic T cells

(c) B cell

(d) Memory B cell

62. A 65 years old man has painful rashes over his right upper eyelid and forehead for the last 48 hours. He underwent chemotherapy for Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma one year age. His temperature is 90

o F, blood pressure 138/76 mm

Hg and pulse is 80/minute. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:,

(a) Impetigo

(b) Herpes zoster

(c) Pyoderma gangrenosum

(d) Erysipelas

63. Herpes zoster is commonly seen in a:

(a) Cervical region

(b) Thoracic region

(c) Lumbar region

(d) Geniculate ganglion

64. Drug of choice in Herpes zoster:

(a) Acyclovir

(b) Vidarabine

(c) Idoxuridine

(d) Actinoniycin

65. Most sensitive test for diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis:

(a) Monospot test

(b) Paul Bunnel test

(c) Lymphocytosis in peripheral smear

(d) Culture of the virus

66. The drug of choice in cytomegalovirus retinitis in AIDS patient is:

(a) Acyclovir

(b) Ribavarin

(c) Ganciclovir

(d) Vidarabine

67. Which of the following is true of molluscum contagiosum:

(a) Treatment is extirpation

(b) Is an STD

(c) Viral infection

(d) Central umbilication

68. Condyloma acuminate is caused by:

(a) HPV

(b) HSV

(c) HIV

(d) All

69. HTLV-II has been implicated in the etiology of:

(a) AIDS

(b) Adult T cell lymphoma

(c) Zinc deficiency

(d) Hairy cell leukemia

70. AIDS was first diagnosed in patients suffering from:

(a) Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis

(b) Pneumocystis carinii

(c) Kaposi sarcoma

(d) Tuberculosis

71. HIV selectively infects and destroys:

(a) T4 cells

(b) T3 cells

(c) NK cells

(d) T10 cells

72. Most common mode of transmission of HIV world wide is:

(a) Heterosexual

(b) Homosexual

(c) IV-drug abuse

(d) Contaminated blood products

73. True about HIV:

(a) Not transmitted through semen

(b) More chances of transmission during LSCS than normal labour

(c) More infectious than hepatitis B

(d) Male to female transmission > Female to male

74. Antenatal maternal HIV diagnosis is of importance in:

(a) To prevent vertical transmission

(b) To terminate

(c) To discharge

(d) To isolate the patient

75. Which drug is given to prevent HIV transmission from mother to child:

(a) Nevirapine

(b) Lamivudine

(c) Stavudine

(d) Abacavir

76. Kaposi’s sarcoma caused by:

(a) HHV-5

(b) HHV-6

(c) HHV-7

(d) HHV-8

77. A patient presenting with cervical lymphadenopathy gives a history of having sex 3 weeks back. He thinks that he has got AIDS. Which of the following tests will clinch the diagnosis:

(a) ELISA

(b) p24-antigenemia

(c) Western blot

(d) Lymph node biopsy

78. The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patient is:

(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae

(b) Streptococcus agalactiae

(c) Cryptococcus neoformans

(d) Listeria monocytogenes

79. In patients of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, the commonest cause of space occupying lesion is:

(a) Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma

(b) Cytomnegalovirus infection

(c) Cryptoccosis

(d) Toxoplasmosis

80. A resident doctor sustained a needle stick injury while sampling blood of a patient who is HIV positive. A decision is taken to offer him post exposure prophylaxis. Which of the following would be the best recommendation?

(a) Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks

(b) Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks

(c) Zidovudine + lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks

(d) Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks

81. The rash in Measles occurs first in the region:

(a) Forehead

(b) Post auricular

(c) Chest

(d) Neck

82. All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella, EXCEPT:

(a) It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth

(b) It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist from more than 6 months

(c) Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract

(d) Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects

83. The characteristic feature of rabies is:

(a) Brain stem encephalitis

(b) Peripheral neuropathy

(c) Pachymeningitis

(d) Ventriculltis

84. Treatment of choice in cryptococcal meningitis is:

(a) Amphotericin B

(b) Flucytosine

(c) Ketoconazole

(d) Crystalline penicillin

85. Fungal lung infection commonly seen in diabetics is:

(a) Actiomycosis

(b) Mucormycosis

(c) Aspergillosis

(d) Coccidioidomycosis

86. In an AIDS patient presenting with fever cough a diagnosis of pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is best established by:

(a) Transtracheal biopsy

(b) Broncho alveolar lavage

(c) Staining of intranuclear inclusion and silver staining

(d) Aspiration and culture

87. Drug of choice in pneumocystis carinii pneumonia:

(a) Ciprofloxacin

(b) Co-trimoxazole

(c) Zidovudine

(d) Pentamidine

88. Diagnostic test for amoebic hepatitis is:

(a) Indirect hemeagglutination test

(b) Isolation from pus

(c) Isolation from wall of cavity

(d) Cyst in stools

89. A patient present with lower gastrointestinqal bleed. Sigmoidoscopy shows ulcers in the sigmoid. Biopsy from this area shows flask shaped ulcers. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

(a) Intravenous ceftriaxone

(b) Intravenous metronidazole

(c) Intravenous steroids and sulphasalazine

(d) Hydrocortisone enemas

90. Infectious stage of plasmodium is:

(a) Trophozoite

(b) Cryptozoite

(c) Sporozoite

(d) Merozoite

91. Kalazar is transmitted by:

(a) Droplet infection

(b) Sandfly

(c) Anopheles

(d) Black fly

92. Intestinal parasitic disease in immunocompromised patient is:

(a) Strongyloides

(b) Ascaris

(c) Hookworm

(d) Trichuris