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WWW.JAGRANJOSH.COM STUDY MATERIAL FOR IBPS CLERK RECRUITMENT 2012-13

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WWW.JAGRANJOSH.COM STUDY MATERIAL FOR IBPS CLERK RECRUITMENT 2012-13

Preface

Paths can be many, but to reach the correct destination, the correct path must be chosen & followed.

Unless there is a proper focus on your goal with correct guidance, same cannot be achieved in a set time frame. Most people fail not because they lack knowledge but because they lack direction.

What is the Book About?

In one sense, it is a guide book for IBPS CWE Clerical Cadre Recruitment Exam whose Summary book is already available on jagranjosh.com. This book is complete in itself. It contains the ingredients, the methods that aspirants will need to follow to crack the Bank Recruitment Exams & have an absolute understanding of the pattern of Questions in the Bank Recruitment Exams. This Book comprehensively covers all the topics as per the format of the IBPS CWE Clerk Recruitment Exam. This is a result of efforts made by Jagranjosh.com in providing appropriate study material for Competitive Exams.

In this book all the sections have been made interesting for aspirants with a practical & user friendly approach.

How to Read this Book

The concepts & exercises in this book cannot be absorbed by casual browsing. It should be read properly & all the exercises must be practiced on a regular basis.

To strategize the preparation, aspirants must first read carefully the theory & concepts given at the beginning of each section. Once the theory & concepts have been thoroughly understood by an aspirant, then he or she can move on to the practice exercises.

To achieve accuracy & timeliness, aspirants must solve the practice exercises in a set timeframe. This book has been designed keeping in view the requisites for the current pattern of the Bank recruitment Exams.

Jagranjosh.com at a glance

Jagranjosh.com since its inception has always worked tirelessly in bringing up content for all serious aspirants. Jagranjosh.com as a site can be accessed by students applying for admissions, looking for government sector jobs, aspiring to excel in all fields of education especially the competitive examinations. It expertise’s and is a gateway to infinite knowledge on Current Affairs, UPSC/State PSC’s examinations, Banking, SSC and also provides information on MBA, CBSE and other admission related queries. Jagranjosh.com is more than a site it is companion for life, for those wanting to be successful; it is the key to success.

Best of Luck!

TABLE OF CONTENTS Numerical Ability ............................................................................................................................. 5

Simplification ............................................................................................................................... 5

H.C.F. & L.C.M. of Numbers ....................................................................................................... 13

Average ...................................................................................................................................... 19

Surds & Indices .......................................................................................................................... 25

Percentage ................................................................................................................................. 30

Profit & Loss ............................................................................................................................... 36

Partnership ................................................................................................................................ 42

Time & Work .............................................................................................................................. 48

Time & Distance ......................................................................................................................... 53

Problems on Trains .................................................................................................................... 58

Simple Interest ........................................................................................................................... 63

Compound Interest .................................................................................................................... 70

Probability .................................................................................................................................. 75

Permutations & Combinations .................................................................................................. 81

Data Interpretation .................................................................................................................... 84

Reasoning ...................................................................................................................................... 92

Analogy ...................................................................................................................................... 92

Classification .............................................................................................................................. 98

Series ....................................................................................................................................... 104

Coding - Decoding .................................................................................................................... 111

Puzzle Test ............................................................................................................................... 116

Mathematical Puzzles .............................................................................................................. 123

Direction Sense Test ................................................................................................................ 131

Syllogism .................................................................................................................................. 137

Abstract Reasoning .................................................................................................................. 143

English Language ......................................................................................................................... 160

Synonyms ................................................................................................................................. 160

Antonyms ................................................................................................................................. 166

Spotting the error .................................................................................................................... 171

Sentence Completion .............................................................................................................. 176

Sentences Improvement ......................................................................................................... 182

One word Substitution ............................................................................................................ 189

Spelling Test ............................................................................................................................. 193

Idiom & Phrases ....................................................................................................................... 200

Sentence Reconstruction ......................................................................................................... 204

Cloze Test ................................................................................................................................. 207

Comprehension ....................................................................................................................... 225

Computer Knowledge ................................................................................................................. 243

General Awareness (with special reference to banking Industry) ............................................. 260

Person Appointed .................................................................................................................... 260

Awards / Honours .................................................................................................................... 264

Person Died .............................................................................................................................. 266

International ............................................................................................................................ 268

National ................................................................................................................................... 273

Economy .................................................................................................................................. 276

Corporate ................................................................................................................................. 285

Sports ....................................................................................................................................... 289

One Liner (From February to August) ...................................................................................... 302

Current Affairs for Bank Exams ............................................................................................... 315

NUMERICAL ABILITY

SIMPLIFICATION

Some Important Concepts

‘BODMAS’ Rule: This ‘BODMAS’ Rule shows the correct sequence of all the operations that are to be executed to find out the value of a given expression. In this rule ‘B’ Stands for ‘Bracket’, ‘O’ stands for ‘of’, ‘D’ for ‘Division’, ‘M’ for ‘Multiplication’, ‘A’ for ‘Addition’ and ‘S’ for ‘Subtraction’.

Therefore, the correct order to simplify an expression is:

(a) ( )

(b) {}

(c) []

(d) of

(e) Division

(f) Multiplication

(g) Addition

(h) Subtraction

Modulus of a Real Number: If the real number is ‘r’, then

| r | = {−r, if r<0r, if r>0 .

Solved Examples

Example1: What will be the value of x in the following equation?

5𝟏𝟏𝟑𝟑 + 𝟏𝟏

𝟒𝟒 + x +2𝟏𝟏

𝟓𝟓 = 9𝟐𝟐

𝟑𝟑 .

Solution: Simplifying the above equation

x = 9 23 - 5 1

3 - 1

4 – 21

5 ⇔ x = 29

3 - 16

3 - 1

4 - 11

5

⇔ x = 580−320−15−13260

⇔ x = 11360

= 1 5360

.

Example2: Simplify: 6000 ÷ 240 + 10.

Solution: Given expression: 6000240

+ 10

= 25 +10

= 35.

Example3: 𝟏𝟏𝟓𝟓 of 𝟐𝟐

𝟕𝟕 of x is greater than 𝟏𝟏

𝟕𝟕 of 𝟐𝟐

𝟗𝟗 of x by 4. What is the value of 𝒙𝒙

𝟕𝟕.

Solution: Given that,

15 × 2

7 × x - 1

7 × 2

9 × x = 4

⇒ 9𝑥𝑥−5𝑥𝑥315

= 4 ⇒ 4𝑥𝑥 315

= 4 ⇒ x =315

∴Required number 𝑥𝑥3 = 315

3 = 105.

Example 4: Simplify 120 ÷ 24 of 𝟏𝟏𝟑𝟑 + 𝟏𝟏

𝟓𝟓 × 2 𝟏𝟏

𝟐𝟐.

Solution: Given expression: 120 ÷ 24 × 13 + 1

5 × 5

2

⇒120 ÷ 8 + 12 ⇒ 120

8 + 1

2 ⇒ 31

2.

Example5: If 𝒙𝒙𝒚𝒚 = 𝟑𝟑

𝟐𝟐 , then find the value of 𝒙𝒙

𝟑𝟑 + 𝒚𝒚𝟑𝟑

𝒙𝒙𝟑𝟑 − 𝒚𝒚𝟑𝟑 .

Solution: Given expression: 𝑥𝑥3 + 𝑦𝑦 3

𝑥𝑥 3 − 𝑦𝑦 3 = (𝑥𝑥/𝑦𝑦)3 + 1(𝑥𝑥/𝑦𝑦)3 − 1

⇒ (3/2)3 + 1(3/2)3 − 1

( x/y =3/2)

⇒ 27/8 + 127/8 − 1

⇒ 35/819/8

⇒ 3519

.

Example 5:15.04 × 𝟒𝟒.𝟖𝟖𝟎𝟎.𝟔𝟔

= ?

Solution: Given expression: 15.04 × 4.80.6

=15.04 × 486

=15.04 × 8 = 120.32.

Example 6: Find the value of

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐 + 𝟏𝟏

𝟐𝟐×𝟑𝟑 + 𝟏𝟏

𝟑𝟑×𝟒𝟒 + 𝟏𝟏

𝟒𝟒×𝟓𝟓 + 𝟏𝟏

𝟓𝟓×𝟔𝟔 .

Solution: Given Expression: 12 + 1

2×3 + 1

3×4 + 1

4×5 + 1

5×6

= ( 1 - 12 ) + (1

2 - 1

3 ) + (1

3 - 1

4 ) + (1

4 - 1

5 ) + (1

5 - 1

6 )

= 1 - 16 = 5

6 .

Example 7: Arjun spends 𝟏𝟏𝟓𝟓 of his salary on house rent, 𝟏𝟏

𝟔𝟔 of his salary on food and 𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎 of his

salary on conveyance. If he has Rs.2400 left with him, then find his expenditure on conveyance.

Solution: Suppose Arjun’s monthly salary is Rs. x

Then, remaining part of his salary = x- ( 15 + 1

6 + 1

10 ) x = x – ( 14

30 ) x = 16 x

30 = 8 x

15 .

Now, 8 x15

= 2400 ⇔ x =Rs. 4500.

∴Expenditure on Conveyance = Rs.( 110

× 4500 ) = Rs.450.

Exercise

1. (-2) (-4) (5) ( 110

) = ?

(a) 4

(b) -4

(c) 2

(d) 1

2. 7÷ 77 × 77077 =?

(a) 707

(b) 777

(c) 7007

(d) 7707

3. If 56 – [12 – {2+4 – (2+?)}] = 45.What should come at the place of ‘?’ in the equation.

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 6

4. 5? = 10

7

(a) 2/7

(b) 3/7

(c) 7/3

(d) 7/2

5. Evaluate: 9−2−[ 4−(1+1) ]÷2|6−2|−|3−6 |÷3

.

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

6. How many 14s are there in 49 1

2 .

(a) 195

(b) 196

(c) 197

(d) 198

7. The smallest number which should be subtracted from the sum of 115, 21

3, and 31

6 to make

the result a whole number is:

(a) 0.5

(b) 0.8

(c) 0.7

(d) 0.9

8. If x * y = 𝑥𝑥2 + y, then what is the value of p in the expression (2 * 4) * p = 100?

(a) 36

(b) 74

(c) 65

(d) 76

9. 5 is added to a certain number; the sum is multiplied by 3; the product is divided by 4 and 2 is subtracted from the quotient. The remainder left is 4. What will be the number?

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 2

(d) 3

10. 0.004 × 0.02 × 0.8 ÷ (0.2 × 0.40) =?

(a) 0.8

(b) 0.08

(c) 0.008

(d) 0.0008

11. The value of 13+ 1

3+ 13−1

3

is:

(a) 2689

(b) 2789

(c) 2889

(d) 2589

12. Which of the following values of m and n satisfy the equation I and II.

I. 2m + 4n = 8

II. 8m + 6n = 22

(a) 1,2

(b) 2,1

(c) 1,1

(d) 2,2

13. How many pieces of 25 cm length can be cut from a 62.5 meters long Aluminum stick?

(a) 500

(b) 230

(c) 240

(d) 225

14. If one fourth of a tank holds 45 liters of milk, then the quantity of water that one third of the tank holds is:

(a) 65L

(b) 60L

(c) 62L

(d) 61L

15. A cricket team won 3 matches more than they lost. If a win gives them 2 points and loss (-1) point, how many matches, in all, have they played if their score is 23.

(a) 34 matches

(b) 35 matches

(c) 36 matches

(d) 37 matches

Answers

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (d)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (a)

13. (d)

14. (b)

15. (d)

Solution and Explanation

1. Given expression is (2 × 4 × 5 × 110

) = 4.

2. 7÷ 77 × 77077 =7707711

= 7007

3. 56 – [12 – {2+4 – (2+?)}] = 45 ⇔ 56 – [12 – 4 –?] = 45⇔ ? = 3.

4. 5? = 10

7 ⇔ ? = 5 × 7

10⇔ ? = 7

2.

5. Given Expression: 9−2−[ 4−(1+1) ]÷2|6−2|−|3−6 |÷3

= 7−[ 4−2 ]÷2|4|−|−3 |÷3

= = 7−2÷24−3÷3

= 7−14−1

= 63 = 2.

6. Required number: 49 12

14

= 992

× 41 = 198.

7. Sum of all the fractions = 115 + 21

3 + 31

6 = 201

30 = 6.7. The whole number just less than 6.7 is 6,

then the required number = 6.7- a = 6 a = 0.7.

8. Given expression: (2 * 4) * p = 100 ⇔ (4 + 4) * p = 100 ⇔ 64 + p = 100 ⇔ p =36.

9. Suppose the required number is x then,

3 ( x+5)4

– 2 = 4 ⇔ 3(x + 5) – 8 = 16⇔ x + 5 = 24/3 ⇔ x = 3.

10. 0.004 × 0.02 × 0.8 0.2 × 0.40

= 648 ×10000

= 0.0008.

11. Given expression: 13+ 1

3+ 13−1

3

= 13+ 1

3+ 183

= 13+ 1

3+ 38

= 13+ 1

278

= 13+ 8

27 = 1

3+ 8 27

= 189 27

= 2789

12. I. 2m + 4n = 8 II.8m + 6n =22.

Multiplying (I) by 4 and subtract the (II) from (I), then we get n =1.

Put n=1 in (I) then we get m=2.

13. Number of pieces = 62.5 ×10025

= 625025

= 250.

14. Suppose the capacity of the tank is x litres. Then, 14 x = 45 ⇔ x = 180 ⇔ 1

3 x = 60.

15. Suppose they have lost x matches. Then, number of matches won = x+3.

∴ 2(x+3) – x = 23 ⇔ x =17.

Hence, total number of matches played by the team = x + (x+3) = 2x + 3 =37.

H.C.F. & L.C.M. OF NUMBERS

If a number x divides another number y exactly, then x is said to be a factor of y. To add, subtract, or just compare two fractions, we need to convert both fractions to a common denominator. The least common multiple is usually used, although any common multiple would work in this particular case. Here comes the concept of Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.).

Also to simplify a fraction, we divide the numerator and the denominator by the same number. If we divide them by the greatest common factor, then no further simplifications are required. That greatest common factor is called the Highest Common Factor (H.C.F.) or Greatest Common Divisor (G.C.D.).

Least Common Multiple (L.C.M.): The least number which is exactly divisible by each one of the given numbers is called their L.C.M.

There are two methods of finding the L.C.M .of two or more than two numbers:

1. Factorization Method: In this method first resolve each one of the given numbers into a product of Prime factors. Then Least Common Multiple is the product of highest powers of all the factors.

2. Common Division Method: In this method first arrange the set of numbers in any order. Then take a number which divides exactly at least two of the given numbers and carry forward the remaining numbers which are not divisible by that particular number. Repeat the process till no two of the numbers are divisible by the same number. Then Least Common Factor is the product of the divisors and the undivided numbers.

Highest Common Factor (H.C.F.): The H.C.F. of two or more than two numbers is the greatest number that divides each of them exactly.

There are two methods of finding the H.C.F. of two or more than two numbers:

Factorization Method: First resolve each one of the given numbers as the product prime factors. Then H.C.F. is the product of least powers of common prime factors.

Division Method: If we want to find out the H.C.F. of two numbers then divide the larger number by smaller one. Again divide the divisor by the remainder. We should repeat this process till zero is obtained as remainder. If we have three numbers then H.C.F. of {(H.C.F. of any two) and (the third number)} will be the H.C.F. of three given numbers.

Important Formulas of L.C.M. and H.C.F. of Numbers –

Product of two numbers =Product of their H.C.F and L.C.M.

1. H.C.F. = H.C.F.of NumeratorsL.C.M.of Denominators

2. L.C.M. = L.C.M.of NumeratorsH.C.F.of Denominators

Solved Examples

Example 1. Find the L.C.M. of 50, 35 and 70.

Solution. Let us apply the Factorization Method to find the L.C.M. of 50, 35 and 70.

Express each one of the given number as the product of prime factors.

50 = 2 × 52, 35 = 5 × 7, 70 = 2 × 5 × 7.

∴L.C.M. = Product of highest powers of 2, 5 and 7 = 2 × 52 × 7 = 350.

Example 2. Find the L.C.M. of 18, 20, 24, and 54.

Solution. Let us apply Common Division Method to find the L.C.M. of 18, 20, 24, 54.

Example 3. Find the H.C.F. of 𝟐𝟐𝟑𝟑 × 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 × 5, 𝟐𝟐𝟒𝟒 × 𝟑𝟑𝟐𝟐 × 5 and 2 × 𝟑𝟑𝟒𝟒

Solution. Here prime numbers common to given three numbers are 2 and 3.

∴ H.C.F. = 2 × 32 = 18.

Example 4.The L.C.M. and H.C.F. of two numbers are 3 and 105 respectively. If the sum of these numbers is 36, then what is the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers?

Solution. Suppose the first and the second numbers are x and y respectively.

Given that, L.C.M. of two numbers = 3 and H.C.F of two numbers = 105

Then,

2 18 – 20 – 24 - 54

2 9 – 10 – 12 – 27

3 9 – 5 – 6 – 27

3 3 – 5 – 2 – 9

2 1 – 5 – 2 – 3

1 – 5 – 1 – 3

L.C.M. × H.C.F. = 3 × 105

x × y = 3 × 105 [Because we know that, If X and Y are two numbers then

(L.C.M. of x and y) × (H.C.F. of x and y) = x × y]

x × y = 315 ______________ (1)

Also given that

x + y = 36 _______________ (2)

From equation (1) and (2)

X + Y X × Y

= 36 315

XX × Y

+ YX × Y

= 36315

1Y

+ 1X

= 435

1X

+ 1Y

= 435

Hence, the sum of the reciprocals of two numbers x and y is 435

.

Exercise

Directions: Mark the correct Answer:

1. Find the highest common factor of 54 and 36.

(a) 4

(b) 6

(c) 16

(d) 18

2. Find the lowest common multiple of 24, 20 and 30.

(a) 120

(b) 50

(c) 64

(d) 24

3. The H.C.F. of 25 , 16

9 , 18

25 is:

(a) 4225

(b) 2225

(c) 24125

(d) 2125

4. The L.C.M. of 23 , 16

27 , 5

12 is:

(a) 803

(b) 809

(c) 695

(d) 495

5. The ratio of two numbers is 3:4 and their H.C.F. is 4.Their L.C.M. is:

(a) 12

(b) 16

(c) 24

(d) 48

6. The L.C.M. of two numbers is 189 and H.C.F. of two numbers is 9. If one of the number is 63 then other number is:

(a) 27

(b) 28

(c) 29

(d) 30

7. The H.C.F. of 3.6, 7.2, 2.1, 0.81 is:

(a) 0.3

(b) 0.03

(c) 0.9

(d) 0.09

8. The L.C.M. of 1.8, 3.6, and 0.72 is:

(a) 3.6

(b) 11.8

(c) 0.36

(d) 10.80

9. Find the greatest number that will divide 43, 91 and 183 so as to leave the same remainder in each case

(a) 4

(b) 7

(c) 9

(d) 13

10. Three different containers contain 204 litres, 1190 litres and 1445 litres of Pepsi, Slice and Coca-Cola respectively. What biggest measure can be measured from all the different quantities of cold drinks exactly?

(a) 17

(b) 18

(c) 19

(d) 20

Answers

1. (d)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (a)

10. (a)

Solution and Explanation

1. 54 = 2×3×3×3, 36 = 3 ×2×3×2,

Therefore, H.C.F. = 2×3×3 =18.

2. 24 = 2×2 ×2×3, 20 = 2×2 ×5 , 30= 2×3×5.

Therefore, L.C.M. = products of highest powers of 2, 3 and 5 = 23 × 3 × 5 =120.

8. L.C.M. of 180, 360,72 =1080.

Therefore, L.C.M. of 1.8, 3.6, and 0.72 is 10.80

9. Required number will be = H.C.F. of (91 -43), (183 -91) and (183 – 43) = H.C.F. of 48, 92, 140 =4

AVERAGE

The term Average refers to the sum of all observations divided by the total number of observations. Average is used quite regular in our day to day life. For example to calculate the average marks of the students, Average height of a particular group etc. The term average is also referred to as ‘Mean’. Basic formula to calculate the average is as follows:

Average = ( Sum of all observationNumber of observation

)

Solved Examples

Example1: Find the average of first 10 natural numbers.

Solution: We know that sum of first n natural numbers = n ( n+1)

2

Then, the sum of first 10 natural numbers = 10 (10+1)

2 =

10 ×112

= 55.

∴The required average = 55.

Example2: If the average of four consecutive even numbers is 9, then find the smallest of these numbers.

Solution: Suppose four consecutive even numbers are a, a+2, a+4 and a+6.

Then, a+(a+2)+(a+4)+(a+6)

4 = 9 ⇒

4a+124

= 9 ⇒a+3 = 9⇒a=6.

Hence, the smallest even number = 6.

Example3: There are two departments, Accounts and Technical in an organization, consisting of 24 and 36 employees respectively. If the average weight of all the employees in Accounts section is 40 kg and that of Technical department is 45 kg. Find the average weight of both the Accounts and Technical departments.

Solution: According to the given problem,

Total weight of all the employees in Accounts DepartmentNumber of Employees in Accounts Department

= 40

Total weight of all the employees in Accounts Department = 40× 24 = 960 kg.

Similarly, total weight of all the employees in Technical Department = 45× 36 =1620 kg

Total weight of (Accounts + Technical) Department =2580 Kg

And total employees in both the Departments = 60.

∴Average Weight = 2580

60 = 43 kg

Example4: The average of 35 numbers is 70.If the average of first 17 numbers is 60 and that of last 17 numbers is 65, then find the 18th number.

Solution: Sum of first 17 numbers = 17× 60 = 1020

Also, sum of last 17 numbers = 17× 65 = 1105

∴18th number = {Sum of 35 numbers – (sum of first 17 numbers + sum of last 17 numbers)}

= {35× 70 – (1020+1105)} ⇒2450 – 2125= 325.

Example5: A famous batsman makes a score of 92 runs in the 15th inning and by this his average increased by 5.what is his average after the 15th inning.

Solution: Suppose his average after 15th inning = a

Then, average after 14th inning = (a – 5)

∴15 × a = 14 (a – 5) + 92⇒a =22.

Exercise

1. Find the average of first five multiples of 2

(a) 5.5

(b) 6.5

(c) 5

(d) 6

2. If the average of 5, 3, 6, 7, 9, 2, 8, a is 12, then what is the value of a?

(a) 55.5

(b) 59

(c) 56

(d) 56.5

3. In Arun’s opinion, his weight is greater than 65 kg but less than 72 kg. His brother does not agree with Arun and he thinks that Arun’s weight is greater than 60 Kg but less than 70 kg .His mother’s view is that his weight cannot be greater than 68 kg. If all of them are correct in their estimation, what is the average of different probable weights of Arun?

(S.B.I.P.O. 2000)

(a) 68 kg

(b) 67 kg

(c) 69 kg

(d) None of these

4. A certain number of sweets were distributed among 56 children equally. After each child getting 8 sweets, 17 sweets were left out. How many total sweets were there initially?

(Clerks’ Grade, 2009)

(a) 448

(b) 431

(c) 475

(d) 465

(e) None of these

5. The average of five positive integers is 385.The average of first two integers is 568.5. The average of the fourth and fifth integers is 187.5. What is the third integer?

(Clerks’ Grade, 2009)

(a) 420

(b) 382

(c) 415

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

6. Find the average of the following set of numbers:

352, 283, 625, 518, 445, 700, 878

(a) 544

(b) 568

(c) 599

(d) None of these

7. The average height of 40 boys is 1.5 m. When 10 boys leave the group then the average height increases by 0.2 m. What is the average height of the 10 boys who leave?

(a) 0.8m

(b) 0.9m

(c) Cannot be determined

(d) None of these

8. A car driver travels to a place 100 km away at an average speed of 60km/hr. His average speed for the whole journey in km/hr is:

(a) 45km/hr

(b) 43km/hr

(c) 46km/hr

(d) 48km/h

9. The average of 5 consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E respectively is 74. What is the product of C and E?

(a) 5928

(b) 5616

(c) 5538

(d) 5772

(e) None of these

Answers

1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (e)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (d)

Solution and Explanation

1. Required Average = 2(1+2+3+4+5)5 = 6.

2. (5+3+6+7+9+2+8+a)

8 = 12 ⇒a = 96 – 40 = 56.

3. Suppose Arun’s weight is w kg.

In Arun’s opinion, 65< w < 72

According to Arun’s mother, w < 68

According to Arun’s brother, 60< w < 70.

There could be two values of w, 66 and 67.

4. Total number of sweets = 56 × 8 + 17 = 465.

5. Third integer = 385 × 5 – 568.5 × 2 – 187.5 × 2 = 413.

6. (d)

7. Sum of the heights of 10 boys = 40 × 1.5 – 30 × 1.7 = 9.

Then, Average height of 10 boys = 910

= 0.9m.

8. Average Speed = 2xyx+y

km/hr = 2 ×60 ×4060+40

= 48 km/hr.

9. Suppose five consecutive even numbers are x, x+2, x+4, x+6 and x+8.

Then, x + x+2 + x+4 + x+6 + x+8 = 74 × 5 ⇔ 5x +20 = 370 ⇔ x =70.

∴A=70, C= 70+4 =74, E= 78

∴C × E =74 × 78 =5772

SURDS & INDICES

The term Index (Indices is a plural) refers to the power to which a number is raised. If a2 is a number then ‘a’ is called a base 2 is called the power (Index or Exponent).

For Example: 81 = 92 , then we say that ‘ 81 is equal to base 9 raised to the power 2’.

The Laws on Indices:

(i) 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 × 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 +𝑛𝑛

(ii) (𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 )𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚𝑛𝑛

(iii) 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚

𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚 −𝑛𝑛

(iv) (𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎)𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛

(v) (𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

)𝑛𝑛 = 𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛

𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛

(vi) 𝑎𝑎0 = 1

When the power is a fraction say 1𝑛𝑛

, then √𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 is a surd of order n. Here ‘a’ is a rational number and ‘n’ is a positive integer.

The laws of Surds:

(i) √𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 =𝑎𝑎1𝑛𝑛

(ii) ( �𝑎𝑎)𝑛𝑛 𝑛𝑛 = a

(iii) √𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 = √𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛 × √𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛

(iv) �𝑎𝑎𝑎𝑎

𝑛𝑛 = √𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛

√𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛

(v) � √𝑎𝑎𝑛𝑛𝑚𝑚 = √𝑎𝑎𝑚𝑚𝑛𝑛

(vi) ( �𝑎𝑎)𝑛𝑛 𝑚𝑚 = ( �𝑎𝑎)𝑚𝑚 𝑛𝑛

Solved examples

Example1. Simplify:(𝟔𝟔𝟒𝟒)𝟓𝟓𝟔𝟔.

Solution. Given that, (64)56 = (26)

56 = (2)5 = 32.

Example2. Simplify:( 𝟖𝟖𝟏𝟏)𝟎𝟎.𝟐𝟐𝟒𝟒 × (𝟗𝟗)𝟎𝟎.𝟎𝟎𝟐𝟐 .

Solution. Given that, ( 81)0.24 × (9)0.02 = ( 92)0.24 × (9)0.02= (9)0.48 × (9)0.02 = (9)0.50

= (32)12 = 3.

Example3.If 𝟒𝟒𝒙𝒙−𝟐𝟐 + 𝟒𝟒𝒙𝒙+𝟐𝟐 = 1028, then find the value of x.

Solution. 4𝑥𝑥−2 + 4𝑥𝑥+2 = 1028 ⇔ 4𝑥𝑥−2 ( 1+44 ) = 1028

⇔ 4𝑥𝑥−2 ( 257) = 1028 ⇔ 4𝑥𝑥−2 = 4 ⇔ x – 2 = 1 ⇔ x = 3.

Exercise

1. Find the value of (�81) 1 4.

(a) 3

(b) √3

(c) √9

(d) √33

2. (− 164

)−43 = ?

(a) 254

(b) -254

(c) 256

(d) -256

3. √1089 + 3 = (? )2 (SBI Clerk 2012)

(a) 6

(b) 5

(c) 3

(d) 8

4. The value of [ (89)100 ÷ (89)98 ] is:

(a) 7920

(b) 7939

(c) 7921

(d) 7922

5. (0.25)−2.5 = ?

(a) 64

(b) 32

(c) 16

(d) 60

6. If ( xy )a−5 = ( y

x )a−7 , then the value of a is:

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 3

7. If 5a =2b =10c , then find the value of 1a + 1

b - 1

c.

(a) 3

(b) 2

(c) 1

(d) 0

8. Find the smallest number from among√36 , √44 and√33 .

(a) √36

(b) √44

(c) √33

(d) All are equal

9. Number of prime factors in 66 × (35)8

(14)6 is:

(a) 14

(b) 15

(c) 16

(d) 17

Answers

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (b)

6. (b)

7. (d)

8. (a)

9. (c)

Solution and Explanation

1. (�81) 1 4 = (3 × 3 × 3 × 3 )

12 × 14 = (34 )

12 × 14 = (3)

12 =√3.

2. (− 164

)−43 = (− 1

4)3 × (−4)

3 = (− 14)−4 = (−4)4 = 256.

3. √1089 + 3 = (? )2 ⇔ √332 + 3 = (? )2 ⇔ 33 + 3 = (? )2 ⇔ (6)2 =(? )2 ⇔ ? = 6.

4. [ (89)100 ÷ (89)98 ] = (89)100

(89)98 = (89)2 = 7921.

5. (0.25)−2.5 = ( 25100

)−2510 = (1

4)−5

2 = (4)52 =25 = 32.

6. ( xy )a−5 = ( y

x )a−7 ⇔ ( x

y )a−5 = ( x

y )7−a ⇔ a−5 = 7 – a ⇔ a =6.

7. 5a =2b=10c = k ⇔ 5= k1a , 2 = k

1b and 10 = k

1c ⇔ 𝑘𝑘( 1𝑎𝑎+ 1𝑎𝑎 ) = k

1c ⇔ 1

𝑎𝑎+ 1

𝑎𝑎 = 1

c ⇔ 1

𝑎𝑎+ 1

𝑎𝑎 − 1

c = 0

8. L.C.M. of 6, 4 and 3 is 12.

Then, √𝟑𝟑𝟔𝟔 = (𝟑𝟑)𝟏𝟏𝟔𝟔×𝟐𝟐

𝟐𝟐 = (𝟑𝟑𝟐𝟐)𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐 , √𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 = (𝟒𝟒) 𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟒×𝟑𝟑

𝟑𝟑 = (𝟒𝟒𝟑𝟑)𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐, √𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 = (𝟑𝟑)𝟏𝟏𝟑𝟑×𝟒𝟒

𝟒𝟒 = (𝟑𝟑𝟒𝟒)𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐

∴√𝟑𝟑𝟔𝟔 = (𝟑𝟑𝟐𝟐)𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐 , √𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 = (𝟒𝟒𝟑𝟑)𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐 , √𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 = (𝟑𝟑𝟒𝟒)𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐

Hence, √36 is the smallest number.

9. 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 × (𝟑𝟑𝟓𝟓)𝟖𝟖

(𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟒)𝟔𝟔 = 𝟑𝟑𝟔𝟔 × 𝟐𝟐𝟔𝟔 × 𝟓𝟓𝟖𝟖 × 𝟕𝟕𝟖𝟖

𝟕𝟕𝟔𝟔 × 𝟐𝟐𝟔𝟔 = 36 × 58 × 72

Numbers of prime factors = 16.

PERCENTAGE

In mathematics, a percentage is a way of expressing a number like Ratio, as a fraction of 100.It is denoted by the symbol “%”. Percentages are used to express how large/small one quantity is, relative to another quantity. The percent value is computed by multiplying the numeric value of the ratio by 100.

For example 50% read as Fifty percent and it is equal to 50/100 or 0.5.

Calculation of Percentage

The Percent Value is computed by multiplying the numeric value of the ratio by 100.

For Example:

If we want to calculate the percentage of 20 oranges out of 80 oranges then,

The required percentage= (20/80) × 100 = 25%

Calculation of Percentage of a Percentage

To calculate a percentage of a percentage first we should convert all the percentages to fractions of 100.

For Example:

40% of 50% = (40/100)× (50/100) = 0.40 × 0.50 = 0.20 = 20/100 = 20%

Percentage Increase

When the value increased by 10 percent, it becomes 1.1 times of itself

Suppose the value of X increased by 10%

X + 10% of X

X + {(10/100)×X}

X + (0.1×X)

(1+0.1) ×X

(1.1)X

Here new value is 1.1 times of its original value

Percentage Decrease

When any value decreased by 10 percent, it becomes 0.9 times of itself

Suppose the value of X decreased by 10%

X - 10% of X

X – {(10/100)×X}

X – (0.1×X)

(1-0.1) ×X

(0.9)X

Here new value is 0.9 times of its original value.

Exercise

1. If x% of x is 81, then x is equal to:

(a) 30

(b) 92

(c) 90

(d) 91

2. 65% of a number is more than its two fifth by 140. What is 30% of that number?

(Clerks’ Grade, 2009)

(a) 186

(b) 168

(c) 164

(d) 182

3. 78% of a number is 2496.What is 55% of that number? (Clerks’ Grade 2009)

(a) 1815

(b) 1650

(c) 1760

(d) 1705

4. The difference between 78% of a number and 59% of the same number is 323. What is 62% of that number? (SBI Clerk, 2009)

(a) 1071

(b) 1178

(c) 1037

(d) 1159

(e) None of these

5. 96% of a number is 5600. What is the value of the number?

(a) 21,000

(b) 20,000

(c) 22,000

(d) 24,000

6. 35% of 411 - x % of 272 = 84.01. Then the value of x is:

(a) 42

(b) 36

(c) 18

(d) 22

(e) None of these

7. Ishan invests Rs. 4,448.Which is 25% of his monthly income in insurance policy. What is his monthly income? (OBC Clerk, 2009)

(a) Rs. 17, 792

(b) Rs. 16, 584

(c) Rs. 16,442

(d) Rs. 17,774

(e) None of these

8. A number is increased by 10% and then again by 10%.By what % should the increased number be reduced so as to get back the original number?

(a) 17.36%

(b) 17.11%

(c) 17.23%

(d) 17%

9. Milk contains 5% water. What quantity of pure milk should be added to 10 litres of milk to reduce this to 2%? (Bank P.O., 2003)

(a) 5 litres

(b) 7 litres

(c) 15 litres

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

10. If price of a T- Shirt is increased by 10% and then reduced by 10%. The final price of T-shirt is:

(a) Decrease by 1%

(b) Increase by 1%

(c) Does not change

(d) Cannot determined

11. The total population of a village is 5000. The number of males and females increases by 10% and 15% respectively and consequently the population of the village becomes 5600. What was the number of males in the village? (BANK P.O. 2003)

(a) 2000

(b) 2500

(c) 3000

(d) 4000

12. Mr. Devar spends 38% of his monthly income on food and the remaining amount of Rs. 5800 he saves. What is Mr. Devar’s monthly income? ( SBI Clerk, 2009)

(a) Rs. 23,200

(b) Rs. 24,200

(c) Rs. 23,800

(d) Rs. 24,400

(e) None of these

Answers

1. (c)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (e)

5. (b)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (a)

9. (c)

10. (a)

11. (c)

12. (a)

Solution and Explanation

1. 𝐱𝐱𝟏𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

× x = 81⇔ 𝑥𝑥2 = 8100 ⇔ x = 90.

2. Suppose the number is x then

65% of x - 25 x = 140 ⇔ 13 𝑥𝑥−8 𝑥𝑥

20 = 140 ⇔ x = 560.

3. 78100

× x = 2496 ⇔ x = 3200, then 55% of x = 55100

× 3200 = 1760.

4. Suppose the number is x, then (78 – 59) % of x = 323 ⇔ x = 1700.

62 % of 1700 = 1054.

5. 96% of x = 19,200 ⇔ x= 20,000

6. 35100

× 411 – x × 272100

= 84.01 ⇔ 5984 = 272 x ⇔ x = 22.

7. Let us suppose Ishan’s monthly income = x Rs.

Then,

25% of x = 4448 ⇔ x = 17,792.

8. Suppose the original number is 100

Then, 110% of 110% of 100 = 110100

× 110100

× 100 = 121.

Decrease on 121 = 21 ⇒Decrease on 100 = ( 21121

× 100) % =17.36%.

9. Water quantity in 10 litres = 5% of 10 = 0.5 litre

Suppose x litres of pure milk is required, then

0.50.5+𝑥𝑥

= 2100

⇔ 2x = 30 ⇔ x = 15.

10. Suppose the original price of T-Shirt is 100 Rs.

Now, new price = 90% of (110% of 100) = 99

∴Decrease = (100-99)% =1%

11. Let us suppose the number of males = x

Then, number of females = (5000 – x)

∴10% of x + 15% of (5000 – x) = 5600 - 5000⇔ 5x = 15000 ⇔ x = 3000.

12. Let us suppose Devar’s monthly income =x

X – ( 38100

𝑥𝑥 + 25100

𝑥𝑥 + 12100

𝑥𝑥 ) = 5,800 ⇔ x = Rs. 23,200

PROFIT & LOSS

Profit and loss is a very important branch of basic Mathematics. This branch deals with the study of Profit and loss made in the business and in our daily life.

Some basic terms used in Profit and loss are:

Cost price – The price, at which an article is purchased, is called Cost price and it is abbreviated by C.P.

Selling Price – The price, at which an article is sold, is called its selling price and it is abbreviated by S.P.

Profit –

If S.P. > C.P., then seller is said to have a profit.

Loss –

If SP < CP, Then seller is said to have incurred a loss.

Formulae –

Profit or Gain = S.P. – C.P.

Loss = C.P. –S.P.

Gain % = Gain ×100 C.P.

Loss % = Loss ×100 C.P.

S.P. = (100+Gain %)100

× C.P.

S.P. = (100−Loss %)100

× C.P.

C.P = 100(100+Gain %)

× S.P.

C.P = 100(100−Loss %)

× S.P.

If a person sells two similar items, one at a gain of A%, and the other at a loss of A%, then the seller always incurs a loss. This loss can be calculated by:

Loss % =( Common loss and gain %10

)2

If an article sold at two different selling price sale price1 and sale price2

respectively. On one gain1 is made and on the other gain2 is made then:

sale price 1 100+gain 1 %

= sale price 2100+gain 2%

Solved Examples

Example1: 100 apples are bought at the rate of Rs. 500 and sold at the rate of Rs. 84 per dozen. What will be the percentage of profit and loss?

Solution: We will solve this in steps

Step I: Given that C.P. of 100 apples = 500

Then, C.P. of 1 apple = 500100

= 5

Step II: Also given that per dozen S.P. of apples = 84

Then, S.P. of 1 apple = 84 12

=7

Step III: Now, we know that

Gain % =Gain ×100 C.P.

= (S.P.of 1 apple −C.P.of 1 apple )×100C.P.

= (7−5) ×100 5

= 2 ×100 5

= 40%

Therefore, there is a profit of 40% in the whole selling process.

Example2: Kartik sold an item for Rs. 6,500 and incurred a loss of 20%.At what price should he have sold the item to have gained a profit of 20%. (Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

Solution: If selling price = Rs. 6,500

Then, loss = 20%

We know the formula S.P. = (100−Loss %)100

× C.P. ⇔ C.P. = S.P.×100(100−Loss %)

⇔ 6500×10080

⇔ Rs.8,125

Now new S.P = (100+20)100

× 8125. ⇔ Rs.9750

Hence, new selling Price should be Rs. 9750.

Exercise

1. Arjun buys an old car for Rs 1,12,000 and spends 8000 on its repairs. If he sells the Car for Rs 1,80,000, his gain percent is:

(a) 50

(b) 51

(c) 52

(d) 53

2. Ajay sells a painting which costs him Rs 500 to Bablu at a profit of 20%. Bablu then sells it to Chirag, making a profit of 30% on the price he pays to A. How much does Chirag pay to Bablu?

(a) 789

(b) 790

(c) 782

(d) 780

3. When a Scooter is sold for Rs. 25,000, the owner loses 20%.At what price must the scooter be sold in order to gain 20 %?

(a) 37,500

(b) 37,520

(c) 37,000

(d) 39,000

4. The ratio between the sale price and the cost price of an article is 8:3.What is the ratio between the profit and sale price of that article?

(a) 5:3

(b) 5:8

(c) 5:9

(d) 5:7

5. On selling 19 balls at Rs. 840, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 7 balls. The cost price of a ball is:

(a) 84

(b) 83

(c) 70

(d) 72

6. Rajesh purchased toffees at 12 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain of 20%?

(a) 8

(b) 9

(c) 10

(d) 11

7. A man bought some bananas at the rate of 16 for Rs.24 and sold them at the rate of 8 for Rs 18.What is the profit percentage?

(a) 30%

(b) 60%

(c) 50%

(d) 55%

8. If loss is 1/4 of S.P., the loss percentage is:

(a) 25%

(b) 20%

(c) 35%

(d) 40%

9. By selling an article for Rs. 150, a man gains Rs. 25.Then his gain percent is:

(a) 22%

(b) 25%

(c) 20%

(d) 30%

10. Rahul gain 80 paisa on Rs. 40.His gain percent is:

(a) 1%

(b) 2%

(c) 3%

(d) 4%

Answers

1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (c)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (b)

Solution and Explanation

1. C.P. = Rs. (1,12,000 + 8,000) = Rs. 1,20,000.

S.P = 1,80,000, Gain % = ( 60,0001,20,000

× 100) =50%

2. C.P. for Bablu = 120 % of 500 = Rs.(120100

× 500) = Rs.600.

C.P. for Chirag = 130 % of 600 = Rs.(130100

× 600) = Rs.780

3. (100+20)New S.P.

= . (100−20)25,000

⇒ New S.P. = 120 × 25,00080

= Rs. 37,500

4. S.P. = 8a, C.P. = 3a, Gain = 8a – 3a =5a.

∴Ratio of between the profit and sale price = 5a8a

= 5:8

5. C.P. of 19 balls – S. P. of 19 balls = C.P. of 7 balls.

C.P. of 12 balls = S.P. of 19 balls =Rs.840

C.P. of 1 ball = Rs ( 84012

) = Rs. 70.

8. S.P. = a, Loss = a/4, CP. =a + a/4=5/4 a

∴Loss% =( 𝑎𝑎4

× 45𝑎𝑎

× 100) % = 20%

PARTNERSHIP

Meaning: When two or more than two persons run a business jointly, they are called partners in that business and the deal between them is known as partnership.

There are two types of partners in the business

1. Working Partner: A person who manages the business is known as working partner.

2. Sleeping Partner: A person who simply invests the money is known as sleeping partner.

Some Important Formulae:

Suppose two persons P and Q invests Rs. X and Rs. Y respectively for a year in a business, then their share of profit or loss at the end of the year:

Share of P ′ s profit (or loss )Share of Q ′ sprofit (or loss )

= XY

Suppose two persons P and Q invests Rs. X for m month and Rs. Y for n months respectively, then

Share of P ′ s profit (or loss )Share of Q ′ sprofit (or loss )

= XmYn

Solved Examples

Example1: P, Q and R started a business by investing Rs. 1,50,000, Rs. 2,50,000 and 3,50,000 respectively. At the end of the year, out of an annual profit of Rs.30,000 find the share of P, Q and R respectively.

Solution: Ratio of shares of P, Q and R respectively = Ratio of Ratio of their investments

= 1,50,000 : 2,50,000 : 3,50,000

= 3 : 5 :7

∴ Share of P’s profit = Rs. ( 30,000 × 315

) = Rs. 6,000.

Share of P’s profit = Rs. ( 30,000 × 515

) = Rs. 10,000.

Share of P’s profit = Rs. ( 30,000 × 715

) = Rs. 14,000.

Example2: Ram started a business investing Rs. 50,000.After 4 months, Shyam joined him with a capital of Rs. 30,000 .After another 2 months, Mohan joined them with a capital of Rs. 60,000.At the end of the year, they made a profit of Rs. 24,000.Find the share of profits of Ram, Shyam and Mohan.

Solution: According to the given problem, it is clear that Ram invested his capital for 12 months, Shyam invested for 8 months and Mohan invested for 6 months.

Then, ratio of their Capitals = (50,000 × 12) : (30,000 × 8) : (60,000 × 6)

= 60:24:36 = 5:2:3

∴ Share of Ram’s profit = (24,000 × 510

) = Rs.12,000;

Share of Shyam’s profit = (24,000 × 210

) = Rs.4,800;

Share of Mohan’s profit = (24,000 × 310

) = Rs.7,200.

Example3: Three friends P, Q and R enter into partnership. P invests 2 times as much as Q invests and Q invests one-fourth of what R invests. If the profit earned by them is Rs.63,000, then what is the share of profit of P at the end of the year.

Solution: Let us suppose R’s Capital = Rs. X. Then, Q’s Capital = Rs. 14 X

Now, P’s capital = Rs. (2 × Q’s Capital) = Rs. (2 × 14 X) = Rs. ( 1

2 X)

∴Ratio of their capitals = 12 X : 1

4 X : X =2:1:4

Hence, share of P’s profit = Rs.(63,000 × 27 ) =18,000.

Example4: P, Q and R start a business by investing Rs. 10,000.After 4 month P invests 5,000 more, Q withdraws Rs. 2,000 and R withdraws Rs. 4,000. If the total Rs.88,000 profit was recorded at the end of the year, then find the share of Q.

Solution: Ratio of capitals of P, Q and R

= (10,000 × 4 + 15,000 × 8) : (10,000 × 4 + 8,000 × 8) : ( 10,000 × 4 + 6,000 × 8)

= (40,000+1,20,000) : (40,000 + 64,000) : (40,000 + 48,000)

= 1,60,000 : 1,04,000 : 88,000 =160 : 104 : 88 = 20 : 13 : 11

∴Hence, share of Q = Rs. (88,000 × 1344

) = Rs.26,000.

Exercise

Directions: Select the correct option:

1. Radha and Meera started a business investing Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 65,000 respectively. In what ratio the profit earned after 5 years be divided between Radha and Meera?

(a) 13:12

(b) 13:10

(c) 10:13

(d) 10:11

2. Anurag invested Rs.45,000 in a business .After few months, his friend Brijesh joined him with Rs. 40,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was divided between them in the ratio 3:2. After how many months did Brijesh join.

(a) 2 months

(b) 3 months

(c) 4 months

(d) 5 months

3. Shankar started a marriage burro business by investing Rs.1, 00,000. After 4 months, his wife Geeta joined him with a capital of Rs.50,000 and after 2 years, they earned a profit of Rs. 34,000. What was the Shankar’s share in the profit?

(a) Rs.24,500

(b) Rs.23,000

(c) Rs.24,000

(d) Rs.22,000

4. Nitin, Pranjali and Vivek hired a car for Gwalior darshan and used it for 3, 4 and 5 hours respectively and they paid Rs.900.Hire charges paid by Nitin were:

(a) Rs.8,000

(b) Rs.8,562

(c) Rs.6,000

(d) Rs.6,230

5. P, Q and R subscribe Rs.89,000 for online business. P subscribes Rs.4,000 more than Q and Q Rs.8,000 more than R. Out of a total profit of Rs, 17,800 , P receives:

(a) Rs.7,000

(b) Rs.7,890

(c) Rs.7,999

(d) Rs.6,890

6. Riya and Jaya invested in a business. They divided their profit in the ratio 4:5.If Riya invested 20,000,then the amount invested by Jaya:

(a) Rs.25,000

(b) Rs.26,000

(c) Rs.20,000

(d) Rs. 27,000

7. Four milkmen Ram, Shyam, Mohan and John rented a pasture. Ram grazed 18 cows for 2 months; Shyam 6 cows for 3 month; Mohan 3 cows for 2 month and John 15 cows for 2 months. If Ram’s share of rent is Rs. 540, find the total rent of the field.

(a) Rs.1100

(b) Rs.1290

(c) Rs.1300

(d) Rs.1350

8. Two partners Ajay and Vijay shared the profit in a business in the ratio 3:4. They had partnered for 9 months and 5 months respectively. What was the ratio of their investment?

(a) 1536

(b) 3514

(c) 1535

(d) 1531

9. If 3 (P’s share) = 4 (Q’s share) = 6 (R’s share), then out of a profit of Rs. 5,400, P will receive:

(a) Rs.2,424

(b) Rs.2,450

(c) Rs.2,400

(d) Rs.2,490

10. Kapil started a business with Rs,15,000 and after x months Sunil joined him with Rs.20,000.If the profits at the end of the year are divided equally then the value of x:

(a) 2 months

(b) 4 months

(c) 5 months

(d) 3 months

Answers

1. (c)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (d)

8. (a)

9. (c)

10. (d)

Solution and Explanation

1. Radha : Meera = 50,000 : 65,000 = 10 : 13

2. Let us suppose Brijesh joined after x months. Then his money was invested for (12-x) months.

∴45,000 ×12

40,000 (12−x) =

32 ⇔ 9 = 12-x ⇔ x = 3.

3. Shankar : Geeta = (1,00,000 × 24) : (50,000 × 20) = 24 : 10 = 12 : 5

Shankar’s share in the profit = Rs. (1217

× 34,000) = Rs.24,000.

4. Nitin : Pranjali : Vivek = 3 : 4 : 5

Hire charges paid by Nitin = Rs. ( 3

12 × 24,000) = Rs.6,000.

5. Suppose R= a. Then Q= a+8,000 and P= 4,000+8,000+a

∴a+a+ 8,000+4,000+8,000+a = 89,000⇔ 3a+20,000 = 89,000⇔ 3a = 69,000⇔ a=23,000

Now, P: Q: R =35:31:23

Then P’s share = Rs.(3589

× 17,800 )= Rs.7,000.

6. Suppose Jaya invested x Rs. in the business. Then, 20,000x = 4

5 ⇒ x = 25,000.

7. Ram:Shyam:Mohan:John =(18 × 2):(6× 3):( 3× 2) : ( 15× 2) = 36 : 18 : 6 : 30 = 6 : 3 : 1: 5

Suppose total rent = r Rs. Then Ram’s share = 6

15 r.

∴6

15 r = 540 ⇔ r = 1350.

8. Suppose Ajay was invested Rs. x for 9 months and Vijay was invested Rs. y for 5 months.

Then, 9x5y

= 34 ⇔ 36x =15y ⇔ x

y = 15

36

9. 3P: 4Q : 6R = C⇒P = C3 , Q = C

4 , R = C

6 ⇒P : Q : R = 4 : 3 : 2

P’s share in the profit = ( 49

× 5,400) =2,400.

10. 15,000 × 12 = 20,000 (12 – x) ⇒15 × 12 = 20 (12 - x) ⇒ x = 3.

TIME & WORK

Some basic facts with formulae

1. If a person P can do a piece of work in n days, then work done by him in 1 day = 1n.

2. If a Person P can do 1n work in 1 day, then he can finish the work in n days.

3. If a Person P can do a piece of work in n days and another person Q can do the same work in m days then time taken by them to complete the work is nm

n+m days when they

work together but independently.

4. If the efficiency of P to do a work is x times than efficiency of Q to do a same work then,

Ratio of work done by P and Q = x: 1

Ratio of time taken by P and Q to complete a work = 1:3

Solved Examples

Example1. Prerna can do a piece of work in 16 days while Monami can do the same work in 20 days. How long should it take both Prerna and Monami, working together but independently, to do the same work?

Solution. Prerna’s 1 day’s work = 1

16 , Monami’s 1 day’s work =

120

(Prerna + Monami) ’s 1 day’s work = 1

16 +

120

= 5 + 4

80 =

980

∴ Time taken by Prerna and Monami to finish the work = 809

days = 8 89

days.

Example2. Efficiency of Arun is thrice than Brijesh to do a piece of work and together they finish a piece of work in 27 days. In how many days will Arun finish the work?

Solution. ( Arun’s 1 day work ) : ( Brijesh’s 1 day work ) = 3 : 1

(Arun + Brijesh )’s 1 day work = 1

27

Then, Arun’s 1 day work = 1

27 ×

34 = 1

36

∴ Arun can finish the work in 36 days.

Exercise

1. Aryan takes 5 hours to do a job, and Aryaman takes 6 hours to do the same job.How long should it take both Aryan and Aryaman, working together but independently, to do the same job?

(a) 3 days

(b) 2 811

days

(c) 2 911

days

(d) 4 days

2. X is thrice as good a workman as Y and together they finish a piece of work in 21 days. In how many days will X alone finish the work?

(a) 29 days

(b) 31 days

(c) 28 days

(d) 27 days

3. A and B can do a piece of work in 12 days, B and C can do it in 16 days, A and C can do it in 20 days. In how many days will A, B and C complete it, working together?

(a) 847 days

(b) 827 days

(c) 31days

(d) 32 days

4. A can do a certain work in 45 days. B is 80% more efficient than A. How many days does B alone take to do the same work?

(a) 24 days

(b) 23 days

(c) 28 days

(d) 25 days

5. X and Y undertake to do a piece of work for Rs.800. X alone can do it in 6 days while Y alone can do it in 8 days. With the help of Z, they finish it in 3 days. Then what will be the share of X?

(a) 100

(b) 220

(c) 400

(d) 300

6. A and B working separately can do a piece of work in 12 and 36 days respectively. If they work for a day alternately, A beginning, in how many days, the work will be completed?

(a) 9 days

(b) 10 days

(c) 18 days

(d) 16 days

7. Eight men can complete a work in 10 days. They started the work and after 6 days, two men left. In how many days will the work be completed by the remaining men?

(a) 25 days

(b) 22 days

(c) 625 days

(d) 635 days

8. A sum of money is sufficient to pay A’ salary for 12 days and B’s salary for 24days. The same money is sufficient to pay the salaries of both for:

(a) 8 days

(b) 9 days

(c) 10 days

(d) 12 days

9. A takes thrice as much time as B or twice as much time as C to finish a piece of work. Working together, they can finish the work in 4 days. C can do the work alone in:

(a) 14 days

(b) 12 days

(c) 10 days

(d) 8 days

10. A can finish a work in 12 days and B can do the same work in 13 the time taken by A. Then,

working together, what part of same work they can finish in a day?

(a) 15

(b) 14

(c) 13

(d) 12

Answers

1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (b)

10. (c)

Solution and Explanation

1. (Aryan +Aryaman)’s 1 day work = ( 15 + 1

6 ) = 11

30

∴ Both together will finish the work in 2 811

days.

2. ( X’s 1 day work) : (Y’s 1 day work) = 3:1

(X + Y)’ 1 day work = 121

Then, X’s 1 day work = 121

× 34 = 1

28

∴ X alone can finish the work in 28 days.

3. (A+B)’s 1 day work = 112

+ 110

(B+C)’s 1 day work = 110

+ 120

(A+C)’s 1 day work = 112

+ 120

Then, (A+B+C)’s 1 day work = 12 ( 1

12 + 1

10 + 1

20) = 7

60

∴ A, B and C can finish the work in 8 47 days.

4. Ratio of time taken by A and B to do a work = 180100

= 95 .

If B takes x days to do a work then, 9:5:: 45:x ⇒ x = 25 days

5. Z’s 1 day work = { 13 - ( 1

6 + 1

8 )} = 1

24

∴ Ratio of X, Y and Z ‘s 1 day work = 4:3:1

Now, X’s share = Rs. (800 × 48 ) =Rs.400.

6. (A+B)’s 2 day work = 112

+ 136

= 19

Work done by A and B in 9 pairs of days = (9 × 19 ) = 1.

∴ Total days to complete the work = 18 days.

TIME & DISTANCE

Time and Distance Formulae relates Time, Distance and Speed. These relationships have many practical applications.

For example if you know the speed of any vehicle and the distance covered by that vehicle, then we can easily calculate the time taken in whole journey by using the formula of Time and Distance.

Important Formulae

(i) Speed = DistanceTime

,Distance= Speed×Time, Time= DistanceSpeed

(ii) S km/hr =(s× 518

)m/sec

(iii) S m/sec =(s× 185

)km/hr

Example: A Taj Express travelling at 511

of its actual speed and covers 42 km in 1 hr 40 min 48 sec. Find the actual speed of the Taj Express.

Solution: Suppose the actual speed of Taj = S km/hr

Then new speed = 511

× S

Time taken by Taj with new speed

= 1 hr 40 min 48 sec

= 1hr+40 × 160

hr+48 × 160×60

[Because 1hr = 60 minutes,

1 minute = 60 Second,

& 1 minute = 160

hr ,

1 Second = 160

minute ]

= 1hr +23 hr + 1

75 hr

= 12675

hrs

Now, according to the formula

New Speed × Time taken by Taj with new speed =

Distance covered by Taj

511

S× 12675

= 42

S = 42×75×11126×5

S =55km/hr

Hence, the actual speed of the Taj Express is 55 km/hr

Points to remember:

1. Read the units of time speed and distance carefully.

2. If the distance is given in km and the speed is in m/s then always convert the units. According to the demand of the question you can change the kilometer in to meter or m/s in to km /hr.

Exercise

1. If Narendra runs at a speed of 10 km/hr then how many minutes does he take to cover a distance of 200 m?

(a) 72 Second

(b) 73 Second

(c) 74 Second

(d) 75 Second

2. Rahul can cover a certain distance in 1 hr 30 minutes by covering one – fourth of the distance at 5 km/he and the rest at 6 km/hr. Find the total distance covered by Rahul.

(a) 8km

(b) 7km

(c) 8.57km

(d) Cannot be determined

3. Ram runs along the four sides of a Square at the speeds of 2, 4 , 6 and 8 km/hr. what is the average speed of Ram around the field?

(a) km/hr

(b) 3km/hr

(c) 3.84km/hr

(d) 3.2km/hr

4. A car covers a distance of 666 km in 9 hours. What is the speed of the car?

(Clerks’ Grade, 2009)

(a) 78km/hr

(b) 76km/hr

(c) 74km/hr

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

5. Gwalior and Agra are two stations 160 km apart. A train starts from Gwalior at 8 a.m. and travels towards Agra at 60 km/hr .Another train starts from Agra at 9 a.m. and travels towards Gwalior at 40 km/hr. At what time do they meet?

(a) 9.15a.m.

(b) 9.45a.m

(c) 9.55a.m.

(d) 10a.m.

6. A motor car starts with the speed of 70 km/hr with its speed increasing every two hours by 10km/h. In how many hours will it cover 345 kms? (Bank P.O. 2003)

(a) 214 hrs

(b) 4 hrs 5 min

(c) 412 hrs

(d) Cannot be determined

(e) None of these

7. If Shyam walks at 10 km/hr instead of 8 km/hr, he would have walked 5 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is:

(a) 21km

(b) 20km

(c) 19km

(d) 18km

8. A Truck covers a distance of 330km at the speed of 30km/hr. What is the average speed of a car which travels a distance of 110km more than the truck in the same time?

(IBPS Clerk, 2011)

(a) 42km/hr

(b) 48km/hr

(c) 39km/hr

(d) 38km/hr

(e) None of these

Answers

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (e)

Solution and Explanation

1. Narendra’s Speed = 10km/hr =10 × 518

m/s = 259

m/s

∴Time taken by Narendra to cover 200 m = (200 × 925

) second = 72 Second.

2. Total time taken = 1 hr 30 minutes = 32 hrs

Suppose total distance = xkm

Then, 𝑥𝑥/45

+ 3𝑥𝑥/46

= 32 ⇔ 𝑥𝑥

20 + 𝑥𝑥

8 = 3

2 ⇔ x = 3 ×20

7 = 8.57km

3. Suppose each side of the square is x km and the average speed of Ram around the field is y km.

Then, 𝑥𝑥2 + 𝑥𝑥

4 + 𝑥𝑥

6 + 𝑥𝑥

8 = 4𝑥𝑥

𝑦𝑦 ⇔ y = 3.84 km/hr

4. Speed of the Car = 6669

kmph =74kmph

5. Suppose they meet h hours after 8a.m.Then,

(Distance covered by first train in h hrs) + (Distance covered by second train in (h-1) hrs) = 100

∴60h + 40(h-1) = 160 ⇔ 100h = 200 ⇔ h = 2hrs.

Hence, they meet 2hrs after 8a.m. i.e. at 10 a.m.

6. Distance covered in 2 hrs = (70 × 2) km = 140km.

And distance covered in next 2 hrs = (80 × 2) km = 160 km

Now the remaining distance = 345-140-160 = 45km

Speed of the car in fifth hour = 90 km/hr.

Time taken to cover 45 km = 45/90 hr = ½ hr.

∴Total time taken by the Car = 2+2+1/2 = 4 12 hrs.

7. If the actual distance travelled by Shyam is x km , then

𝑥𝑥8 = 𝑥𝑥+5

10 ⇔ x = 20km

8. Total time taken by a Truck = 33030

= 11 hrs.

New distance of a Car = 330 + 110 =440

Average Speed = 440/11 = 40 km/hr

PROBLEMS ON TRAINS

Some Important Facts and Formulae

1. Speed = DistanceTime

,Distance= Speed×Time, Time= DistanceSpeed

2. S km/hr =(s× 518

)m/sec

3. S m/sec =(s× 185

)km/hr

4. If the length of a train is l meters then time taken to pass a pole or a standing man or a signal post is equal to the time taken by a train to cover l meters.

5. If the length of a train is l meters then time taken to pass a stationary object of length a meters is equal to the time taken by a train to cover (l + a) meters.

6. Suppose two trains or two objects are moving in the same direction and their respective speeds are u m/s and v m/s. If u > v, then their relative speed is (u – v) m/s.

7. Suppose two trains or two objects are moving in opposite directions and their respective speeds are u m/s and v m/s, then their relative speed is (u + v) m/s.

8. If two trains of length l meters and m meters are moving in opposite directions and their respective speeds are u m/s and v m /s, then they will cross each other after (𝑙𝑙+𝑚𝑚 )

(𝑢𝑢+𝑣𝑣)

seconds.

9. If two trains of length l meters and m meters are moving in the same direction and their respective speeds are u m/s and v m/s, then the faster train will take (𝑙𝑙+𝑚𝑚 )

(𝑢𝑢+𝑣𝑣) seconds to

cross the slower train.

Exercise

1. A train of length 90 metres running at the speed of 54 km/hr crosses a telegraph post. The time taken by the train to cross the telegraph post is

(a) 2 seconds

(b) 4 seconds

(c) 6 seconds

(d) 8 seconds

2. A train of length 150 metres running at the speed of 72 km/hr crosses a bridge of length 30 metres. The time taken by the train to cross the bridge is

(a) 9 seconds

(b) 10 seconds

(c) 11 seconds

(d) 12 seconds

3. Two trains, 73 metres and 57 metres in length respectively, are running in the same direction at the speed 118 km/hr and 100 km/hr respectively. In what time will they be completely clear of each other from the moment they meet?

(a) 25 seconds

(b) 26 seconds

(c) 30 seconds

(d) 31 seconds

4. Two trains, 92 metres and 83 metres in length respectively, are running in the opposite direction at the speed 67 km/hr and 59 km/hr respectively. In what time will they be completely clear of each other from the moment they meet?

(a) 2 seconds

(b) 3 seconds

(c) 4 seconds

(d) 5 seconds

5. A train of length 90 metres, running at 80 km/hr passes a man who is walking in the same direction at 8 km/hr. The time taken by train to cross the man is

(a) 3.5 seconds

(b) 4.5 seconds

(c) 5.5 seconds

(d) 6.5 seconds

6. A train of length 125 metres, running at 83 km/hr passes a man who is walking against the train at 7 km/hr. The time taken by train to cross the man is

(a) 4 seconds

(b) 4.5 seconds

(c) 5 seconds

(d) 5.5 seconds

7. A train of length 125 metres, running at 83 km/hr passes a man who is sitting in another train which is running in the same direction at the speed 65 km/hr. The time taken by train to cross the man is

(a) 20 seconds

(b) 25 seconds

(c) 30 seconds

(d) 35 seconds

8. A train of length 140 metres, running at 83 km/hr passes a man who is sitting in another train which is running in the opposite direction at the speed 43 km/hr. The time taken by train to cross the man is

(a) 4 seconds

(b) 5 seconds

(c) 6 seconds

(d) 7 seconds

9. A train of length 71 metres, running at 51 km/hr crosses another train which is running in the opposite direction at 67 km/hr in 4.5 seconds. The length of the train which is running at 67 km/hr is

(a) 50 metres

(b) 55 metres

(c) 60 metres

(d) 64 metres

10. A train of length 63 metres, running at 81 km/hr crosses another train which is running in the same direction at 63 km/hr in 24 seconds. The length of the train which is running at 63 km/hr is

(a) 57 metres

(b) 60 metres

(c) 63 metres

(d) 66 metres

Answers

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (a)

Solution and Explanation

1. To cross a telegraph post the train has cover its own length which is 90 metres and its speed is 54 km/hr = 54 × 5

18 m/s = 15m/s

Therefore the required time = 9015

= 6 seconds.

3. Here the faster train will cover its own length as well as the length of the other train which is

73 + 57 = 130 metres.

The relative speed of faster train = 118 km/hr – 100 km/hr = 18 km/hr = 18 × 518

m/s = 5 m/s

The required time = 1305

= 26 seconds.

4. Here the relative speed = 67 km/hr + 59 km/hr = 126 km/hr = 126 × 518

m/s = 35 m/s. Because trains are running in opposite direction.

6. In this question, the man is walking in the opposite direction with a speed 7 km/hr then the relative speed of the train = 83 km/h + 7 km/hr = 90 km/hr =90 × 5

18 m/s = 25 m/s.

The length of the train 125 metres is to be covered with the speed of 25 m/s.

Therefore the required time = 12525

= 5 seconds.

9. In this question, the trains are running in the opposite direction.

Therefore the relative speed = 51 km/hr + 67 km/hr = 108 km/hr = 108 × 518

m/s = 30 m/s.

Here the length of the second train is unknown. Let the length be x metres. Then the total length which is to be covered = (71 + x) metres.

From t = ds , 4.5 = (71 + 𝑥𝑥)

30 ⇒4.5 × 30 = 71 + x ⇒ 135 – 71 = x ⇒ x = 64.

Therefore the length required = 64 metres.

SIMPLE INTEREST

Definition:

If a person X borrows some money from another person Y for a certain period, then after that specified period, X (borrower) has to return the borrowed money with some additional money. This additional money that X (borrower) has to pay is called Interest. The actual borrowed money is called Principal or Sum. The Principle and interest together is called amount, and the time for which X the borrower has been used the borrowed money is called the time. The interest that X has to pay for every 100 rupees each year is called rate percent per annum.

If the interest on a sum borrowed for a certain period is reckoned uniformly, then it is called Simple Interest and it is denoted by S.I.

FORMULAE:

Let Principle = P, Rate =R% per annum, and Time = T years. Then

S.I. = (P ×R ×T100

)

Or

P = (100 ×S.I.R × T

)

or

R = (100 ×S.I.P × T

)

or

T = (100 ×S.I.P × R

)

Now,

Simple Interest + Principle = Amount

If we denote the amount by ’A’, then

Simple Interest = A – P

S.I. = A – P = P ×R ×T100

A=P (1+ 𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅100

) = SI (1+ 100𝑅𝑅𝑅𝑅

)

Two different cases can be compared by using the following formula

A1−P 1 A2−P 2

= 𝑃𝑃1𝑅𝑅1𝑅𝑅1𝑃𝑃2𝑅𝑅2𝑅𝑅2

Solved Examples

Example 1: What will be the simple interest on Rs. 78,000 at 10% per annum for 9 years?

Solution: Here, given that

Principal (P) =78,000

Rate (R) = 10%

Time (T) = 9 years

Now, we know that

S.I. = (P ×R ×T100

)

S.I. = (78,000 ×10 ×9100

)

S.I. = Rs. 70,200

Therefore, the simple interest on Rs. 78,000 at 10% per annum for 9 years will be Rs. 70, 200.

Exercise

1. What will be the simple interest earned on an amount of Rs. 18,000 in 6 months at the rate of 25% p.a.?

(a) Rs.2250.50

(b) Rs.2350.50

(c) Rs.2, 250

(d) Rs 2,400

2. What will be the simple interest on Rs. 2,400 at 4 16 % per annum for the period from 1st Feb,

2005 to 15th April, 2005?

(a) Rs. 20

(b) Rs.20.5

(c) Rs. 22

(d) Rs.25

3. A sum of Rs. 600 amounts to Rs. 900 in 5 years at simple interest. What would be the amount if the interest rate is increased by 5%?

(a) Rs.1, 000

(b) Rs 1,230

(c) Rs.1, 050

(d) Rs.1, 125

4. Ram borrows Rs. 5000 for 2 years at 4% p.a. simple interest. He immediately lends it to another person at 61

4 % p.a. for 2 years. Find his gain in the transaction per year.

(a) Rs.112.50

(b) Rs.150

(c) Rs.125

(d) Rs. 167.50

5. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 400 to yield Rs. 72 as interest at 9% per annum of simple interest?

(a) 3 year

(b) 3.5 years

(c) 4 years

(d) 2 years

6. What is the present worth of Rs. 1100 due in 2 years at 5% simple interest per annum?

(a) Rs.900

(b) Rs.1000

(c) Rs.1010

(d) Rs.1025

7. What will be the ratio of simple interest earned by certain amount at the same rate of interest for 9 years and that for 12 years?

(a) 12

(b) 45

(c) 34

(d) 57

8. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 750 in 3 years and to Rs. 794 in 4 years. The sum is:

(a) Rs.620

(b) RS.630

(c) Rs.625

(d) Rs. 618

9. A sum of money becomes 76 of itself in 3 years at a certain rate of simple interest. The rate

per annum is:

(a) 18%

(b) 25%

(c) 5 59 %

(d) 6 59 %

10. The difference between the simple interest received from two different sources on Rs.1200 for 5 years is Rs. 18.60.the difference between their rates of interest is:

(a) 0.31%

(b) 0.32%

(c) 0.5%

(d) 0.4%

11. Ram a moneylender finds that due to a fall in the annual rate of interest from 11% to 9%, his yearly income diminishes by Rs. 24.50.His capital is:

(a) Rs. 1250

(b) Rs.1290

(c) Rs.1225

(d) Rs.1200

12. A man lends Rs. 20,000 in four parts. If he gets 10% on Rs.4000, 15% on Rs. 8000 and 18% on 2000.If his average annual interest is 20% what percent must he get for the remainder?

(a) 32%

(b) 35%

(c) 35.4%

(d) 34%

13. What should be the least number of years in which the simple interest on Rs. 3200 at 5 13 %

will be an exact number of rupees?

(a) 6

(b) 5

(c) 4

(d) 3

14. Ram takes a loan from a bank of Rs 1000 at 5% simple interest. He returns Rs. 500 at the end of 1 year .In order to clear his dues at the end of 2 years, he would pay:

(a) Rs.570

(b) Rs.572

(c) Rs.575

(d) Rs.576

15. A sum of money amounts to Rs. 9800 after 5 years and Rs. 12005 after 8 years at the same rate of simple interest .The rate of interest per annum is:

(a) 12%

(b) 13%

(c) 14%

(d) 15%

Answers

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (c)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (a)

11. (c)

12. (d)

13. (d)

14. (c)

15. (a)

Solution and Explanation

1. P= 18,000, R = 25%, T = 6/12 year

S.I. = P ×R ×T100

= 18000 ×25 ×1100 ×2

= Rs.2, 250.

2. Principal (P) = Rs. 2,400, Rate (R) = 256

, Time (T) = (27+31+15) days =73 days = 73365

year = 15

year

Now, S.I. = (P ×R ×T100

) ⇔ S.I. = (2,400 × 256

× 15

× 1100

) ⇔ S.I. = 20.

Therefore, the simple interest on Rs. 2,400 at 4 16 % per annum for the period from 1st Feb,

2005 to 15th April, 2005 will be Rs. 20.

NOTE: The day on which money is withdrawn is counted while the day on which money is deposited is not counted.

3. According to the given situation a sum of Rs. 600 amounts to Rs. 950 in 5 years, then

S.I. = Rs. 900 – Rs.600 = Rs.300

P = Rs. 600, T = 5 Years

Therefore,

R = S.I.×100P×T

R = (300 ×100600×5

) % = 10%

If the interest rate is increased by 10 %, then

New Rate = (10+5) % =15%, New S.I. =Rs.(600×15×5100

) = Rs.450

Then, New Amount = Rs.600 + Rs.450 = Rs.1050

4. Gain in 2 years = Rs. [ ( 5000 ×254

× 2100

) – ( 5000 ×4×2100

) ] = Rs.(625 – 400) =Rs.225

Then, gain in 1 year = Rs. (2252

) = Rs. 112.50

10. (1200 ×𝑅𝑅1 ×5100

) - (1200 ×𝑅𝑅2 ×5100

) = 18.60 ⇔ 6000(R1 -R2) = 1860⇔ R1 – R2 = 0.31%.

COMPOUND INTEREST

When the borrower X and the lender Y agrees to fix up a certain time for example yearly, half yearly or quarterly to settle the previous money, then the difference between the amount and the money borrowed is said to be the Compound Interest and it denoted by C.I. In these calculations, principal for the second unit of time is the amount of first unit of time and so on.

Some important facts and formulae

Let Principal = P, Time = n years

(i) If interest is compounded annually, then

Amount = P (1 + R100

)n

(ii) If interest is compounded half- yearly, then

Amount = P (1 + R/2100

)2n

(iii) If interest is compounded Quarterly, then

Amount = P (1 + R/4100

)4n

(iv) If time is in fractions and the interest is compounded yearly, say 2𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟐

𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲𝐲, then

Amount = P (1 + R100

)2 (1+ 12R

100 )

Solved Examples

Example1. What will be the Compound Interest on Rs. 5000 at 5% per annum for 3 years, compounded annually?

Solution. Amount = Rs. [5,000 ×( 1 + 5100

)3 ] = Rs. [5,000 ×( 2120

)3] = Rs. [5,000 × 9,2618,000

]

= Rs.5788.125

∴Compound Interest = Rs. (5788.125 – 5000) = Rs.788.125.

Example2. What will be the Compound Interest on Rs. 2000 at 10% per annum for 1 year 2 months, compounded annually?

Solution. Given that principal = Rs. 2000, R = 10%, Time = 1 year 2 months = 116

year

Amount = Rs. [2000 × ( 1 + 10100

) × ( 1 +16×10

100 ) ] = Rs. [2000 × (11

10) × (61

60) ] = Rs. 2236.67

∴Compound Interest = Rs. (2236.67 – 2000) =Rs. 236.67.

Example3. What is the compound interest on Rs. 12000 in 4 years at 20 % per annum, the interest being compounded half yearly.

Solution. Given that,

Principal = Rs. 12000, Rate = 20% per annum, Time = 4 years

Now, Amount = Rs.[ 12000 ( 1 + 20 2

100 ) 2 = Rs. (120 × 11× 11) = Rs. 14520

∴Compound Interest = Rs.( 14520 – 12000) = Rs. 2520.

Example4. If the simple interest on Rs. 1000 at x % per annum for 2 years is Rs.200, then calculate the compound interest on the same amount for the same period at the same time.

Solution. Here,

Principal = Rs.1000, Rate = x% per annum, Time = 2 years, S.I. = Rs.200

Then, S.I. = Rs.(1000 × x × 2100

) ⇔ Rs.200 = Rs.(1000 × x × 2100

) ⇔ x = 10%.

Exercise

1. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs 8000 at the rate of 15% per annum after 2 years?

(a) Rs.2400

(b) Rs.2450

(c) Rs.2580

(d) Rs.2650

2. What is the difference between the compound interests on Rs. 10000 for 212 years at 4%pe

annum yearly and half yearly?

(a) Rs.8

(b) Rs.8.49

(c) Rs.7

(d) Rs. 10

3. A sum of money tripled itself at compound interest in 10 years. In how many years will it become 27 times.

(a) 35 years

(b) 31 years

(c) 30 years

(d) 32 years

4. At what rate of compound interest per annum will a sum of Rs.10000 becomes Rs. 20736 in 4 years.

(a) 21%

(b) 20%

(c) 25%

(d) 26%

5. What will be the compound interest on a sum of Rs.7200 at 5 percent per annum in 2 years? (SBI Assistance and Stenographer Exam 2012)

(a) Rs.841

(b) Rs.738

(c) Rs.793

(d) Rs.812

(e) Rs.694

6. There is 60% increase in an amount in 6 years at Simple Interest what will be the compound interest of Rs. 12000 after 3 years at the same rate?

(a) Rs.2160

(b) Rs.3120

(c) Rs.3972

(d) Rs.6240

(e) None of these

Answers

1. (c)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (b)

Solution and Explanation

1. Amount = Rs. [8000 × �1 + 15100

�2]

Rs. [8000 × 23 ×2320 ×20

] = Rs. 10,580

C.I. = Rs. [10580 – 8000] = Rs. 2,580

2. C.I. , When interest is compounded yearly

Amount = �10000 �1 + 4100

�2

�1 + 12×4

100��

Amount = �10000 �26 ×2625 ×25

� �5150

�� = Rs.11,032.32

∴ C.I. = 11032.32 – 10000 = 1032.32

C.I. When interest is compounded half yearly

Amount = Rs [10000 × ( 1 + 42

100)2 × 52 ] = Rs. 11040.80803

∴ C.I. = 11040.80803 – 10000 = 1040.808032

Diff = 8.488032 ≈Rs. 8.9

3. P �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�10

= 3P

�1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�10

= 3

Suppose after n years it will become 27 times

Then,

P �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�𝑛𝑛

= 27 p ⇔ �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�𝑛𝑛

= 33

�1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�𝑛𝑛

= �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�30

⇒n = 30.

4. Let the rate of C.I. = R, then

P �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�𝑛𝑛

= 20736 ⇔ 10000 �1 + 𝑅𝑅100

�4 = 20736 ⇔ �1 + 𝑅𝑅

100�

4 = �12

10�

4⇔ 𝑅𝑅

100 = 12

10 -

1

⇔ R = 20%

5. Amount = 7200 �1 + 5100

�2

= 7200 × 21 × 2120 × 20

= Rs.7938

C.I. = Rs.(7938 – 7200) = Rs.738

6. Suppose principle = Rs. 100

Then, S.I. = 60 Rs, Time = 6 years

S.I. = 𝑃𝑃 ×𝑅𝑅 ×𝑅𝑅100

⇔ 60 = 100 × 𝑅𝑅 × 6100

⇔ R = 10%

Now , Amount = 12000 �1 + 10100

� = Rs. 15972

C.I. = Rs.(15972 – 12000) = Rs.3972

PROBABILITY

Probability: It is a mathematical measurement of uncertainty of an event. The value of Probability varies from 0 to 1. The 0 value of an event’s probability indicates that the event cannot happen. On the other side the value 1 for any event indicates that the event is certain.

Some Important Term

1. Experiment: It is an operation which can produce some well defined outcomes.

2. Random Experiment: It is an experiment in which all the possible outcomes are known but the exact output cannot be predicted in advance.

For example: Rolling an unbiased dice, tossing a fair coin etc.

3. Sample Space: It is a set of all possible outcomes of a random experiment.

For Example; if we toss a coin the possible outcomes are head (H) and tail (T). Therefore the sample space for tossing a coin = {H, T}.

4. Event: It is a subset of a sample space.

For Example; if we toss two coins, the possible outcomes are {HH, HT, TH, TT}. Here the events can be; only H = {HH}, only one H = {HT, TH} or no H = {TT}.

5. Probability of an Event:

Let S be the sample space and E be an Event in the given sample space.

Then, E ⊆ S.

∴ 𝐏𝐏(𝐄𝐄) = 𝐧𝐧(𝐄𝐄)𝐧𝐧(𝐒𝐒)

.

Some Important Results

1. P(S) = 1,

2. 0≤P(E)≤1

3. P(φ ) = 0

4. For event A and B, P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A ∩ B)

5. If A is (not A), then P ( A ) = 1 – P (A).

Some Important Formulae

1. n ! = n (n – 1) (n – 2) ......... 3.2.1

2. 0 ! = 1 = 1 !

3. Selection of r things out of n things = n C r = 𝑛𝑛 !𝑟𝑟 ! (𝑛𝑛−𝑟𝑟) !

= 𝑛𝑛 (𝑛𝑛 − 1) (𝑛𝑛 − 2) …… 𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡 𝑟𝑟 𝑓𝑓𝑎𝑎𝑓𝑓𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑡𝑟𝑟𝑓𝑓𝑟𝑟 (𝑟𝑟 − 1) (𝑟𝑟 − 2) ….. 3.2.1

4. n C n = n C 0 = 1

5. n C r = n C (n – r)

Exercise

1. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting two heads is

(a) 18

(b) 38

(c) 58

(d) 78

2. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting one head is

(a) 18

(b) 38

(c) 58

(d) 78

3. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at least one head is

(a) 18

(b) 38

(c) 58

(d) 78

4. Three unbiased coins are tossed. The probability of getting at most one head is

(a) 12

(b) 38

(c) 58

(d) 78

5. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of obtaining a total score of six?

(a) 12

(b) 14

(c) 536

(d) 13

6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting same digits on both the dice?

(a) 12

(b) 14

(c) 536

(d) 16

7. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability of getting at least total score of seven?

(a) 712

(b) 14

(c) 536

(d) 13

8. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the obtained value on the both faces is not same?

(a) 12

(b) 14

(c) 56

(d) 16

9. A bag contains 6 red and 4 blue balls. If 4 balls are drawn at random. The probability that 2 are red and 2 are blue is

(a) 12

(b) 14

(c) 37

(d) 16

10. A bag contains 7 red and 8 blue balls. If 5 balls are drawn at random. The probability that at least 4 blue balls are drawn is

(a) 172002

(b) 192002

(c) 421001

(d) 193003

Answers

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (c)

9. (c)

10. (c)

Solution and Explanation

1. All the possible outcomes when three coins are tossed;

{hhh, hht, hth, thh, htt, tht, tth, ttt}

3. The favourable events are {hhh, hht, hth, thh, htt, tht, tth}

5. All the possible outcomes when two dice are throw

{(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5), (1, 6),

(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 4), (2, 5), (2, 6),

(3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 4), (3, 5), (3, 6),

(4, 1), (4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 4), (4, 5), (4, 6),

(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6),

(5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4), (5, 5), (5, 6)}

9. Here the number of sample space means selection of 4 balls out of 10 balls = 10C4 = 10!

4!(10−4)!= 10×9×8×7×6×5×4×3×2×1

4×3×2×1×6×5×4×3×2×1 = 201.

Now the favourable events of selecting 2 red balls out of 6 red balls and 2 blue balls out of 4 blue balls = 4 C 2 × 6 C 2 = 4×3×2×1

2×1×2×1× 6×5×4×3×2×1

2×1×4×3×2×1 = 90.

Therefore the required probability = 90210

= 37.

PERMUTATIONS & COMBINATIONS

Some Important Facts and Formulae

Factorial Notation: If n is a positive integer. Then, factorial n is denoted by n! and it is defined as:

n! = n (n – 1) (n – 2) ….. 4.3.2.1.

Examples:

(i) 6! = 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1.

(ii) 4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1.

(iii) 0! = 1

Permutations: It is a different arrangement of a given number of things by taking some of the things or all at a time.

Number of all permutations taken r at a time is given by:

𝑛𝑛𝑃𝑃𝑟𝑟 = 𝑛𝑛 !(𝑛𝑛−𝑟𝑟 )!

= n (n – 1) (n – 2) … (n – r + 1)

Note: Number of all permutations of n things taken all at a time = n!

Example:

(i) 7𝑃𝑃4 = 7!(7−4)!

= 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 1 = 840.

Combinations: It is a way of selecting several things or objects from a given large group, where order does not matter.

Number of different things taking r different things at a time is given by:

𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑟𝑟 = 𝑛𝑛 !𝑟𝑟 !(𝑛𝑛−𝑟𝑟)!

Note: 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑟𝑟 = 𝑛𝑛𝑛𝑛(𝑛𝑛−𝑟𝑟)

Example:

(i) 9𝑛𝑛4 = 9!4!(9−4)!

= 9 ×8 ×7 ×64 ×3 ×2 ×1

= 126.

Exercise

1. How many different words can be formed from the word ‘SUCCESS’.

(a) 5040

(b) 420

(c) 480

(d) 490

2. How many permutations can be made out of the letters of the word ‘VOICE’?

(a) 15

(b) 3125

(c) 120

(d) 100

3. In how many ways can 4 books on Quantitative Aptitude, 5 on Economics and 3 on Financial Management be arranged on a shelf and these books should be arranged in such a way so that the books on each subject are always together?

(a) 1,03,680

(b) 1,03,640

(c) 1,03,670

(d) 1,03,660

4. In how many ways can 9 different stones be arranged to form a necklace.

(a) 1,81,440

(b) 20,160

(c) 40,320

(d) 40,380

5. Out of 9 employees, in how many ways can a committee of 4 be made?

(a) 129

(b) 130

(c) 126

(d) 128

6. In how many ways can a group of 5 men and 2 women be made out of a total of 7 men and 3 women? (Bank P.O. 2003)

(a) 63

(b) 90

(c) 126

(d) 45

Solution and Explanation

1. (b): There are seven letters in the word ‘SUCCESS’, which comprises 3 ‘s’, 2 ‘c’.

Then required number of words = Total number of different permutations taking all 7 letters of the word ‘SUCCESS’ at a time = 7!

3!2! = 420.

2. (c): The given word ‘VOICE contains 5 different 5 letters. Then the total number of permutations formed out of 5 letters taking all 5 letters at a time = 5! = 5×4×3×2×1 = 120.

3. (a): If we consider all books on same subject as one unit then, we have 3 units and 3 units can be arranged in 3! ways.

Also,

4 books on Quantitative Aptitude can be arranged in 4 ! ways.

5 books on Economics can be arranged in 5 ! ways.

3 books on Financial Management can be arranged in 3 ! ways.

Now, the required number of ways = 3! × 4! ×5! × 3! = 1,03,680.

4. (b): This problem is related to circular permutations. Then the required number of arrangements =1

2 × (9 – 1) ! = 20,160.

5. (c): The number of such committees = 9𝑛𝑛4 = 9!4!(9−4)!

= 9 ×8 ×7 ×64 ×3 ×2 ×1

= 126.

6. (a): Total number of ways = ( 7𝑛𝑛5 × 3𝑛𝑛2 ) = 63.

DATA INTERPRETATION

Data plays an important role in our day to day life. If the given data is very large then it can be represented in precise form. The process of interpreting the data from its precise form is called Data Interpretation.

There are some important ways to represent the data in précised form.

Histogram

Frequency polygon

Bar-diagram

Pie-chart

Histogram

Frequency polygon

Bar Diagram

Pie-chart

The method for solving the DI part involved two way process

1. Observation or Understanding of the Information provided in the Data.

2. Calculation Part

The calculation part requires knowledge of ratio, percentage and average. In these types of questions candidates are required to find the ratio of two different elements , percentage of one element with respect to other or the average of two or more elements.

Solved Example

Question (Q.1- 5): The line diagram shows the cost of production and profit of five companies for the year 2011-12. (The figures are in '000').

1. The ratio of profits of company B to D is:

(a) 2:3

(b) 3:4

(c) 4:3

(d) 3:2

0

100

200

300

400

500

A B C D E

COST OF PRODUCTION

PROFIT

2. The profit of company C is what percentage of the cost of production of company E?

(a) 20%

(b) 25%

(c) 30%

(d) 35%

3. The cost of production of company B is how many times of company C profit?

(a) 2.5

(b) 3

(c) 3.5

(d) 4

4. Which company has the maximum percentage of profit?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

5. What is the average profit of all the companies?

(a) 50,000

(b) 60,000

(c) 70,000

(d) 80,000

Answers

1. The profit of B is 50,000 and D is 75,000 therefore the ratio is 2:3.

2. The profit of C is 1,00,000 which is 25% of E's cost of production which is 4,00,000.

3. The cost of B is 3,50,000 which 3.5 times the profit of C's profit which is 50,000.

4. The company C has a 40% profit.

5. The total profit of all the companies are 75,000+50,000+1,00,000+75,000+1,00,000 = 4,00,000, therefore the average will be (4,00,000)/5= 80,000.

Exercise

Directions: (Q. 1 to 4). A survey on movie going habits of city dwellers from 5 cities A, B, C, D and E is given below. The first column gives the percentage of viewers in each city who watch less than two movies a week. The second column gives the total number of viewers who view two or more movies per week. Study the table and answer questions no. 1 to 4.

1. How many viewers in city C watches less than two movies a week?

(a) 2040

(b) 13600

(c) 16000

(d) 3600

2. The city with the lowest number of movie watchers is (a) E

(b) D

(c) B

(d) C

3. The highest number of movie watchers in any given city (in the survey) is

(a) 36000

(b) 32000

(c) 6000

(d) 16000

4. Which two cities have the same number of movie watchers? (a) C and E

(b) C and D

(c) A and B

(d) D and A

City I II A 60 2400 B 20 3000 C 85 2400 D 55 2700 E 75 8000

Directions: (Questions No. 5 to 10). The following bar graph shoes the production of fertilizers (in lakh tones) by a company in six consecutive years. Study the graph and answer questions no. 5 to 10.

5. The difference of the average production of fertilizers in the first three years and the average production in the last three years (in lakh tones) is

(a) 16 23

(b) 15

(c) 10

(d) 8

6. The ratio of the total production of fertilizers in the years 2004, 2006 and 2009 to the total production in the remaining three years is

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2

(c) 2 : 3

(d) 3 : 4

7. The total production of fertilizers in the years 04 and 07 is x% of the total production in the years 07 and 08. Then x is equal to

(a) 70

(b) 80

(c) 90

(d) 95

8. The year in which the production of fertilizers is nearest to the average production of all the six years, is

(a) 2004

(b) 2005

(c) 2006

(d) 2007

9. Percentage increase in production of fertilizers for a year with respect to its previous year was maximum in the year

(a) 2009

(b) 2008

(c) 2005

(d) 2006

10. Percentage increase in production of fertilizers for a year with respect to its previous year was minimum in the year

(a) 2005

(b) 2006

(c) 2008

(d) 2009

Answers

1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (d)

REASONING

ANALOGY

It is a similarity or comparability between like features of two things on which a comparison may be based. In these types of questions a series of numbers or alphabetical letters or combinations of both are given. The candidate is required to study the pattern and either to complete the given series with the suitable term or to find the wrong term in the series.

Example: Command: Order::Confusion:? (BANK P.O.2000)

(a) Discipline

(b) Clarity

(c) Chaos

(d) Problem

Answer: (c) The words in both the pairs are synonymous of each other.

Exercise

1. Australia : Canberra :: Japan : ?

(a) Osaka

(b) Tokyo

(c) Hiroshima

(d) Kyoto

2. Assam : Dispur :: Uttar Pradesh : ?

(a) luck now

(b) Ghaziabad

(c) Kanpur

(d) Allahabad

3. Kuwait: Dinar :: UK : ?

(a) Dollar

(b) Pound

(c) Won

(d) Yen

4. Thermometer: Temperature:: Hygrometer : ?

(a) Humidity

(b) Current

(c) Wind

(d) Thickness

5. Energy : Joule :: Resistance : ?

(a) Candela

(b) Watt

(c) ampere

(d) Ohm

6. Cattle: Herd :: Bees : ?

(a) Bunch

(b) Team

(c) Swarm

(d) Caravan

7. Cow: Calf :: Beer : ?

(a) Cub

(b) Chick

(c) Fawn

(d) Cygnet

8. Horse: Mare :: ? : Filly

(a) Drone

(b) Colt

(c) Fox

(d) Stag

9. Bird : Fly :: ? : Waddle

(a) Owl

(b) Cock

(c) Duck

(d) Eagle

10. Frog : Croak :: ? : Grunt

(a) Donkey

(b) Bells

(c) Camel

(d) Elephant

11. Reptile : Lizard :: ? : Frog

(a) Ostrich

(b) Butterfly

(c) Rat

(d) Frog

12. Car : Garage :: ? : Hangar

(a) Grains

(b) Clothes

(c) Aero plane

(d) Guns

13. Blacksmith : Anvil :: ? : ?

(a) Mason : Plumb line

(b) Tailor : Knife

(c) Soldier : Axe

(d) Carpenter : Saw

14. 3 : 5 :: 17 : ?

(a) 21

(b) 23

(c) 19

(d) 25

15. 25 : 7 :: 64 : ?

(a) 8

(b) 10

(c) 12

(d) 9

16. 4 : 72 :: 3 : ?

(a) 27

(b) 33

(c) 36

(d) 42

17. 36 : 64 :: 49 : ?

(a) 36

(b) 49

(c) 64

(d) 81

18. D : 64 :: G : ?

(a) 64

(b) 125

(c) 216

(d) 343

19. DF : 64216

:: CE : ?

(a) 27125

(b) 64125

(c) 27216

(d) 64216

20. ADE : FGJ :: KNO : ?

(a) PQR

(b) PQT

(c) RQP

(d) TPR

Answers

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (d)

12. (c)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (b)

16. (b)

17. (d)

18. (d)

19. (a)

20. (b)

Solution and Explanation

1. (b) : Country : Capital.

2. (a) : State : Capital

3. (b) : Country : Currency

4. (a) : Instrument : Measurement

5. (d) : Quantity : Unit

6. (c) : Individual : Group

7. (a) : Animal : Their young one

8. (b) : Male : Female

9. (c) : Animal : Their Movement

10. (c) : Animal : Sound

11. (d) : Individual : Class

12. (c) : Things : Keeping Place

13. (a) : Worker : Tool

14. (c) ; Two consecutive prime numbers.

15. (b) : x2 : (x + 2)

16. (b) : x : (x3 + 2x)

17. (d) : x2 : (x +2)2

18. (d) : G is the 7th letter in English alphabet and 73 = 343.

19. (a) : C and E is the 3rd and 5th letters of English alphabet. Therefore 33

53.

20. (b) : Five places are added in the first and third letter and three places are added in the second letter.

CLASSIFICATION

‘Classification’ means to list the items of a given group on the basis of certain quality and then choose the stranger out. It is one of the important chapters of General Mental Ability Segment of Reasoning. In these types of Questions the candidate is required to choose one item which does not fit into the group of similar items.

Example: (a) Write (b) Read (c) Knowledge (d) Learn (e) Study (S.B.I.P.O. 2005)

Answer: All others are resorted to by one to acquire knowledge

Exercise

1. (Bank P.O. 2004)

(a) 17

(b) 27

(c) 29

(d) 37

(e) 59

2.

(a) 24

(b) 35

(c) 48

(d) 64

3.

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 15

(d) 16

4.

(a) 21-49

(b) 24-64

(c) 25-54

(d) 27-81

5.

(a) 23-28

(b) 34-36

(c) 56-59

(d) 59-49

6.

(a) 13-31

(b) 36-63

(c) 52-25

(d) 53-25

7.

(a) 4-17

(b) 6-37

(c) 8-65

(d) 7-48

8.

(a) Medium

(b) Average

(c) Terrible

(d) Mediocre

9.

(a) Goat

(b) Puppy

(c) Cow

(d) Buffalo

10.

(a) Cement

(b) Oil

(c) Paste

(d) Glue

11.

(a) Hat

(b) Basket

(c) Purse

(d) Bag

12.

(a) Cotton

(b) Corn

(c) Wheat

(d) Millet

13.

(a) Arc

(b) Tangent

(c) Radius

(d) Diagonal

14.

(a) Valley

(b) Sea

(c) Tower

(d) Mountain

15.

(a) Father

(b) Mother

(c) Cousin

(d) Aunt

16.

(a) H

(b) Q

(c) T

(d) Z

17.

(a) VRT

(b) RMP

(c) YUW

(d) FBD

18.

(a) APBQ

(b) CRDT

(c) EUFV

(d) GWHX

19.

(a) OUST

(b) PIGS

(c) TEPJ

(d) XLPA

20.

(a) CXGT

(b) EVBY

(c) DXEY

(d) AZDW

Answers

1. (b)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (d)

8. (c)

9. (b)

10. (b)

11. (a)

12. (a)

13. (d)

14. (c)

15. (c)

16. (b)

17. (b)

18. (b)

19. (a)

20. (c)

Solution and Explanation

1. (b) Each of the numbers except 27, is a prime number.

2. (d) Each of the numbers except 64 are in the form of (x2 – 1).

3. (b) Each of the numbers except 11 are composite numbers.

4. (c) In all other numbers, the second number is the square of one-third of the first number.

5. (d) In all other numbers, the difference is a prime number.

6. (d) In all other numbers, the digits are reversed.

7. (d) In all other numbers, the second number is (1 + the square of first number).

8. (c) All except terrible, are synonyms.

9. (b) Puppy is only the young one of an animal and rest are the names of animals.

10. (b) All except oil, are used to join something.

11. (a) All except hat, are used to put something.

12. (a) All except cotton, are used as food material.

13. (d) All except diagonal, are related to circle.

14. (c) All except tower, are natural structure.

15. (c) All except cousin, are in the same generation.

16. (b) All except Q, occupy even places in the English alphabet.

17. (b) In all other groups the second, the third and the first letters are alternate letters in the English alphabet.

18. (b) In all other, the first and the third as well as the second and the forth are consecutive letters in the English alphabet.

SERIES

In these types of questions series of numbers, series of alphabetical letters and the combination of alphabets and letters follow a certain pattern. They are arranged in a particular manner and each term is related to the earlier and the following term in a particular way. The candidate is required to identify the pattern followed in the series and then fill in the space with suitable alternatives or to find out the wrong term in the series.

There are some important types of series:

Number Series

Alphabet Series

Alpha-Numeric Series

Exercise

1. 6, 11, 18, 27, 38, ?

(a) 49

(b) 50

(c) 51

(d) 52

2. 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?.

(a) 210

(b) 220

(c) 230

(d) 240

3. 1, 3, 3, 6, 7, 9, ?, 12, 21.

(a) 10

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13

4. 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ?.

(a) 100

(b) 121

(c) 144

(d) 169

5. 121, 225, 361, 529, ?.

(a) 729

(b) 625

(c) 841

(d) 961

6. 1.5, 2.5, 5.5, 14.5, ?

(a) 30.5

(b) 40.5

(c) 41.5

(d) 50.5

7. 3, 6, 18, 72, ?

(a) 216

(b) 288

(c) 360

(d) 432

8. 6, 13, 28, ?

(a) 56

(b) 57

(c) 58

(d) 59

9. 3, 12, 27, 48, 75, 108, ?

(a) 144

(b) 147

(c) 150

(d) 153

10. 4, 23, 60, 121, 212, ?

(a) 339

(b) 343

(c) 361

(d) 324

11. U, O, I, ?, A

(a) C

(b) E

(c) G

(d) S

12. Z, X, V, T, R, ?, ?

(a) O, M

(b) Q, O

(c) P, N

(d) N, L

13. R, M, ?, F, D, ?

(a) I, C

(b) H, C

(c) J, B

(d) I, B

14. AZ, CX, FU, ?

(a) IR

(b) HS

(c) KP

(d) JQ

15. BF, CH, ?, HO, LT

(a) EL

(b) EK

(c) EM

(d) FJ

16. CE, GI, KM, OQ, ?

(a) SU

(b) RT

(c) TV

(d) UW

17. JE, LH, OL, SQ, ?

(a) WX

(b) VW

(c) VX

(d) XW

18. B, E, D, F, ?, H, J, ?, L

(a) I, N

(b) J, M

(c) I, M

(d) J, N

19. EAC, GCE, IEG, ?

(a) JHI

(b) JGI

(c) KGI

(d) KHI

20. CAT, FDW, IGZ, ?

(a) KJA

(b) KTC

(c) LHD

(d) LJC

21. _ _ a b a _ _ b a _a b

(a) a b b b a

(b) a b b a b

(c) b a a b b

(d) b b a b a

22. _ b a a _ a a b _ a _ a

(a) a a b b

(b) a a b a

(c) a b a b

(d) b a a b

Answers

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (b)

5. (a)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (a)

11. (b)

12. (c)

13. (a)

14. (d)

15. (b)

16. (a)

17. (d)

18. (c)

19. (c)

20. (d)

21. (b)

22. (c)

Solution and Explanation

1. (c) The series is +5, +7, +9……

2. (a) The series is (13 – 1), (23 – 2), (33 – 3), (43 – 4)……….

3. (d) The two different series are +2, +4, +6, +8…. And 3, 6, 9, 12, ……….

4. (b) The series is 12, 32, 52, 72, ……….

5. (a) The series is 112, 152, 192, 232, …….

6. (c) The series is +1, +3, +9, +27 …

7. (c) The series is ×2, ×3, ×4, ×5 ……..

8. (d) The series is (×2 + 1), (×2 + 2), (×2 + 3) ……….

9. (b) The series is +9, +15, +21, +27, + 33, +39 …….

10. (a) The series is (23 – 4), (33 – 4), (43 – 4), (53 – 4) ………..

11. (b) It is the reverse order of vowels in the English alphabet.

12. (c) The series is the alternate reverse letters in the English alphabet.

13. (a) The series is R – 5 = M – 4 = I – 3 = F – 2 = D – 1.

14. (d) The first place is in the series is A + 2 = C + 3 = F + 4 = J and at the second place, the letter is the opposite letter in the English alphabet.

15. (b) The first letter is +1, +2, +3, ….. and the second +2, +3, +4, ……

16. (a) The first and the second letters are in the series as +4, +4, +4, …….

17. (d) The first letter is +2, +3, +4, ……. And the second letter is +3, +4, +5, +6, ……..

18. (c) It is a combined series of B, F, J, … , E, I, M, …. And D, H, L… Every terms are added by 4.

19. (c) The letters at the first place, the second place and the third place is added by two in the next term.

CODING - DECODING

A CODE is a system of conveying a message through signals. It is a method of transmitting a message between sender and the receiver in such a way that only the sender and receiver can understand its meaning. 'Coding' is done according a certain pattern in the mind of the sender.

Decoding is the reverse process, converting these code symbols back into information understandable by a receiver.

Exercise

1. If in a certain language, PAPER is written as OZODQ. Which word would be written as RZKD?

(a) SEAL

(b) SALE

(c) SELL

(d) SKIP

2. If in a certain language, MANIPULATION is written as NOITALUPINAM. Which word would be written as ERUTCURTS?

(a) STRUCTURE

(b) FRACTURE

(c) MANUFECTURE

(d) LECTURE

3. If in a certain language, TRIANGLE is written as SSHBMHKF. In the same language, COUNTRY is written as:

(a) BPVOSSX

(b) DNVMUQZ

(c) BPTOSSX

(d) DNVNVQ

4. In a certain language, TRY is coded as ABC and SHAPE is coded as DEFGH. How will THREE be coded in the same language?

(a) ABEHH

(b) BAEFH

(c) AECHF

(d) AEBHH

5. In a certain code language, ANGLE is coded as IJKMN and STRIKE is coded as OPQRSN. How will TRIANGLE be coded in the same language?

(a) PQRQJJMN

(b) PQMNROJJ

(c) POMNROJJ

(d) PQRIJKMN

6. In a certain code language, BRAIN is coded as ZYXWV and CREATE is coded as UYTXST. How will CERTAIN be written in the same language?

(a) UTYSXWV

(b) UTYSVWX

(c) UTYSXVW

(d) UTYVWXS

7. If in a certain code language, TEACHER is coded as KLMNLP. How will EARTH be coded in the same language?

(a) lmpok

(b) lmpko

(c) lmkop

(d) lmokp

8. If OUGHT is coded as ABCDE in a certain language. How will TOUGH be coded in the same language?

(a) ABCDE

(b) BCDEA

(c) CDEAB

(d) EABCD

9. If BITER is coded as KLMNO in a certain language. How will TRIBE be coded in the same language?

(a) MOLNK

(b) MOLKN

(c) MOKLN

(d) MOKNL

10. If GROWN is coded as ABCDE in a certain code language. How will WRONG be coded in the same language?

(a) DBACE

(b) DBAEC

(c) DBCAE

(d) DBCEA

11. If F = 6, CAT = 24, then WORD = ?

(a) 59

(b) 60

(c) 61

(d) 62

12. If DOG is coded as 4157 then how will BLUE be coded?

(a) 212215

(b) 213215

(c) 212125

(d) 212521

13. If EDUCATION is coded as 2F5D1V34P, then how will EQUAL be coded?

(a) 2R15M

(b) 2RM15

(c) 2R51M

(d) 2R5M1

14. If N = 16, FAN = 27, then FRANCE = ?

(a) 56

(b) 57

(c) 58

(d) 59

Answers

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (d)

11. (b)

12. (a)

13. (c)

14. (c)

Solution and Explanation

1. (b) all the letters have been decreased by one in the code according to the English alphabet.

2. (a) The letters are written in the reversed order.

3. (c) In the code, the letters at odd places is decreased by one and the letters at even places is increased by one according to the English alphabet.

4. (d) Here, the code for T = A, R = B, Y = C, S = D, H = E, A = F, P = G, and E = H. therefore the code for THREE is AEBHH.

5. (d) Here, the code for A = I, N = J, G = K, L = M, E = N, S = O, T = P, R = Q, I = R and K = S. Therefore the code for TRIANGLE is PQRIJKMN.

6. (a) Here, the code for B = Z, R = Y, A = X, I = W, N = V, C = U and T = S. Therefore the code for CERTAIN is UTYSXWV.

7. (b) Here, the code for T = K, E = I, A = m, C = n, H = o and R = p. Therefore the code for EARTH is Implo

11. (b) Here, F = 6, CAT = 3 + 1 + 20 = 24. Therefore, WORD = 23 + 15 + 18 + 4 = 60.

14. (d) Here, N =(14 + 2), FAN = (6 + 2) +(1 + 2) + (14 + 2),

Therefore, FRANCE = (6 + 2) + (18 + 2) + (1 + 2) + (14 + 2) + (3 + 2) + (5 + 2) = 59.

PUZZLE TEST

In this segment questions are framed in the form of puzzles. These puzzles involves certain number of items, things etc. The candidate is required to analyze the given information to find the suitable answer of that particular situation.

There are some important types of Questions based on Puzzle test:

1. Seating Arrangements

2. Questions based on Classification

3. Problems based on family

4. Questions based on comparison

5. Sequential order of things

Example:

1. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. P’s son is S’s brother. How is Q related to R?

Answer: In the question P’s son is S’s brother means P is the father of S and similarly P is the father of R because S and R are sisters. Therefore Q is the uncle of R. because Q is the father’s brother of R.

2. There are five friends - Satish, Kishore, Mohan, Anil and Rajesh. Mohan is the tallest. Satish is shorter than Kishore but taller than Rajesh. Anil is little shorter than Kishore but little taller than Satish. Who is taller than Rajesh but shorter than Anil?

Answer: It is given that Kishore>Satish>Rajesh and Kishore>Anil>Satish. It means the sequence of height is Mohan>Kishore>Anil>Satish> Rajesh. Therefore, the taller than Rajesh but shorter than Anil is Satish. Therefore Satish is taller than Rajesh but shorter than Anil

Exercise

1. A and B are brothers. C and D are sisters. A’s father is the husband of C. How is D related

to B?

(a) Mother

(b) Sister

(c) Grandmother

(d) Aunt

2. A is the son of B. C is the mother of D. A and D are brothers. E is the brother of C. How is E related to A?

(a) Brother

(b) Uncle

(c) Grandfather

(d) None of these

3. K is the mother of L. M is the daughter of N. L is the brother of M. P is the father of N. How is P related to L?

(a) Brother

(b) Uncle

(c) Grandfather

(d) None of these

4. A is the mother of B. C is the son of D. B is the father of C. How is C related to A?

(a) Brother

(b) Son

(c) Grandson

(d) None of these

5. In a joint family, there are is a father, a mother, 3 married sons and one unmarried daughter. Of the sons, two have 2 daughters each, and one has a son. How many female members are there in the family?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 6

(d) 9

6. There are five friends – A, B, C, D and E. C is the shortest. A is shorter than B but taller than E. D is little shorter than B but taller than A. Who is taller than C but shorter than A?

(a) E

(b) D

(c) B

(d) None of these

7. There are six friends – K, L, M, N, P and R. L is shorter than K but taller than R. P is taller than K but shorter than M. None of them is shorter than N. Who is the tallest?

(a) K

(b) M

(c) P

(d) L

8. A, B, C, D and E are standing in a line facing north. E is standing 40 meters left to B. A is standing 20 meters left to C. D is standing 20 meters right to E and 50 meters right to C. What is the distance between A and D?

(a) 50 meters

(b) 60 meters

(c) 70 meters

(d) 80 meters

9. A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A is second to the right of F. D or E is not an immediate neighbor of F. E is sitting in front of C. Who is sitting between E and A?

(a) D

(b) C

(c) B

(d) F

10. On the basis of the given information in the Question no. 9, who are the immediate neighbors of A?

(a) BD

(b) CD

(c) FC

(d) EF

11. On the basis of the given information in the Question no. 9, who are not sitting together?

(a) AD

(b) CF

(c) DE

(d) BC

12. On the basis of the given information in the Question no. 9, who among following are sitting opposite to each other?

(a) AB

(b) CD

(c) EF

(d) BD

13. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted red, green and black on pairs of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only three faces painted?

(a) 4

(b) 8

(c) 12

(d) 16

14. A solid cube of 5 inches has been painted red, green and black on pairs of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only two faces painted?

(a) 12

(b) 16

(c) 36

(d) 64

15. A solid cube of 3 inches has been painted red, green and black on pairs of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have only one faces painted?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

16. A solid cube of 6 inches has been painted red, green and black on pairs of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have no faces painted?

(a) 0

(b) 30

(c) 36

(d) 64

17. A solid cube of 4 inches has been painted red, green and black on pairs of opposite faces. It has been cut into one inch cubes. How many cubes have four and more faces painted?

(a) 0

(b) 36

(c) 64

(d) 216

18. From the given alternatives select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.

(a) COLLABORATION

(b) ACTION

(c) BILL

(d) BORN

(e) CRITERION

19. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.

E F N R A C

1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 136452

(b) 245361

(c) 415623

(d) 645312

20. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

(a) CLASSIFICATION

(b) CASH

(c) SIGN

(d) FICTION

(e) SECTION

21. From the given alternatives select the word which can be formed using the letters of the given word.

(a) ACCELERATION

(b) COLLECT

(c) ACTION

(d) CORRECTION

(e) None of these

22. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.

M N R K D E A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7

(a) 5621734

(b) 6431275

(c) 4327651

(d) 3756421

23. A group of alphabets are given with each being assigned a number. These have to be unscrambled into a meaningful word and correct order of letters may be indicated from the given responses.

A Z I B L R

1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 513246

(b) 214365

(c) 461235

(d) 612354

Answers

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (a)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (a)

13. (b)

14. (c)

15. (a)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (c)

21. (b)

22. (a)

23. (c)

MATHEMATICAL PUZZLES

Mathematical puzzles are the major ingredients of recreational mathematics. Mathematical Puzzles require basic knowledge of Mathematics.

Types of the questions based on Mathematical Puzzles are:

1. Arrangement of correct mathematical operations.

2. Filling the correct mathematical operations.

3. Mathematical-Logical problems

The correct sequence of solving mathematical problems is known as “BODMAS Rule” .

‘BODMAS’ Rule: This Rule shows the correct sequence of all the operations that are to be executed to find out the value of a given expression. In this rule ‘B’ Stands for ‘Bracket’, ‘O’ stands for ‘of’, ‘D’ for ‘Division’, ‘M’ for ‘Multiplication’, ‘A’ for ‘Addition’ and ‘S’ for ‘Subtraction’.

Therefore, the correct order to simplify an expression is:

(i) ( )

(ii) {}

(iii) []

(iv) of

(v) Division

(vi) Multiplication

(vii) Addition

(viii) Subtraction

Exercise

1. Which interchange of signs will make the following equation correct?

25 − 5 + 32 ÷ 4 × 6 = 13.

(a) and ÷

(b) × and ÷

(c) – and +

(d) × and –

2. Which interchange of signs will make the following equation correct?

2 × 3 – 5 + 5 ÷ 5 = 10.

(a) and ÷

(b) + and ÷

(c) and +

(d) × and –

3. Which interchange of signs will make the following equation correct?

5 − 36 × 6 ÷ 2 + 20 = 13.

(a) and ÷

(b) × and ÷

(c) –and +

(d) × and –

4. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

5 * 5 * 3 * 4 * 64 * 4.

(a) ÷ × − = +

(b) × − = + ÷

(c) + × − = ÷

(d) × − = ÷ +

5. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

6 * 8 * 2 * 4 * 3 * 2.

(a) ÷ × − = +

(b) × − = + ÷

(c) + × − = ÷

(d) - ÷ + = ×

6. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace the * signs and to balance the given equation.

9 * 3 * 4 * 2 * 7 * 3

(a) ÷ × − = +

(b) × − = + ÷

(c) + × − = ÷

(d) - ÷ + = ×

7. Some equations are solved on the basis of certain system on the same basis find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

1 × 2 × 5 = 125, 2 × 1 × 6 = 216,

3 × 4 × 3 = ?

(a) 125

(b) 216

(c) 512

(d) 343

8. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system on the same basis find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

3 × 2 × 5 = 235, 2 × 4 × 6 = 426,

3 × 4 × 3 = ?

(a) 433

(b) 36

(c) 192

(d) 243

9. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system on the same basis find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

5 × 2 × 7 = 725, 6 × 4 × 8 = 846,

4 × 5 × 6 = ?

(a) 120

(b) 125

(c) 654

(d) 841

10. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system on the same basis find out the correct answer for the unsolved equation.

2 × 4 × 8 = 824, 1 × 3 × 9 = 913,

3 × 5 × 7 = ?

(a) 105

(b) 735

(c) 343

(d) 729

11. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 3

(b) 5

(c) 7

(d) 9

12. Select the missing number from the given responses.

4 3 3

5 4 5

6 5 7

50 32 ?

7 4 5

6 ? 4

5 2 3

18 13 12

(a) 15

(b) 50

(c) 56

(d) 105

13. Select the missing number from the given responses.

3 2 5

5 4 4

6 5 3

4 3 6

38 22 ?

(a) 18

(b) 38

(c) 42

(d) 39

14. Select the missing number from the given responses

(a) 12

(b) 16

3 2 3

4 4 5

5 6 7

60 ? 105

(c) 26

(d) 48

15. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 87

(b) 72

(c) 27

(d) 22

16. Select the missing number from the given responses.

(a) 28

(b) 64

(c) 72

(d) 48

17. Select the missing number from the given responses.

2 3 4

5 4 3

6 2 6

31 66 ?

6 4 8 2

25 36 16 49

5 3 4 1

25 12 ? 7

3 6 9 12

4 5 3 2

7 2 4 4

28 50 ? 64

(a) 108

(b) 36

(c) 54

(d) 16

Answers

1. (a)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (d)

8. (a)

9. ( c)

10. (b)

11. ( c)

12. (b)

13. (d)

14. (d)

15. (a)

16. (b)

17. (a)

Solution and Explanation

7. The numbers are placed in the same order. Therefore the required number is 343.

8. (a) The first and second numbers are interchanged and place. Therefore the required number is 433.

9. (c) The numbers are written in the reversed order. Therefore the required number is 654.

10. (b) The last number has been placed at first place, the first at the second place and the second at the third place. Therefore the required number is 735.

11. (c) The sum of the first three numbers in each column is equal to the forth number in the same column.

12. (b) In each column (1st no. + 3rd no.) × 2nd no. = 4th no.

13. (d) In each column (1st × 3rd) + (2nd × 4th) = 5th.

14. (d) In each column (1st × 2nd × 3rd) = 4th.

15. (a) In each column (2nd1st + 3rd) = 4th.

16. (b) In each column { (2nd)12×1st × 3rd} = 4th

DIRECTION SENSE TEST

In these types of questions a successive follow –up of different directions is formulated then a candidate is required to find out the final direction or the distance between two points.

Following figure shows the four main directions and four cardinal directions to help the candidates:

N

NW NE

W E

SW S SE

(Here, N = North, NE = North-East, E = East, SE = South-East, S = South, SW = South-West,

W = West, NW = North-West)

Example: Prakash, Ram, Mohan and Sanjay are playing a game of Carrom, Prakash, Mohan and Sanjay, Ram are partners. Sanjay is to the right of Mohan who is facing west. Then Ram is facing

(a) East

(b) West

(c) North

(d) South

Solution: This problem is based on Direction Sense

Step I: We can represent the four directions East, West, North, and South in the following manner

North

West East

South

Step II:

Sanjay (North)

Mohan (East)

Step III:

Sanjay (North)

Prakash (West) Mohan (East)

Ram (South)

Thus, Ram is facing towards north.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Example: If a person is going to the east of his home and turning to his left after that turning to his right. His final position

We can draw his path as;

His Home

Exercise

1. A starts walking towards East, turns right, again turns right, turns left, again turns left, turns left, again turns left. In which direction is A walking now?

(a) East

(b) West

(c) North

(d) South

2. Kunal starts walking towards West, turns right, again turns right, turns left, turns right, again turns right, turns left. In which direction is Kunal walking now?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) East

(d) West

3. Ankit starts walking towards South, returns back, turns left, again turns left, turns right, again turns right, turns left. In which direction is Ankit walking now?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) East

(d) West

4. Iqbal starts walking towards North-East, turns right, again turns right, turns left, turns right, turns left, again turns left. In which direction is Iqbal walking now?

(a) North-East

(b) North-West

(c) South-East

(d) South-West

5. Ram starts walking towards South-West, turns left, again turns left, turns right, turns left, again turns left, and turns right. In which direction is Ram walking now?

(a) North-East

(b) North-West

(c) South-East

(d) South-West

6. Ramesh walked 6 km east of his house and then turned to north covering 8 km. Finally he moved 6 km towards West and then 2 km to the south. How far is he from his initial place?

(a) 8 km

(b) 6 km

(c) 4 km

(d) 2 km

7. Suresh walked 5 km north of his house and then turned to east covering 7 km. Finally he moved 5 km towards south and then 15 km to the west. How far is he from his initial place?

(a) 15 km

(b) 8 km

(c) 7 km

(d) 5 km

8. Manoj walked 10 km west of his house and then turned to north covering 15 km. Finally he moved 10 km towards east and then 25 km to the south. How far is he from his initial place?

(a) 10 km

(b) 15 km

(c) 20 km

(d) 25 km

9. Rajesh drives his car 20 km to north-west, then takes left turn and drives 10 km. He again turns to his left and drives 20 km and takes right turn and drives 15 km. How many km is Rajesh away from his starting place?

(a) 10 km

(b) 15 km

(c) 20 km

(d) 25km

10. Vikas drives his car 12 km to north-east, then takes right turn and drives 15 km. He again turns to his right and drives 12 km and takes another right turn and dives 25 km. How many km is Vikas away from his starting point?

(a) 10 km

(b) 12 km

(c) 15 km

(d) 25 km

Answers

1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (a)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (a)

Solution and Explanation

1. The diagram of A’s walk;

A

4. (a) The diagram of Iqbal’s walk;

Iqbal’s initial position

6. (b)

2 km 6 km

The final position of Ramesh

8 km

Initial position of Ramesh

6 km

10. (a)

Final position of Vikas

12 km 15 km

25 km 12 km

Initial Position of Vikas

SYLLOGISM

A syllogism is a kind of logical argument in which one conclusion is inferred from two or more other premises of a specific form. The literal meaning of syllogism is ‘Conclusion’ or ‘inference’. The questions based on the syllogism are in the form of statements (premises) followed by Conclusion (proposition). The Candidate is required to find the correct conclusion on the basis of the given statements.

The general form of statements and conclusions in the syllogism is:

All As are Bs.

Some As are Bs.

No A is a B.

The graphical representation of the statements

1. All As are Bs.

2. Some As are Bs.

3. No A is a B.

Exercise

Direction (Q. 1 – 10): In each questions below there are two/three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. Assuming both the statements true, you have to decide which of the two conclusions logically follows the statements. Give your answer

a. If only conclusion I follows.

b. If only conclusion II follows.

c. If either conclusion I or conclusion II follows.

d. If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows.

e. If both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.

1. Statements: Some pens are pencils.

Some pencils are books.

Conclusions: I. Some pens are books.

II. All books are pens.

2. Statements: All bottles are bags.

All bags are buses.

Conclusions: I. Some bags are bottles.

II. All bags are bottles.

3. Statements: All pens are pencils.

No pencil is a book.

Conclusions: I. Some books are pens.

II. Some pencils are pens.

4. Statements: Some cups are plates.

No plates are bottle.

Conclusions: I. Some bottles are cups

II. No bottle is a cup.

5. Statements: All cups are plates.

All Plates are bottles.

Conclusions: I. Some bottles are cups.

II. Some plates are bottles.

6. Statements: No plane is a river.

No river is a mountain.

Conclusions: I. Some mountains are planes.

II. No mountain is a plane.

7. Statements: No plane is a river.

All rivers are mountains.

All planes are cities.

Conclusions: I. No plane is a mountain.

II. Some rivers are cities.

8. Statements: Some planes are rivers.

Some rivers are mountains.

Some mountains are cities.

Conclusions: I. Some planes are mountains.

II. Some rivers are cities.

9. Statements: All planes are rivers.

All rivers are mountains.

No mountain is a city.

Conclusions: I. Some cities are rivers.

II Some mountains are planes.

10. Statements: Some planes are rivers.

Some rivers are mountains.

No mountain is a city.

Conclusions: I. Some cities are planes.

II. No city is a plane.

11. Statement: Some planes are rivers.

No river is a mountain.

No mountain is a city.

Conclusion: I. Some cities are rivers.

II. No city is a river.

Answers

1. (D)

2. (A)

3. (B)

4. (C)

5. (E)

6. (C)

7. (D)

8. (D)

9. (B)

10. (C)

11. (C)

Solution and Explanation

1. The diagram;

2. The diagram;

3. The diagram;

4. The diagram;

6. The diagram;

7. The diagram can be;

10. The diagram;

ABSTRACT REASONING

In Abstract Reasoning, abstract refers to something that is not concrete and reasoning is defined as judgments made on the basic of some logic. This is a process of reaching conclusions through the use of Symbols rather than concrete factual information

The questions from this section can be of the following types;

1. Pictorial pattern based questions.

2. Embedded figure questions.

3. Mirror Image questions.

4. Paper Cutting problems.

5. Relationship based problems.

Example: Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure:

Answer figures:

Answer: (D) will complete the pattern.

Exercise

1. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

2. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

3. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

4. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

5. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

6. Which answer figure will complete the pattern in the question figure?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

7. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is held on the line PQ?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

8. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is held on the right? (RRB 2006)

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

9. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is held on the line MN?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

10. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is held on the line M1M2?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

11. Which of the answer figures is exactly the mirror image of the question figure, when the mirror is held on the line M1M2?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded. Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

13. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

14. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

15. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

16. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

17. Select the answer figure in which the question figure is hidden/embedded.

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

18. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

19. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question Figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

20. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figures. From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened?

Question figure:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

21. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Pigeons, Birds and Dogs?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

22. Which one of the following diagrams best depicts the relationship among Delhi, India and Asia?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answers

1. (d)

2. (c)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (c)

12. (a)

13. (d)

14. (c)

15. (b)

16. (b)

17. (d)

18. (a)

19. (b)

20. (b)

21. (a)

22. (d)

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

SYNONYMS

Synonyms: This word comes from ancient Greek words ‘syn’ and ‘onoma’ where ‘syn’ means ‘with’ and ‘onoma’ means ‘name’. Synonyms are the word which has similar meanings.

Two words are said to be synonymous of each other when they have similar meanings. The words caste and class is synonymous because both the words have similar meaning.

Example:

Q. Find the word which synonymous to Deny.

(a) Regain

(b) Refuse

(c) Repair

(d) Reduce

Answer: The synonyms for Deny are Contradict, Refuse, Reject etc. here we have Refuse an option which means the right answer is (b).

Exercise

Directions: In the given questions out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

1. Deposit

(a) Degrade

(b) Dethrone

(c) Place

(d) Removal

2. Depart

(a) Decamp

(b) Divest

(c) Display

(d) Degrade

3. Portion

(a) Gallery

(b) Fragment

(c) Site

(d) Case

4. Exact

(a) True

(b) Pattern

(c) Elusive

(d) Close

5. Indignant

(a) Bend

(b) Faulty

(c) Gratified

(d) Angry

6. Incur

(a) Elude

(b) Enhance

(c) Mount

(d) Acquire

7. Caustic

(a) Acrid

(b) Mild

(c) Cavil

(d) clue

8. Cavity

(a) Cave

(b) Hollow

(c) Class

(d) Origin

9. Charge

(a) Crack

(b) Right

(c) Accuse

(d) Claim

10. Catastrophic

(a) Callous

(b) Dull

(c) Calamitous

(d) Continuous

11. Discretion

(a) Rashness

(b) Careless

(c) Carefulness

(d) Disgrace

12. Imperative

(a) Optional

(b) Authoritative

(c) Elective

(d) Voluntary

13. Opportunity

(a) Chance

(b) Omission

(c) Artisan

(d) Vital

14. Numerate

(a) Compute

(b) Denude

(c) Nudge

(d) Account

15. Noise

(a) Quiet

(b) Blare

(c) Placid

(d) Peaceful

16. Nimble

(a) Clumsy

(b) Lump

(c) Silent

(d) Agile

17. Nerve

(a) Courage

(b) Weakness

(c) Fragile

(d) Lame

18. Notch

(a) Designate

(b) Beck

(c) Cut

(d) Rule

19. Proclaim

(a) Conceal

(b) Cover

(c) Disguise

(d) Announce

20. Profane

(a) Hallow

(b) Debase

(c) Dedicate

(d) Consecrate

Answers

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (c)

10. (c)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (d)

17. (a)

18. (c)

19. (d)

20. (c)

ANTONYMS

Antonyms: This word comes from ancient Greek words ‘anti’ and ‘onoma’ where ‘anti’ means ‘opposite’ and ‘onoma’ means ‘name’. The literal meaning of antonyms is the opposite which means the word which has opposite meaning. For example; Day – Night, Long – Short, Up – Down, Small – Large, etc.

Example:

Q. Find the opposite word Concur.

(a) Disagree

(b) Disappear

(c) Disarrange

(d) Discourage

Answer: The synonyms for Concur are agree, cooperate, combine etc. Therefore the antonym for ‘agree’ is ‘disagree’. Hence right answer is (a).

Exercise

Direction: In the given questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

1. Condensation

(a) Abridgment

(b) Broadening

(c) Compression

(d) Concentration

2. Condemn

(a) Praise

(b) Censure

(c) Disapproval

(d) Doom

3. Encroach

(a) Creep

(b) Infringe

(c) Intrude

(d) Recede

4. Endeavour

(a) Aim

(b) Try

(c) Abandon

(d) Effort

5. Ferocious

(a) Barbarous

(b) Bloody

(c) Brutal

(d) Humane

6. Fastidious

(a) Censorious

(b) Critical

(c) Dainty

(d) Careless

7. Greasy

(a) Lean

(b) Oily

(c) Fatty

(d) Sebaceous

8. Hallow

(a) Consecrate

(b) Desecrate

(c) Dedicate

(d) Devote

9. Harmonize

(a) Accord

(b) Differ

(c) Agree

(d) Cohere

10. Hazard

(a) Adventure

(b) Risk

(c) Secure

(d) Peril

11. Herculean

(a) Athletic

(b) Colossal

(c) Feeble

(d) Strong

12. Hypothesis

(a) Proof

(b) Conjecture

(c) Supposition

(d) Theory

13. Impulsive

(a) Deliberate

(b) Careless

(c) Hasty

(d) Impetuous

14. Incomplete

(a) Absolute

(b) Defective

(c) Faulty

(d) Partial

15. Incurable

(a) Hopeless

(b) Irrecoverable

(c) Remediable

(d) Cureless

16. Judicious

(a) Cautious

(b) Considerate

(c) Cool

(d) Rash

17. Knot

(a) Complication

(b) Simplicity

(c) Difficulty

(d) Entanglement

18. Lament

(a) Complain

(b) Moan

(c) Cry

(d) Rejoice

19. Legend

(a) Caption

(b) Fact

(c) Fiction

(d) Myth

20. Malpractice

(a) Dereliction

(b) Evil

(c) Misbehavior

(d) Right

Answers

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (c)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (b)

10. (c)

11. (c)

12. (a)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (c)

16. (d)

17. (b)

18. (d)

19. (b)

20. (d)

SPOTTING THE ERROR

Spotting errors forms an important part of all the competitive Examinations that have objective questions. These questions requires a proper Knowledge of all the basic rules of Grammar such as noun, pronoun, adjective, adverb, Conjunction, preposition, parts of Speech, tenses, participles etc.

There are certain rules that every student should keep in their mind before attempting the questions from this chapter.

Some Basic Rules

1. There are some nouns that always take singular verb.

Example: Mathematics, Physics, rice, furniture, Stationary, News, advice etc.

(a) Ram has given advices. – (This is incorrect)

Ram has given advice. – (This is correct)

(b) Physics are a difficult subject. – (This is incorrect)

Physics is a difficult Subject. – (This is correct)

(c) Raghav has sold his furnitures. – (This is incorrect)

Raghav has sold many pieces of his furniture. – (This is correct)

2. There are some nouns that are singular in nature but take a plural form and always use a plural verb.

Example: People, Company, Police etc.

(a) People is very crazy. – (This is incorrect)

People are very Crazy – (This is correct)

3. There are some nouns that are used in a plural form and always use a plural verb.

Example: Thanks, Scissors, goods etc.

(a) Her scissors was stolen. – (This is incorrect)

Her scissors were stolen. – (This is correct)

4. There are some nouns like metre, dozen, year etc. They remain unchanged when they preceded by a numeric number.

(a) Raju have five dozens of shoes. – (This is incorrect)

Raju have five dozen of shoes. – (This is correct)

5. There are some common mistakes that students should avoid before attempting the questions.

Incorrect Correct

Cousin-brother or sister Cousin

English teacher Teacher of English

Lecturership Lectureship

Family members Members of the family

6. Always use ‘which’ for lifeless things and ‘whose’ for living things.

(a) Which photo is this? (This is incorrect)

Whose photo is this? (This is correct)

Solved Examples

1. Many people decide / (b) not to buy a car /(c) last Diwali because of / (d) the high price of petrol last year./ (e) No error. (IBPS Clerk, 2011)

The answer is (a) Replace ‘decide’ with ‘decided’.

2. (a) My brother lived at the top / (b) of an old house / (c) which attic had been / (d) converted into a flat./ (e) No error.

The answer is (c) Replace ‘which’ by ‘whose’.

3. (a) The doctors helps / (b) to reducing human suffering / (c) by curing disease / (d) and improving health./ (e) No error. (SBI & Associate Banks, 2011)

The answer is (b) Replace ‘to’ by ‘in’.

4. (a) All companies must / (b) send its annual report to/ (c) its shareholders twenty one days / (d) before the annual general meeting./ (e) No error.

The answer is (a) Use ‘every’ in place of ‘all’.

5. (a) They agreed / (b) to repair the damage / (c) freely of charge / (d)No error.

The answer is (c) Replace ‘freely’ with ‘free’

Exercise

Directions: Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark the last option.

1. The Governing Board/ (b) Comprises of / (c) Several distinguished personalities./ (d) No error

2. (a) Each in the office / (b) including Rajesh / (c) knew who had / (d) made the mistake. / (e) No error.

3. (a) Neither my sister nor my brothers / (b) are interested / (c) in moving to another house / (d) No error.

4. (a) Radha was trying for admission / (b) in the Science College / (c) even though her parents wanted/ her to take up medicine./ (e) No error.

5. (a) The company plans / (b) to hire more workers / (c) as there is many / (d) orders during the festival season./ (e) No error. (IBPS Clerk, 2011)

6. (a) Engineering students can / (b) attend their classes / (c) on weekend and / (d) working during the week. / (e) No error (IBPS Clerk, 2011)

7. (a) You should purchase/ (b) this insurance policy/ (c) as the company/ (d) offers many benefits./ (e) No error.

8. (a) Government and business organizations must reduce/ (b) its own energy use/ (c) and promote conservation/ (d) to their citizens and employees./(e) No error

(SBI Clerk, 2008)

9. (a) Having acquired some experience/(b) she is no longer/ (c) one of those who believes /(d) every explanation she is given./(e) No error

10. (a) With regard to implementation the/ (b) details of the proposal/ (c) the committee was divided/ (d) in its opinion./(e)No error

11. (a) On discovering that / (b) it was a forgery / (c) he torn up the agreement/ (d) he had signed./ (e) No error (SBI Clerk, 2008)

12. (a) To be an effective manager / (b) it is vital to / (c) know the goals and vision / (d) of your organization. / (e) No error

13. (a) He did not have/ (b) even a rupees/ (c) with him/ (d) no error

14. (a) He have/ (b) five children/ (c) he must provide food for them/ (d) no error

15. (a) He has rise/ (b) to eminence from poverty and/ (c) It is highly creditable (d) no error

16. (a) That young man/ (b) did squandered away / (c) all his patrimony/ (d) no error

17. (a) The robber/ (b) take out a knife/ (c) to frighten the old man / (d) no error

18. (a) If he was / (b) guiltied / (c) his punishment was to light/ (d) no error

19. (a) The farmer is cutting/ (b) the corn/ (c) that has ripening (d) no error

20. (a) He tell me that/ (b) he had finished/ (c) he work/ (d) no error

21. (a) The people regarded/ (b) him as an imposter/ (c) and calling him a villain/ (d) no error

22. (a) The legend/ (b) telling us/ (c) how the castle received its name/ (d) no error

Solution and Explanation

1. (b)

2. (a)

3. (d)

4. (c) Use ‘had wanted’ in place of ‘wanted’..

5. (c) Replace ‘is’ with ‘will be’.

6. (d) Replace ‘working’ with ‘work’.

7. (e) No error.

8. (b) Use ‘their’ in place of ‘its’

9. (d) Replace ‘is’ with ‘has’

10. (a) Use ‘implement’ in place of ‘implementation’

11. (c) Replace ‘torn’ with ‘tore’

12. (e) No error

13. (b) Replace ‘ rupees’ with ‘rupee’

14. (a) Use ‘has’ in place of have

15. (a) Replace ‘has rise’ with ‘has risen’

16. (b) Use ‘has’ in place of ‘did ’

17. (d) No error

18. (b) Use ‘guilty’ in place of ‘guiltied’

19. (c) Use ‘has ripened’ in place of ‘has ripening’

20. (a) Use’ told’ in place of ‘tell’

21. (c) Use ‘called’ in place of ‘calling’

22. (b) Use told in place of ‘telling’

SENTENCE COMPLETION

Sentence Completion test is one of the most important chapter to check the vocabulary skills of the candidates. In these types of questions a candidate is required to pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

Examples

1. Since one cannot read every book, one should be content with making a _____ selection.

(a) normal

(b) standard

(c) sample

(d) moderate

(e) judicious

The answer is (e) judicious.

2. Some people _______ themselves into believing that they are indispensable to the organization they work for.

(a) keep

(b) fool

(c) force

(d) denigrate

(e) delude

The answer is (e) delude.

3. There is a lovely _______ of the garden from the window of my room.

(a) picture

(b) view

(c) look

(d) none of these

The answer is (b) view.

4. Even at the risk of economic loss, she ______ refused to take the beaten track.

(a) continuously

(b) repeatedly

(c) often

(d) steadfastly

The answer is (d) steadfastly

Exercise

Directions (Q.1-10): In each of these questions, one sentence is given with one blank space. Pick out the most effective word from the given alternatives to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

1. Parag’s behavior is worthy of _____ by all the youngsters.

(a) exploration

(b) emulation

(c) following

(d) trial

2. I read ‘Magic’ because it was ________ by my friend who said it was very interesting.

(a) exhorted

(b) recommended

(c) commended

(d) motivated

3. You must ______ your career with all seriousness.

(a) guide

(b) manage

(c) complete

(d) pursue

4. Gaurav had to drop his plan of going to market as he had certain _____ to meet during that period.

(a) limitations

(b) observations

(c) transactions

(d) commitments

5. Yash was to reach that afternoon but was _____ up at Gwalior for some personal work.

(a) went

(b) held

(c) delayed

(d) None of these

6. Raghav _____ for their company since 2001.

(a) has been working

(b) had worked

(c) is working

(d) was working

7. Freedom is not a _____ but our birth right.

(a) Farce

(b) Sin

(c) Gift

(d) Illusion

8. How much did it _____ to reach Bombay by Car?

(a) charge

(b) price

(c) cost

(d) estimate

(e) pay

9. We had a _____ of warm weather in January.

(a) time

(b) length

(c) phase

(d) spell

10. Her standard of living has ___ since her daughter joined service.

(a) up

(b) lifted

(c) increased

(d) risen

Directions (Q.11-15): In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence has a blank in it. Five words (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at both the places in the context of each sentence. The number of that word is the answer.

1. (I). I got the grains ____ in the machine. (Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(II). I do not have any _____ for doubting him.

(a) done

(b) basis

(c) ground

(d) crushed

(e) tune

2. (I).We were asked to design a ________ of the dam. (Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(II). This Institute is a ________ of modern thinking.

(a) picture

(b) type

(c) function

(d) fabric

(e) model

3. (I). There is a complaint against her that she _____ the mistakes of his juniors.

(II). A good thing about this house is that it _____ the sea.

(a) promotes

(b) ignores

(c) examines

(d) overlooks

(e) faces

4. (I).Out of the total loans __________ by the bank, the largest share was for Infrastructure.

(II). The trees are __________ throughout the area. (Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(a) disbursed

(b) covered

(c) distributed

(d) spanned

(e) extended

5. (I). She tried her ____ best to score distinction in Mathematics.

(II). It pays to keep _____ head in an emergency.

(a) cool

(b) utmost

(c) very

(d) possible

(e) level

Answers

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (d)

4. (d)

5. (b)

6. (a)

7. (c)

8. (c)

9. (d)

10. (d)

11. (c)

12. (e)

13. (d)

14. (e)

15. (e)

SENTENCES IMPROVEMENT

Sentence improvement is similar to Spotting errors up to certain extent. In this type of questions the candidate is required to examine the error and to find out the correct option from the given alternatives.

Examples

1. Subhash would have been looked smart in traditional clothes.

(a) would be looked

(b) was looked

(c) has looked

(d) would have looked

The correct answer is option (d) would have looked.

2. Since 2009, there is no earthquakes here.

(a) are

(b) was

(c) have been

(d) were being

The correct answer is option (a) have been.

3. Parthav has got many friends because he has got much money.

(a) a lot of money

(b) enough money

(c) huge money

(d) bags of money

(e) no improvement

The correct answer is option (a) a lot of money

4. Will you lend me few rupees in this hour of need? (Section officers, 1993)

(a) borrow me a few rupees

(b) land me any rupees

(c) lend me a few rupees

(d) No improvement

The correct answer is option (c) lend me a few rupees.

Exercise

Directions: In each of the questions given below, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence are given some possible substitutions for the italicized part. The candidate is required to select the better option than the italicized part. If the sentence is correct then mark ‘No improvement’ as your answer.

1. Ram plays cricket and hockey also.

(a) besides

(b) to

(c) too

(d) no improvement

2. Shreya is extraordinarily clever at mimicking her friends.

(a) clever for mimicking

(b) clever mimicking

(c) clever in mimicking

(d) no improvement

3. Sudha enjoys to tell stories to children.

(a) tell story

(b) telling stories

(c) to narrate stories

(d) no improvement

4. To identify potential leaders, look for people who are constantly suggesting new and better ways of doing things. (Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(a) look forward people

(b) search at people

(c) looking at people

(d) people look at them

(e) no correction required

5. Of late, both India and china have been seeing a slowdown in the credit market.

(Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(a) Off late

(b) Of lately

(c) Often late

(d) Of recently

(e) No correction required

6. No other communities have played a greater role in building an “India of tomorrow” than the teaching community. (Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(a) No communities have

(b) Many communities has

(c) No other community has

(d) Have any other community

(e) No correction required

7. Theoretically, positive operating cash flow is considered a indicator of efficiency.

(Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(a) considering indicators

(b) considered a indicators

(c) considered an indicator

(d) indicator considered

(e) no correction required

8. I have realized over times that there is a larger meaning to things happening around us.

(Clerks’ Grade, 2011)

(a) time over

(b) upon time

(c) over the times

(d) over time

(e) no correction required

9. Mrs. Mishra had staying here since 1995 and has made India her home.

(a) will stay

(b) was to stay

(c) has been staying

(d) no correction required

10. A lot depends on your early brought up in the family.

(a) Up bringing

(b) bringing in

(c) bringing up

(d) no improvement

11. All the allegations leveling against him were found to be baseless. (SBI P.O. 1994)

(a) levelled for

(b) level with

(c) level against

(d) no correction

12. Last Sunday I went to the market and bought spectacles.

(a) two spectacles

(b) a pair of spectacles

(c) a spectacle

(d) no correction

13. All work and no play making Ram a dull boy.

(a) makes

(b) had make

(c) was made

(d) no correction

14. A man without the enemy is a man with few friends.

(a) an enemy

(b) a enemy

(c) enemied

(d) no correction

15. This book was contained many holy quotations.

(a) containing

(b) had contains

(c) contains

(d) no correction

16. One of the men gave first aid to Hitesh who is injured in a road accident

(Bank P.O., 1994)

(a) who had injured

(b) who was injured

(c) which was injured

(d) no correction

17. Travelling in a hot dusty weather gives me no pleasure.

(a) to travel

(b) travels

(c) while travelling

(d) no correction

18. The work is many for any man to do single-handed.

(a) too much

(b) more

(c) lots of

(d) no correction

19. People who lived in glass houses should not throw stones.

(a) leaves in

(b) leaved in

(c) live in

(d) no correction

20. When the professor fell off the stool, the students could not avoid to laugh.

(Bank P.O., 1992)

(a) avoid laughing

(b) refrain to laugh

(c) avoid laughter

(d) no correction

Answers

1. (c)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (e)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (c)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (a)

11. (c)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (c)

16. (b)

17. (d)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (a)

ONE WORD SUBSTITUTION

One word substitution is the words that replace a group of words or sentences without creating or changing the exact meaning of sentences. These words generally bring compression in any kind of writing.

There are lots of words in English language that can be used effectively in place of complex sentences or words to make writing to the point without losing the meaning of the context.

Students here are advised to practice using these words in their language to make themselves more clear.

Here, we are providing some previous year questions asked in section one word substitution just to enable the student to have a clear idea about the question asked in competitive examination.

1. One who eats too much

(a) Foodist

(b) glutton

(c) Eater

(d) food loving

Answer: (b) glutton

2. A book published after the death of its author

(a) Posthumous

(b) anonymous

(c) Synonymous

(d) mysterious

Answer: (a) Posthumous

Exercise

Directions: In questions no. 1 to 10, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.

1. The Study of Ancient Societies.

(a) History

(b) Archaeology

(c) Anthropology

(d) Etymology

2. A Practice of having more than one husband.

(a) Polygyny

(b) Polyandry

(c) Polygamy

(d) Polytrophy

3. Things which cannot be read

(a) Illegible

(b) Legible

(c) Negligible

(d) Corrigible

4. Incapable of being seen through

(a) Brittle

(b) Opaque

(c) Ductile

(d) Transparent

5. The Government wing responsible for making Rule

(a) Judiciary

(b) Legislature

(c) Executive

(d) Court

6. A Government by the Nobles

(a) Democracy

(b) Bureaucracy

(c) Aristocracy

(d) Autocracy

7. Things which cannot be believed

(a) Incredible

(b) Inseparable

(c) Annoy able

(d) Vulnerable

8. One which cannot be seen

(a) Opaque

(b) Unseen

(c) Invisible

(d) Irresistible

9. Person who speak many language.

(a) Bilingual

(b) Multilingual

(c) Linguist

(d) Grammar

10. A person who sacrifices his life for a cause.

(a) Soldier

(b) Revolutionary

(c) Martyr

(d) Patriot

Answers

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (c)

9. (b)

10. (c)

SPELLING TEST

Spelling test is basically devised to test the vocabulary power and the candidate ability to write the words with correct spellings.

Question asked is such section generally required to choose the correct spelt word or the misspelt out of the alternatives given.

Practice test material is given below.

1.

(a) Comission

(b) Commisson

(c) Comission

(d) Commission

(e) None of these

Answer: (d)

2.

(a) Liutenent

(b) Lieutanent

(c) Lieutenant

(d) Leiutanent

(e) None of these

Answer: (c)

3.

(a) Accomodate

(b) Acommodate

(c) Accommodate

(d) Accomodatte

(e) None of these

Answer: (c)

4.

(a) Miscevious

(b) Mischieveous

(c) Mischevious

(d) Mischievous

(e) None of these

Answer: (d)

5.

(a) Survilence

(b) Surveliance

(c) Surveillence

(d) Surveillance

(e) None of these

Answer: (d)

Exercise

Directions (Q.1-20) Here groups of four words are given. In each group one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and mark your answer in the Answer sheet.

1.

(a) Cigarette

(b) Cigrete

(c) Cigarete

(d) Cigrette

2.

(a) Histeria

(b) Hystria

(c) Hysteria

(d) Hesteria

3.

(a) Ilegitimate

(b) Illegitimate

(c) Illegetimate

(d) Ilegitemate

4.

(a) Laborer

(b) Laberer

(c) Laburer

(d) Labourer

5.

(a) Medieval

(b) Mediaval

(c) Medivial

(d) Mediveil

6.

(a) Nurishment

(b) Nourishment

(c) Narishment

(d) Nourisment

7.

(a) Opaqe

(b) Opeque

(c) Opaque

(d) Opaqeu

8.

(a) Opportunity

(b) Oppurtunity

(c) Oppurtunity

(d) Opportunety

9.

(a) Pedestrian

(b) Pedistrian

(c) Pedesterian

(d) Pidestrian

10.

(a) Scurplous

(b) Scuruplus

(c) Scrupulous

(d) Scroplous

11.

(a) Upserge

(b) Upsarge

(c) Upsurge

(d) Upsruge

12.

(a) Flouresent

(b) Flourecent

(c) Florescent

(d) Fluorescent

13.

(a) Glamrus

(b) Glamerous

(c) Glamorous

(d) Glamurus

14.

(a) Hygienic

(b) Hiegenic

(c) Hygenic

(d) Hygeinic

15.

(a) Sucessful

(b) Successful

(c) Succesful

(d) Sucesful

16.

(a) Thrashold

(b) Threshold

(c) Thrishold

(d) Thereshold

17.

(a) Etinerary

(b) Intinirary

(c) Itinerary

(d) Itenerary

18.

(a) Siege

(b) Segie

(c) Seige

(d) Sige

19.

(a) Desparte

(b) Desperite

(c) Desperate

(d) Despirate

20.

(a) Humarous

(b) Humurus

(c) Humorous

(d) Humerous

Answers

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (a)

6. (b)

7. (c)

8. (a)

9. (a)

10. (c)

11. (c)

12. (d)

13. (c)

14. (a)

15. (b)

16. (b)

17. (c)

18. (a)

19. (c)

20. (c)

IDIOM & PHRASES

Idioms and phrases refer to commonly used groups of words in English. They are used in specific situations and often used in an idiomatic, rather than a figurative sense. Idioms are often full sentences. Phrases, however, are usually made up of a few words and are used as a grammatical unit in a sentence. It is usually asked in all the competitive exams. Students must practice idiom and phrases in their writing as well as in their speech. It will make them proficient while practicing.

Solved Examples

1. Ram used very ugly words against his kind uncle; he threw down the gauntlet before him. (S.B.I. P.O.)

(a) he abused and insulted him

(b) he threw the challenge

(c) he behaved as if he was a very great and important person

(d) he put several conditions for negotiation

(e) he showed his readiness to leave the place

Answer: (b)

2. He always cuts both ends

(a) Work for both sides

(b) Inflicts injuries on others

(c) Argues in support of both sides of the issue

(d) Behaves dishonestly

(e) Creates discord among friends

Answer: (c)

3. She rejected his proposal of marriage point-blank. (Clerk’ Grade)

(a) Directly

(b) pointedly

(c) Abruptly

(d) Briefly

Answer-(b)

Exercise

Directions: In questions no. 1 to 10, four alternatives are given for the idiom/ phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and mark it in the Answer sheet.

1. To bury the hatchet

(a) to dispute over small things

(b) to destroy

(c) to make peace

(d) to fight

2. Child's Play

(a) a very easy thing

(b) stupid thing

(c) funny thing

(d) a tough thing

3. Hit the nail on the head

(a) to do or say most appropriate thing

(b) to talk rubbish

(c) to do useless work

(d) to hurt one self

4. Take by storm

(a) to make a big impression

(b) to avoid mistake

(c) to work very hard

(d) to waste time

5. The buck stops here

(a) to take responsibility for something

(b) to earn money

(c) to stop for food

(d) to travel abroad

6. A Piece of Cake

(a) A very simple task

(b) A very difficult task

(c) Eating task

(d) An urgent task

7. In hot water

(a) to be in trouble

(b) to be very happy

(c) to enjoy

(d) to bath

8. Out of the way

(a) Familiar

(b) Strange

(c) Identical

(d) Matching

9. Black sheep

(a) good character’s people

(b) bad character’s people

(c) annoying people

(d) unfriendly people

10. take into account

(a) reject something

(b) consider something

(c) decline something

(d) to throw something

Answers

1. (c)

2. (a)

3. (a)

4. (a)

5. (a)

6. (a)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (b)

10. (b)

SENTENCE RECONSTRUCTION

Sentence reconstruction is the grammatical arrangement of words in sentences, phrase structure, and syntax. The sentences are presented in a jumbled manner and the students are supposed to arrange it chronologically.

Students should be very careful while restructuring the sentences.

Here we are giving some examples. Students are advised to go through it carefully.

1. There is a fashion now-a-days

P. as an evil

Q. who is born with a silver spoon

R. to bewail poverty

S. and to pity the Youngman

6. in his mouth

(a) PSRQ

(b) RPSQ

(c) RSQP

(d) SPRQ

Answer: (b)

2. Though the government claims

P. it has failed to arrest

Q. the rate of inflation is down

R. or the decrease

S. the rise in prices

6. in the per capita income

(a) PQRS

(b) PQSR

(c) PSQR

(d) QPSR

Answer: (d)

3. The main purpose

P. how much

Q. is to find out

R. of this test

S. of English

6. he knows

(a) PQSR

(b) PRQS

(c) RQPS

(d) SPQR

Answer: (c)

4. They would gather information

P. and then .report the findings

Q. of the lands

R. through which they travelled

S. about the wealth and military strength

6. to the king

(a) PQSR

(b) PSQR

(c) QRSP

(d) SQRP

Answer: (d)

5. The two men who were following

P. and who were separated from the tigress by the rock

Q. when they saw me stop

R. a few yards behind me

S. stood still

6. and turn my head.

(a) PSQR

(b) QSPR

(c) RPSQ

(d) SQRP

Answer: (c)

CLOZE TEST

Cloze test is the test of the ability to comprehend text in which the reader has to supply the missing words that have been removed from the text at regular intervals.

It is basically a test for diagnosing reading ability; words are generally deleted from a prose passage and the reader is required to fill in the blanks.

Student must be very proficient in grammar in order to fill the correct word. One should practice lots and lots of exercises on such pattern.

A sample pattern of how question are asked in examination is given below.

Directions (Q. 1-1O): In the following passage there arc blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Raju was orphaned at a very (1) age. He lost (2) of his parents because his family was (3) poor to afford any treatment. He was deeply affected by this. He decided to work hard and (4) on his own feet. Along with his studies he (5) part-time in a restaurant and earned enough money in order to (6) his studies. Being a brilliant student, he earned scholarships and later managed to get admission in a good medical college. He is now a (7) doctor and helps poor patient for (8). This shows that one can survive every (9) condition. Determine and hardwork (10) to success in life

1.

(a) youth

(b) early

(c) childhood

(d) childish

(e) recent

2.

(a) any

(b) few

(c) either

(d) couple

(e) both

3.

(a) little

(b) so

(c) too

(d) some

(e) ample

4.

(a) balance

(b) establish

(c) stand.

(d) erect

(e) talk

5.

(a) worked

(b) employed

(c) busy

(d) established

(e) functioned

6.

(a) done

(b) practice

(c) follow

(d) pursue

(e) proceed

7.

(a) recognise

(b) know

(c) respected

(d) worth

(e) merit

8.

(a) favour

(b) less

(c) penny

(d) subsidy

(e) free

9.

(a) failed

(b) adverse

(c) worse

(d) evil

(e) tragedy

10.

(a) result

(b) follow

(c) excel

(d) lead

(e) urge

Answers

1. (b)

2. (e)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (d)

7. (c)

8. (e)

9. (b)

10. (d)

Direction (Q.1-10): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

It is a pity that we do not have good books on banking written by Indian authors (1) to the steady growth of literature on the subject in other countries especially, the J.K. whose banking laws and (2) are very much akin to those of our country. And student studying in our universities and the millions of bank of bank employees appearing or various banking examination have to depend (3) on books written by foreign authors. As these books mainly deal with the problems of banking industry of foreign countries the (4) of the banking scene in India and the various legal (5) and banking procedures remains very weak. To (6) the bank employees and the university students no have opted for (7) courses in banking with different aspects of theory and practice of banking we should have good and (8) text books. The book under review, written by experienced and (9) banker, on banking law based on reading Indian Cases, will be found very useful by students banking as (10) guide to the principles of banking law.

1.

(a) corresponding

(b) following

(c) emphasis

(d) correcting

(e) paving

2.

(a) products

(b) notes

(c) initiatives

(d) procedures

(e) processes

3.

(a) upon

(b) still

(c) rarely

(d) until

(e) slightly

4.

(a) core

(b) application

(c) understanding

(d) knowledge

(e) purpose

5.

(a) aspects

(b) experts

(c) books

(d) loops

(e) lapses

6.

(a) saddle

(b) decorate

(c) Promote

(d) loops

(e) lapses

7.

(a) expensive

(b) tough

(c) detailed

(d) specialized

(e) optional

8.

(a) voluminous

(b) many

(c) seasoned

(d) shining

(e) authentic

9.

(a) qualified

(b) rich

(c) merchant

(d) desired

(e) consulting

10.

(a) powerful

(b) ready

(c) comprehensive

(d) prescribed

(e) learned

Answers

1. (a)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (c)

5. (a)

6. (e)

7. (d)

8. (e)

9. (a)

10. (c)

Directions for Questions 1 to 10: In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The traditional method of managing credit risk is (1) diversification. Although (2) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often constrained by (3) of diversification (4) on account of limited area of (5). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (6) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (7) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (8) years. This mode of credit risk mitigation is most (9) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card receivables, etc.Further shedding loans through securitisation might (10) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.

(Bank P.O. Exam 2006)

1.

(a) by

(b) onto

(c) for

(d) at

(e) through

2.

(a) watching

(b) mitigating

(c) taking

(d) affording

(e) seeing

3.

(a) lack

(b) supply

(c) scarcity

(d) void

(e) want

4.

(a) luck

(b) fortune

(c) activities

(d) opportunities

(e) chance

5.

(a) place

(b) transaction

(c) operations

(d) dealing

(e) work

6.

(a) gained

(b) sold

(c) valued

(d) bought

(e) profited

7.

(a) gigantic

(b) slowly

(c) slightly

(d) needlessly

(e) impressively

8.

(a) yester

(b) futuristic

(c) golden

(d) coming

(e) past

9.

(a) desired

(b) suited

(c) wanted

(d) suitable

(e) popular

10.

(a) kill

(b) lynch

(c) damage

(d) promote

(e) burn

Answers

1. (e)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (c)

5. (c)

6. (a)

7. (e)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (c)

Directions for (Q.1-10) : In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

New technology has led directly to (1) standards of living, yet science tends to follow market forces as well as to (2) them. It is not surprising that the rich get richer in a continuing cycle of (3) while the poorest are often left behind. A special (4) should be made by the powerhouses of world science to address the unmet challenges of the poor. Ending (5) poverty can relieve many of the pressures on the environment. When impoverished households are (6) (7) on their farms, for example, they face less pressure to cut down neighbouring forests in (8) of new farmland. Still, even as extreme poverty ends, we must not fuel prosperity with a lack of (9) for industrial pollution and the (10) burning of fossil fuels. (Bank P.O. Exam 2005)

1.

(a) visible

(b) declining

(c) improved

(d) amicable

(e) rigorous

2.

(a) fail

(b) claim

(c) market

(d) avoid

(e) lead

3.

(a) wealth

(b) growth

(c) poverty

(d) improvement

(e) economy

4.

(a) effort

(b) care

(c) practice

(d) occasion

(e) sanction

5.

(a) marginal

(b) apparent

(c) superficial

(d) extreme

(e) dismal

6.

(a) abnormally

(b) less

(c) more

(d) excessively

(e) unreasonably

7.

(a) efficient

(b) meticulous

(c) careful

(d) dependent

(e) productive

8.

(a) view

(b) search

(c) expectation

(d) lust

(e) place

9.

(a) attitude

(b) mobility

(c) initiative

(d) concern

(e) ease

10.

(a) unchecked

(b) repeated

(c) periodical

(d) occasional

(e) limited

Answers

1. (c)

2. (e)

3. (b)

4. (a)

5. (d)

6. (b)

7. (d)

8. (b)

9. (d)

10. (a)

Directions for (Q.1-10): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

First aid experts stress that (1) what to do for an (2) victim until a doctor or other trained person gets to the accident scene can (3) a life, especially in cases of stoppage of breathing, severe bleeding, and shock. People with special (4) problems, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, epilepsy, or allergy, are (5) to wear some sort of emblem identifying the problem, as a safeguard against administration of medication that might be injurious or even (6). When emergencies do occur, (7) first aid within the first few minutes often (8) life or death. (9) administering of first aid (10) medical professionals to provide better care.

(Bank P.O. Exam 2005)

1.

(a) before

(b) attempting

(c) regarding

(d) knowing

(e) about

2.

(a) injured

(b) inquiring

(c) efficient

(d) important

(e) accident

3.

(a) harm

(b) comfort

(c) take

(d) soothe

(e) save

4.

(a) mental

(b) ethical

(c) medical

(d) accident

(e) moral

5.

(a) prohibited

(b) invited

(c) compelled

(d) allowed

(e) urged

6.

(a) appropriate

(b) dangerous

(c) beneficial

(d) fatal

(e) remedial

7.

(a) expecting

(b) providing

(c) avoiding

(d) ignoring

(e) neglecting

8.

(a) determines

(b) offers

(c) vanishes

(d) reflects

(e) begs

9.

(a) Hasty

(b) Careless

(c) Proper

(d) Probable

(e) Reasonably

10.

(a) resists

(b) instigates

(c) hinders

(d) prevents

(e) enables

Answers

1. (d)

2. (e)

3. (e)

4. (c)

5. (e)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (a)

9. (c)

10. (e)

Directions (Questions no. 1- 10).In the following passages some words have been left out. First read the passage and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Mark your answer in the answer sheet.

How do you go __________ office? It totally __________ on the weather, on wet days I go __________ train, In fine weather, I go __________ foot. I described the experiment to __________ and asked him if he __________ make me one like it. Recognising the _________ of Country. The sports Authority of India __________ a Sunil Gavaskar Bat.

1.

(a) by

(b) to

(c) on

(d) through

2.

(a) upto

(b) according

(c) depends

(d) abide

3.

(a) by

(b) on

(c) Through

(d) in

4.

(a) on

(b) by

(c) at

(d) in

5.

(a) he

(b) his

(c) him

(d) she

6.

(a) can

(b) should

(c) could

(d) would

7.

(a) latent

(b) Potential

(c) possible

(d) probable

8.

(a) gave

(b) starts

(c) launched

(d) Inaugurate

Answers

1. (b)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (a)

5. (c)

6. (b)

7. (c)

COMPREHENSION

Comprehension is asked in the examination to test the ability of aspirants to grasp something mentally and the capacity to understand ideas and facts.

Readers who have strong comprehension are able to draw conclusions about what they read – what is important, what is a fact, what caused an event to happen, which characters are funny. Thus comprehension involves combining reading with thinking and reasoning.

We had prepared some practice paper for the students on the pattern of Bank P.O. Students are advised to go through it very carefully.

Directions (Q 1- 10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time there was a man who was walking past some elephants in a circus, he suddenly stopped, confused by the fact that these large animals were being held by only a small rope tied to their front leg. No chains, no cages. It was obvious that the elephants could, at anytime, break away from their bonds. Yet they stayed were they were.

He asked the trainer why the animals didn't try to escape. “Well,” the trainer explained, “when they were very young and much smaller we used the same size rope to tie them and, at that size, it was enough to hold them. As they grow up, they are conditioned to believe they cannot break away. They believe the rope can still hold them, so they never try to break free.”

The man was amazed. These animals could at any time break free from their bonds but because they believed they couldn’t, they were stuck right where they were.

Like the elephants, how many of us go through life hanging onto a belief that we cannot do something, simply because we failed at it once before?

Failure is part of learning; we should never give up the struggle in life.

1. What did the man noticed when he was walking past some elephants in a circus?

(a) The elephants were roaring loudly.

(b) They were held with a small rope.

(c) They were tied with chains and locked in cages.

(d) They were playing with each other.

2. Why the elephant didn’t try to escape?

(a) They were heavily instructed to do so.

(b) They are habituated to believe they cannot break way the rope.

(c) Their legs have been amputed.

(d) Their legs is always so heavily tied that they never manage to escape.

3. Which of the following is True in context to the passage.

(a) The man was petrified to see that elephant can break any time but is not doing so.

(b) The man was frightened to see that elephant can break any time but is not doing so.

(c) The man was amazed to see that elephant can break any time but is not doing so.

(d) The man was feeling very sad after seeing such a scenario.

4. Which of the following best describes elephant’s character?

(a) Hard working

(b) lenient

(c) quitter

(d) unambitious

5. COMPLETE THE SENTENCE:

Failure is part of learning; we should _______ give up the struggle in life

(a) Always

(b) seldom

(c) never

(d) sometimes

Directions (Q. 6- 10): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

6. OBVIOUS

(a) Vague

(b) definitely

(c) Clear

(d) doubtful

7. ESCAPE

(a) Get away

(b) breakout

(c) to get in touch

(d) disappeared

8. CONDITIONED

(a) Limited

(b) habituated

(c) uncomfortable

(d) confident

9. AMAZED

(a) Surprised

(b) dazzled

(c) attacked

(d) strucked

10. HANGING

(a) Killing

(b) hang

(c) dismissing

(d) suspending

Answers

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (c)

5. (c)

6. (c)

7. (a)

8. (b)

9. (a)

10. (a)

Directions (Q.1- 8): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Rajendra stayed in a tiny hut with his goat. One day, his uncles tied it alongside the goats that belonged to the village butcher. The butcher killed all the goats. Now, Rajendra's goat had a bell around its neck. Rajendra found the bell. Scared that the boy would tell everyone he had killed a stolen goat, the butcher gave Rajendra some money! His uncles met him and asked about the money. 'Everyone wanted goat's meat today. My goat somehow ended up at the butcher's and he sold its meat. This is my share', he replied. His uncles who owned twenty goats slaughtered them all and went to sell the meat. But there was so much meat in the market that they got only a few rupees for their goats.

Angry, they set fire to his little hut. Rajendra came home and found a pile of ash. Sadly he gathered the ash in a bag and decided to leave the village. He walked till he reached a village where he sat down under a tree to rest. Who was this stranger carrying a bag of ashes? The villagers wondered. Rajendra's hut had been his dearest possession, so he said, 'It is the ash from a sacred place'. The villagers asked him to sell it. But he refused. Rumour spread that a holy man from the Himalayas had ash that could cure all misfortunes. He wanted no money, but it was only right that you paid a coin. Soon the ash was all gone and in its place was a pile of coins. Rajendra decided to return to his village. When his uncles saw him they asked Rajendra his secret. Rajendra said, 'I sold the ash from my burnt hut and got this money'. His uncles burnt down their fine houses, gathered the ashes and set off for the village, But as soon as they uttered the word 'ash', the villagers beat them! By then the villagers knew here was no magic in the ash.

Angry, the uncles decided to kill Rajendra. They invited him for a walk and pushed him in the river. A girl washing clothes nearby heard his screams for help. Being a good swimmer she dived in. When she heard his story she thought of a plan. The next day Rajendra went to his uncles' house with the girl, dressed in finery and said, 'When I fell into the river, she saved me. She has a palace at the bottom of the river. Do come and visit us'. Saying this, they left in the direction of the river, the uncles decided to follow Rajendra and cheat him of his newfound wealth. So they ran to the river and dived into its deep waters. They were never heard of again'.

(Bank P.O. 2009)

1. Why did the butcher slaughter Rajendra's goat?

(a) Rajendra's uncles had sold it to him

(b) He had stolen it as he did not have sufficient goats

(c) It was the healthiest of all the goats he had

(d) Rajendra agreed to let him if he was given a share of the profit

(e) None of these

2. Which of the following can be said about Rajendra's uncles?

(a) They treated Rajendra badly because they had not been on good terms with his parents.

(b) They were cunning thieves and had made a lot of money

(c) They were rich but were jealous of Rajendra's wealth

(d) They were creative and found indirect ways of helping Rajendra to make money

(e) They tried to drive Rajendra away from the village because they were ashamed of him

3. Why did Rajendra leave his village one day?

(a) He was so upset over the death of his goat that he could not bear to live there any longer.

(b) He left in order to sell ash at a nearby village.

(c) He had lost his house in a fire set by his uncles.

(d) He was in search of a wife since he had no family of his own.

(e) His uncles refused him shelter and he had nowhere to stay after his hut burnt down.

4. Why did the villagers donate money to Rajendra?

A. They saw his bag of ashes and felt sorry for him.

B. They felt that it was their duty to help him in his time of trouble.

C. He misled them into thinking he had travelled all the way to the Himalayas.

(a) None

(b) Both A and B

(c) Only B

(d) Only C

(e) None of these

5. How did Rajendra get his uncles to stop harassing him?

(a) He offered them all his wife's wealth

(b) He told them about his good luck so they decided to treat him well

(c) He pushed them into the river

(d) They realised they could not harm him and gave up

(e) None of these

6. What made the villagers angry with Rajendra uncles?

(a) The ash the uncles had sold them was useless

(b) They were asking an unreasonable price for the ash

(c) They thought the uncles wanted to cheat them just as Rajendra had

(d) His uncles had treated Rajendra very badly

(e) None of these

7. Why did the girl go into the river?

(a) She had to enter 'the river to wash her clothes

(b) She wanted to show off her swimming skills

(c) She wanted to save Rajendra

(d) She lived at the bottom of the river

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

A. Rajendra plotted with the villagers to teach his uncle a lesson.

B. Rajendra married the girl who saved him from drowning.

C. Rajendra uncles were very greedy.

(a) None

(b) Both A and C

(c) Only B

(d) Only C

(e) None of these

Directions (Q.9-10): Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. STAYED

(a) Delayed

(b) Remained

(c) Lived

(d) Postponed

10. REST

(a) Balance

(b) Relax

(c) Calm

(d) Quiet

(e) Others

Directions (Q. 11-12): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SACRED

(a) Devil

(b) Unfaithful

(c) Sinless

(d) Unholy

(e) Religious

12. GOOD

(a) Dishonest

(b) Incapable

(c) Unhealthy

(d) Unsuitable

(e) Disobedient

Answers

1. (e)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (d)

5. (e)

6. (c)

7. (e)

8. (d)

9. (c)

10. (b)

11. (d)

12. (b)

Directions for (Q.1-9): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them when answering some of the questions.

"Rivers should link, not divide us", said the Indian Prime Minister expressing concern over inter-state disputes and urged state governments to show "understanding and consideration, statesmanship and an appreciation of the other point of view".

Water conflicts in India can reach every level divide every segment of our society, political parties, states, regions and sub-regions within states, districts, castes, and groups and individualfarmers. Water conflicts within and between many developing countries are also taking a serious turn. Fortunately, the ''water wars", forecast by so many, have not yet materialised. War has taken place, but over oil, not water. Water is radically altering and affecting political boundaries all over world, between as well as within countries. In India, water conflicts are likely to worsen before they begin to be resolved. Till then they pose a significant threat to economic growth, security and health of the ecosystem and; the victims are likely to be the poorest of the poor as well as the very sources of water-rivers, wetlands and aquifers.

Conflicts might sound bad or negative, but they are logical developments in the absence of proper democratic, legal and administrative mechanisms to handle issues at the root of water conflicts. Part of the problem stems from the specific nature of water namely that water is divisible and amenable to sharing, one unit of water used by one is a unit denied to others; it has multiple uses and users and involves resultant trade-offs, Excludability is an inherent problem and very often exclusion costs involved are very high: it involves the issue of graded scales and boundaries and way water is planned, used and managed causes externalities-both positive and negative, and many of them are unidirectional and asymmetric.

There is a relatively greater visibility as well as a greater body of experience in evolving policies, frameworks, legal set-ups and administrative mechanisms dealing with immobile natural resources, however contested the space may be Reformists as well as revolutionary movements are rooted in issues related to land. Several political and legal interventions addressing the issue of equity and societal justice have been attempted. Most countries have gone through land reforms of one type or another. Issues related to forests have also generated a body of comprehensive literature on forest resources and rights! Though conflicts over them

have not necessarily been effectively or adequately resolved, they have received much more serious attention, have been studied in their own right and\ practical as well as theoretical means of dealing with them have been sought. In contrast, water conflicts have not received the same kind of attention.

1. The author's main objective in writing the passage is to

(a) showcase government commitment to solve the water distribution problem.

(b) make a strong case for war as the logical resolution for water conflicts.

(c) point out the seriousness of the threat posed by unresolved water conflicts.

(d) describe how the very nature of water contributes to water struggles.

(e) criticise governmental efforts for water conflict resolution.

2. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(a) Water wars are taking place between many developing countries

(b) There have been several legal interventions in India to govern the use of water resources.

(c) The poor people are worst

(d) Water diversion by Indian states has helped resolve water disputes

(e) None of these

3. According to the author which of the following is/are consequence/s of water conflicts?

A. Trans-border conflicts between developing countries.

B. Water bodies will remain unused and unaffected till the conflicts is resolved.

C. Water conflicts have altered the political boundaries within countries.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) Both A & C

(e) None of these

4. Why does the author ask readers not to view conflicts too negatively?

A. Most countries have survived them easily.

B. They bring political parties together.

C. They only affect the grass-roots level.

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) All A, B and C

(e) Neither A, B nor C

5. According to the author which of the following factors aggravates water disputes?

(a) Political interventions

(b) Excessive analysis of the issue

(c) Reformist movements by political parties

(d) Inadequate administrative and legislative frameworks

(e) None of these

6. Which of the following can be inferred about water conflicts?

(a) Water management techniques like dams, linking rivers, etc., have negative consequences

(b) There is no real solution to water conflicts

(c) Despite receiving much attention water conflicts remain unresolved

(d) Water conflicts threaten the livelihood of those who depend on water sources

7. Which of the following can solve this issue?

(a) Link all rivers to make national grid

(b) Politicians alone can solve the problem

(c) Bridges and dams can resolve water issues

(d) Make consensual and conscious efforts

(e) Create public awareness

8. According to the passage which of the following is a limitation of water resulting in disputes?

(a) Water is not a divisible resource

(b) Manipulation of water distribution is easy

(c) Water is an interconnected resource

(d) Water is an immobile resource

(e) None of these

9. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

(a) Deeper problems exist at the root of all water conflicts

(b) Competing uses of water is a cause of water conflict

(c) In India water conflicts affect all levels

(d) Only social stability is unaffected by water disputes

(e) All are true

Directions (Q.10-12): Pick out the word which is closest in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

10. Inherent

(a) Functional

(b) Intense

(c) Persistent

(d) Characteristic

(e) Genetic

11. Materialised

(a) Mattered

(b) Interfered

(c) Hidden

(d) Presented

(e) Expanded

12. Radically

(a) Suddenly

(b) Equally

(c) Completely

(d) Moderately

(e) Concurrently

Directions (Q.13 to 15): Pick out the word which is opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. Worsen

(a) Bounty

(b) Accept

(c) Better

(d) Stable

(e) Capable

14. Asymmetric

(a) Unsteady

(b) Equilibrium

(c) Discouraging

(d) Superior

(e) Contradictory

15. Denied

(a) Considered

(b) Assigned

(c) Concerned

(d) Fined

(e) Acknowledged

Answers

1. (c)

2. (c)

3. (d)

4. (e)

5. (d)

6. (d)

7. (d)

8. (b)

9. (d)

10. (c)

11. (d)

12. (c)

13. (c)

14. (b)

15. (e)

Directions (Q. 1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

A goat was struggling violently and injured many people, as it was being led away by a dozen men through the street. It was being taken away for a sacrificial offering. But it became calm the moment it saw a saint. The saint bent down and said something in its ear and patted it on its back. He then withdrew, covering his face and muttering "How sad! My poor friend".

The animal now tame allowed itself to be led away. The onlookers flocked around the saint and asked him what he had whispered to the goat?

The saint explained that the goat was a reincarnation of his good friend, a wealthy man who instituted the sacrifice as a ritual in the village and that he had told the goat that the game was started by it in its previous birth so why was it complaining now when it was its time to be in the same boat. He continued "As one sows, so shall he reap".

The story spread and eventually brought an end to the ritual of animal slaughter in the name of sacrificial offering in the-village. (Bank of India 2009)

1. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Reincarnation is a phenomenon which occurs.

(b) One receives as one propagates

(c) Animal slaughter is now banned by law

(d) Saints do have magical powers

(e) Such stories do not have any effect

2. Why was the goat being led away by the people?

A. It had helped many people

B. To be slaughtered as a sacrificial offering

C. To avoid panic in the town

(a) Only A

(b) Only B

(c) Only C

(d) Both A and B

(e) None of these

3. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) The goat was not sacrificed

(b) The ritual of sacrifice gradually stopped in the village

(c) The saint did not believe in reincarnation

(d) Th e onlookers were ashamed of themselves and avoided the saint

(e) The goat was afraid of the saint

4. Why did the goat recognise the saint?

(a) It was the saint who had asked people to sacrifice it

(b) The saint was wearing a robe unlike the other onlookers

(c) The saint had a peculiar look

(d) The saint had been a good friend of the goat in its previous birth

(e) None of these

5. Why did the saint mutter "How sad! My poor friend"?

(a) He was against the lifestyle of his friend'

(b) The goat had been injured while it was being led away

(c) The goat was dying from its wounds

(d) He was sad because his friend was going to be killed

(e) None of these

6. Why did the animal become docile after the saint talked to it?

(a) It was keen to be sacrificed

(b) It had already injured many people and was tired

(c) The priest promised that it wouldn't be sacrificed

(d) The goat was familiar to the priest

(e) It had accepted that it deserved its fate

7. What was the goat in its previous birth?

(a) A saint

(b) A poor man

(c) A rich man

(d) A poor friend of the saint

(e) A priest who slaughtered animals as an offering to God

8. The saint did not stop the sacrifice of the goat because he

(a) was incapable of doing so

(b) feared that the onlookers may harm him

(c) thought that it was a result of the goat's own past deeds

(d) wanted to kill the goat himself

(e) wanted to please goat

9. What does "in the same boat" mean in the context of the passage?

(a) The goat and the saint were being sacrificed together

(b) The goat was undergoing a ritual it had initiated in its previous life

(c) The saint could sense how the goat must have been feeling

(d) Animal sacrifice is as unacceptable as human sacrifice

(e) Going to the same direction

Directions (Q.10-13): Choose the word that is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage

10. Patted

(a) stroked

(b) flattened

(c) hit

(d) hurt

(e) beaten

11. Flocked

(a) herd

(b) together

(c) gathered

(d) accompanied

(e) group

12. Instituted

(a) erected

(b) found

(c) appointed

(d) educated

(e) established

13. Withdrew

(a) resigned

(b) removed

(c) absent

(d) detached

(e) departed

Directions (Q.14-15): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in the meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Tame

(a) spirited

(b) disciplined

(c) cruel

(d) insane

(e) extravagant

15. End

(a) life

(b) begin

(c) middle

(d) continue

(e) start

Answers

1. (b)

2. (b)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (d)

6. (e)

7. (c)

8. (c)

9. (b)

10. (a) The meaning of the word pat as used in the passage is to touch somebody/ something several times with your hand flat, especially as sign of affection.

11. (c) The meaning of the word ‘flock’ as used in the passage is to go or gather together somewhere in large numbers.

12. (e) The meaning of the word institute as used in the passage ‘to introduce a system, policy etc or start a process’.

13. (b) The meaning of the word ‘withdrew’ as used in the passage is ‘ to move back or away from a place or situation’.

14. (a)

15. (e)

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

What is a Computer?

A Computer is an electronic device for Storing and processing data that executes the instructions in a programme.

Describing in its simplest form, a computer takes information (or inputs), processes it according to a set of instructions (a program) and gives back a result (or output). In this respect, it is very similar to a calculator, but obviously somewhat more complex.

The other key characteristic of a computer is that it is a multi-function device. The same machine can perform different tasks by using different programs. So, one program (e.g., a word processing application) allows letters or documents to be created, while another program (e.g., a graphics or drawing application) allows images to be created.

Conventionally, a computer consists of at least one processing element and some form of memory. The processing element carries out arithmetic and logic operations and sequencing and control unit can change the order of operations based on stored information. Peripheral devices allow information to be retrieved from an external source, and the result of operations are saved and retrieved.

Some Important Beginning Terms:-

1. Data: Data is a collection of facts, such as values or measurements

2. Hardware: Physical parts of the computer

3. Software: The programs and other operating information used by a computer.

Computer has four functions to perform:-

1. Input – Its Accepts the data

2. Processing – It Processes data

3. Output – It Produces the Outcome

4. Storage – It Stores the results

Classification of Computer

Computers differ on the base of their data processing abilities. They are classified according to purpose, data handling and functionality.

According to purpose, computers are either of general purpose or of specific purpose. General purpose computers are designed to perform a range of tasks. They have the ability to store numerous programs, but lack in speed and efficiency. Specific purpose computers are designed

to handle a specific problem or to perform a specific task. A set of instructions is built into the machine.

According to data handling, computers are analog, digital or hybrid. Analog computers work on the principle of measuring, in which the measurements obtained are translated into data. Digital computers are those that operate with information, numerical or otherwise, represented in a digital form. Hybrid computers incorporate the measuring feature of an analog computer and counting feature of a digital computer.

According to functionality, computers are classified as:

Analog Computer - An analog computer (spelt analogue in British English) is a form of computer that uses CONTINUOUS physical phenomena such as electrical, mechanical, or hydraulic quantities to model the problem being solved

Digital Computer - A computer that performs calculations and logical operations with quantities represented as digits, usually in the binary number system

Hybrid Computer (Analog + Digital) - A combination of computers those are capable providing inputs and outputs in both digital and analog signals. A hybrid computer system setup offers a cost effective method of performing complex simulations.

On the basis of Size

Super Computer - The fastest and most powerful type of computer, Supercomputers are very expensive and are employed for specialized applications that require immense amounts of mathematical calculations.

Mainframe Computer - A very large and expensive computer capable of supporting hundreds, or even thousands of users simultaneously.

Mini Computer - A midsized computer. In size and power, minicomputers lie between workstations and mainframes.

Micro Computer or Personal Computer

1. Desktop Computer: A personal or micro-mini computer sufficient to fit on a desk.

2. Laptop Computer: A portable computer complete with an integrated screen and keyboard. It is generally smaller in size than a desktop computer and larger than a notebook computer.

3. Palmtop Computer/Digital Diary /Notebook /PDAs: It is a hand-sized computer. Palmtops have no keyboard but the screen serves both as an input and output device.

Key Components of a Computer

Although computers come in many different shapes and sizes, they are all made up of the same basic components. In fact, all computers are remarkably similar to each other.

Input Devices – Tells the computer what to do

Computers have input devices that allow the user to control the machine. Essentially, an input device serves as a medium of information from the user to the computer. It allows external information to be passed to the computer, in result to which the computer works. Input devices include:

• Keyboard

• Mouse

• Microphone

Output Devices – The computer telling the user what it has done

Computers also have output devices which return the results of computer actions back to the user. Output Devices are:

• Monitor

• Speakers

• Printer

The processor

The processor can be considered as the ‘brain’ of the computer. It plays a pivotal role in almost all aspects of the computer’s functioning, including its performance and reliability. The processor, either directly or indirectly controls all the work carried out in the computer. It is commonly known as the ‘chip’ or more correctly, the central processing unit (CPU). The processor follows the instructions provided by both the user (via input devices) and the program that is running in order to perform a task.

Memory

In a similar way to the human brain, computers need some short-term memory (or working memory) to do the tasks they have been set. In a computer, this working memory is called random access memory (RAM).

Hard Drive

Computers needs storage for both the programs that running on the system as well as the work that is created. The most common storage device is a fixed magnetic disk that sits inside the machine and it is called as the hard drive. The hard drive is somewhat similar to long-term memory in human beings.

Hardware and Software

Hardware

All physical components of the computer are hardware. This form is given to all electrical and mechanical devices attached to the computer for the purpose of input, processing, storage and output operations.

• Primary Hardware: It is the CPU and its other units i.e. circuits and IC's.

• Secondary Hardware: It is the memory or storage area of computer.

Software

Software is a general term used for computer Programs. A computer program is a planned, step by step set of instructions that directs the computer what to do and how to do. It turns the data into information - that makes a computer useful.

Shortcuts for Computer

• CTRL+C: Copy

• CTRL+X: Cut

• CTRL+V: Paste

• CTRL+Z: Undo

• CTRL+B: Bold

• CTRL+U: Underline

• CTRL+I: Italic

• SHIFT+ right click: Displays a shortcut menu containing alternative commands

• SHIFT+ double click: Runs the alternate default command (the second item on the menu)

• ALT+ double click: Displays properties

• SHIFT+DELETE: Deletes an item immediately without placing it in the Recycle Bin

Important Terms in Computer

Anti-Virus program: It is an application, which is developed to protect a computer from virus, worm, Trojan and other kinds of malicious codes.

Application software: It is a kind of software that is developed to carry out a specific task on a computer system. For E.g.: AutoCAD, Word Processing

BIOS: It stands for Basic Input/output System and it is a low level program used by a computer system to interface to computer devices such as your video card, keyboard, mouse, hard drive, and other devices.

Bluetooth: The Bluetooth is a wireless network technology used for connecting Bluetooth enabled devices at short distance of (up to 40m) without using cables.

Broadband: Broadband is high speed internet connection. Several types of broadband connection exist. DSL (digital subscriber line), satellite and leasing a line are among popular ones.

Cache memory: The Cache memory is very high speed memory (RAM) type used to hold information frequently used by computer processor.

Card Reader (Memory card readers): The device connected directly to a computer through USB and used to read flash memory cards inserted in it. It is used to copy data from cell phone and digital camera memory cards to a computer.

Clock speed: It is a device that sends pulses to a CPU. It is measured in MHz and GHz. The higher the clock speed of a computer the faster the CPU.

Computer virus: The software program capable of destroying computer data is called computer virus. It spreads by copying itself without the knowledge of a user. It can halt, disrupts and changes the normal operation of system and damages files stored in a computer.

Desktop Computer: It is a type of computer designed for users who work in an office or home. As the name implies it is kept on desk or table. It is ideal for office workers.

Driver: It is a specially written program which understands the operation of the device it interfaces to, such as a printer, video card, sound card or CD ROM drive. It provides an interface for the operating system to use the device.

E-commerce: E-commerce means handling business transactions online. It is the exchange of goods and services through internet.

Ethernet: It is a physical and data link layer technology for local area networks (LANs) which is used by higher level network protocols like Internet Protocol (IP) their transmission medium. Data travels over Ethernet inside protocol units called frames.

Extranet: Extranet is a kind of network when limited content of intranet network is available for users outside company’s employees including other businesses, clients or suppliers.

Firewall: Firewall is a system, which is used to secure or protect a computer or a network from unauthorized access by outside users. It is applicable at the time of using internet and a network. Microsoft Windows has built-in Firewall in all versions of latest operating software (XP, Vista and 7).

Flash Memory (USB flash drive): Flash memory is used to transport files between computers. It can be directly connected to a computer USB port. Flash memory is handy and store files like a normal hard disk. 4GB, 8GB, 16GB and 32GB are the most common sizes.

Graphics card (Video display adapter): The graphics card is one of the expensive components in a computer system which serves as an interface between a computer and screen.

Hard disk: Hard disk or hard drive is a device used for storing all applications and data in a computer. It is housed in a computer case.

Internet: Internet is the largest wide area network that links millions of computers. Through internet information can be shared, business can be conducted and research can be done.

Intranet: Intranet is a company’s private network (internet) which encompasses one or more local area networks (LAN). It works the same like public internet, but the content is restricted to the company’s users only.

Keyboard: Keyboard is one of computer components which used to input data to a computer. It is called an input device.

LAN: Local Area Network (LAN) is the smallest type of network built at the office or home level.

Memory cards: Memory cards can be used as a storage media in digital cameras, mobile phones, video cameras and other digital devices. The cards differ in type and size. The varied variety of memory card includes MMC, CF (compact flash), SD (secure digital), mini-SD, RS-MMC, SM, MS-Pro and MS Pro Duo.

Modem: Modem is a telecommunication device that converts digital signals to analog and vice versa. It is used in dial-up internet connection to connect telephone line to a computer.

Motherboard: It is the circuit board where all other parts of computer are connected. It communicates and controls the overall system.

Mouse: Computer mouse is a pointing input device which used to select and click icons on computer monitor.

Network Card: Network card is a device, which is fitted on computer motherboard which serves as an interface between computers to connect each other.

Protocols: It is a standard method used for communications for other internet and network functions.

Scanner: It is an input device used to convert hardcopy images and texts in to a digital format.

Server: Server is a type of computer specifically designed for network and internet applications. The role of the server is to manage the network and provide services such as sharing files and devices to the workstation or client computers.

Exercise-1

1. Which type of device is Computer Keyboard?

(a) Input

(b) Output

(c) Storage

(d) Memory

2. Which of the option is not an example of hardware?

(a) Mouse

(b) Scanner

(c) Interpreter

(d) Monitor

3. All types of deleted files go to:

(a) My Computer

(b) My Documents

(c) Recycles Bin

(d) None of these

4. Computer printer is:

(a) An input device

(b) An output device

(c) A Software

(d) A Storage

5. CPU stands for:

(a) Central Personal Unit

(b) Central Print Unit

(c) Central Printing Unit

(d) Central Processing Unit

6. ALU stands for:

(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit

(b) Arithmetic Log Unit

(c) Arithmetically Long Unit

(d) None of these

7. Who discovered the symbolic logic

(a) David Hilbert

(b) George Boole

(c) Basil Pascal

(d) None of these

8. Short abbreviation for the term bit is:

(a) Assembly Language

(b) Megabyte

(c) Gigabyte

(d) Binary Digit

9. Shortcut Key for Close or Exit is:

(a) Alt + F3

(b) Alt + F4

(c) Alt + F5

(d) Alt+ F6

10. Shortcut Key for BOLD is:

(a) Ctrl + B

(b) Ctrl + C

(c) Alt + B

(d) Alt +C

11. An error is also known as: (SBI & Associate Banks, 2011)

(a) Bug

(b) Debug

(c) Cursor

(d) Icon

(e) None of these

12. A device that connects to a network without the use of cables is said to be:

(SBI & Associate Banks, 2011)

(a) Distributed

(b) Centralized

(c) Open Source

(d) Wireless

(e) None of these

13. The three main parts of the processor are: (SBI Clerk, 2012)

(a) ALU, Control Unit and Registers

(b) ALU, Control Unit and Registers

(c) Cache, Control Unit and Registers

(d) Control Unit, Registers & RAM

(e) RAM, ROM and CD-ROM

14. ________ is an input device.

(a) Printer

(b) Loud Speaker

(c) Scanner

(d) None of these

15. Which Statement is not valid?

(a) 1024 byte = 1 kilo byte

(b) 1024 Mega byte = 1 kilo byte

(c) 1024 Mega byte = 1 Giga byte

(d) 8 bit = 1 byte

16. Tangible, physical equipment that can be seen and touched is called:

(SBI Clerk, 2012)

(a) Hardware

(b) Software

(c) Storage

(d) Input / Output

17. RAM stands for

(a) Random Application Memory

(b) Random Access Memory

(c) Ready Access Memory

(d) None of these

18. One byte is equal to:

(a) 16 bits

(b) 12 bits

(c) 8 bits

(d) 20 bits

19. In MICR , M stands for:

(a) Magnetic

(b) Magic

(c) Mega

(d) Mouse

20. Which of the following has the smallest storage Capacity?

(SBI Assistant and Stenographer Exam, 2012)

(a) Zip Disk

(b) Hard Disk

(c) Floppy Disk

(d) Data Cartridge

(e) CD

Answers

1. (a)

2. (c)

3. (c)

4. (b)

5. (d)

6. (a)

7. (b)

8. (d)

9. (b)

10. (a)

11. (a)

12. (d)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (b)

16. (a)

17. (b)

18. (c)

19. (a)

20. (e)

Exercise-2

1. What type of devices are CDs or DVDs?

(SBI Assistant and Stenographer Exam , 2012)

(a) Input

(b) Output

(c) Software

(d) Storage

(e) Input / Output

2. Spell check will find the error in:

(a) I am fine

(b) I am the fine

(c) You are very nice

(d) None of these

3. Web sites’ first page is called:

(a) Landing page

(b) Home page

(c) Index

(d) Book mark

4. MS Office 2007 is developed by

(a) Accenture

(b) Hitachi

(c) TCS

(d) Microsoft

5. ____________’s one part is Memory Unit.

(a) Monitor

(b) Control Unit

(c) Central Processing Unit

(d) None of these

6. _________ contains the central electronic components of the Computer.

(a) Input Device

(b) Motherboard

(c) System Unit

(d) None of these

7. CDMA stands for:

(a) Complex Division Multiple Access

(b) Complex Division Memory Access

(c) Complex Disk Memory Access

(d) Code Division Multiple Access

8. HTML stands for:

(a) HyperText Markup Language

(b) Hypertext Moving Language

(c) Hypertext Memory Language

(d) None of these

9. GPRS stands for:

(a) General Packet Radio Services

(b) Global Packet Radio Services

(c) Global Power Radio Services

(d) Global Packet Radiation Services

10. ________ is an example of standard file format for test files.

(SBI Assistant and Stenographer Exam, 2012)

(a) JPEG (.jpg)

(b) Bitmap (.bmp)

(c) word (.doc)

(d) Text (.txt)

(e) .xis

11. The smallest unit of information a computer can understand and process is known as a

(IBPS Clerk, 2011)

(a) digit

(b) byte

(c) megabyte

(d) kilobyte

(e) bit

12. A partially completed workbook that contains formulas and formatting, but no data is called a (IBPS Clerk, 2011)

(a) Prototype

(b) template

(c) model

(d) function

(e) None of these

13. _____ is a secondary memory device.

(a) RAM

(b) ALU

(c) Disk

(d) Keyboard

14. Which is not a basic function of a computer?

(IBPS Clerk, 2011)

(a) Store data

(b) Accept input

(c) Process data

(d) Copy text

(e) Accept and process data

15. CD stands for:

(a) Capture Disk

(b) Common Disk

(c) Computer Disk

(d) Compact Disk

16. Which is the high speed memory that adjusts with speed gap between processor and main memory? (SBI Assistance and Stenographer Exam , 2012)

(a) JPEG (.jpg)

(b) Cache

(c) PROM

(d) EPROM

(e) SRAM

17. GUI stands for:

(a) Graphical Use Interface

(b) Graph Use Internet

(c) Graphical User Interface

(d) Graphical User Input

18. MP3 is a:

(a) CD

(b) Floppy

(c) Sound format

(d) None of these

19. The technology that stores only the essential instructions on a microprocessor chip and thus enhances its speed is referred to as: (IBPS Clerk, 2011)

(a) CISC

(b) RISC

(c) CD-ROM

(d) Wi-Fi

(e) MISC

20. DVD drive is an example of:

(a) Zip drives

(b) Coding Media

(c) Storage device

(d) Hardware

Answers

1. (d)

2. (d)

3. (b)

4. (d)

5. (c)

6. (c)

7. (d)

8. (a)

9. (a)

10. (d)

11. (e)

12. (b)

13. (c)

14. (e)

15. (d)

16. (b)

17. (a)

18. (c)

19. (b)

20. (c)

GENERAL AWARENESS (WITH SPECIAL REFERENCE TO BANKING INDUSTRY)

PERSON APPOINTED

Gaurav Shumsher Rana

Gaurav Shumsher Rana an India-educated lieutenant general took over the position of Nepal’s Army Chief, on 6 September 2012. He has served Nepal’s army for 39 years ever since his recruitment in 1970.Rana did his graduation in military affairs from Himachal Pradesh and completed his Officers’ Cadet Course from Royal Military Academy, Sandhurst, UK. He is a son of a former Major General Aditya Shumsher Rana of Nepal Army and a great-grand son of the Prime Minister Chandra Shumsher Rana, who ruled the nation in between 1901-1930.

Kaushik Basu

The World Bank appointed Kaushik Basu, as its chief economist and senior vice president On 5 September 2012. Basu, is an Indian national and a Cornell University professor who had served as chief economic adviser of the India's Union Ministry of Finance. Kaushik Basu, 60, holds a doctorate from the London School of Economics and has also founded the Centre for Development Economics at the Delhi School of Economics in 1992. He had his wide contributions in the field of span development economics, welfare economics, industrial organisation and public economics.He was awarded with one of the country's highest civilian awards, the Padma Bhushan in May 2008.

Raghuram Rajan

Raghuram Rajan, former chief economist of International Monetary Fund (IMF) was appointed as the Chief Economic Advisor in the Finance Ministry on 29 August 2012. Raghuram Rajan has already been serving as the ‘Honorary Economic Advisor to the Prime Minister’, the position he was given in November 2008. He also headed High Level Committee on Financial Sector Reforms in 2007.

PM Nair

PM Nair appointed as the Director General of National Disaster Response Force & Civil Defence (NDRF & CD) by the Ministry of Home Affairs on 27 August 2012. He is an Indian Police Service Officer of 1978-batch of Bihar cadre and is presently working as Special Director General, Central Reserve Police Force.

PJ Kurien

Congress leader PJ Kurien was elected the as the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabhaon 21 August 2012. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh moved the motion for the election of Kurien. Kurien

has been the member of national parliament for the last three decades representing Idukki, and Mavelikkara Lok Sabha constituencies. Since 2005 he is a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Syed Nasim Ahmed Zaidi

Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi, a 1976 batch IAS officer of UP cadre, was appointed as an Election Commissioner on 7 August 2012.. Zaidi had retired as Civil Aviation Secretary on 31 July 2012.Zaidi was appointed to fill the vacancy which was created by the retirement of former Chief Election Commissioner S Y Quraishi and the elevation of V S Sampath as Chief Election Commissioner.In a long and illustrious career as a bureaucrat, Syed Nasim Ahmed Zaidi has served various key positions including Director General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), Permanent Representative of India to the Council of International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) from and Chairman in Airport Authority of India.

Bimal Gurung

Bimal Gurung was appointed as the Chief Executive Officer of Gorkhaland Territorial Administration (GTA) on 3 August 2012. He was the former president of Gorkha Janmukti Morcha (GJM). He has the responsibility to develop hills of Darjeeling, Terai and Dooars. Gorkhaland Territorial Administration (GTA) is a semi-autonomous administrative body for Darjeeling hills in West Bengal, India. GTA has three hill sub-divisions they are: - Darjeeling, Kalimpong, Kurseong and some areas of Siliguri sub-divisions.

Omita Paul

Omita Paul was appointed as the Secretary of the President by the Appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on 24 July 2012. Her tenure as Secretary to the President is on contract basis. Omita is 63 years old. She replaced Christy L Fernandez. Omita Paul was appointed as the information commissioner in the central Information Commission in the year 2009 for the short duration of time at the end of the UPA-I government’s tenure. Omita is a retired officer from Indian Information Service (IIS) from 1973 batch.

Pranab Mukherjee

Pranab Mukherjee took oath of office and secrecy as the 14th President of India at the Central Hall of Parliament on 25 July 2012. The oath was administered by the Chief Justice of India, Justice SH Kapadia. He was given a twenty one gun salute, following which he signed the oath register. Pranab Mukherjee is the 13th President of India in person and chronologically he is the 17th President of India.

Article 60 in the Constitution of India states that every President and every person acting as President or discharging the functions of the President shall, before entering upon his office, make and subscribe in the presence of the Chief Justice of India or, in his absence, the senior most Judge of the Supreme Court available, an oath or affirmation in the following form, that is to say --I, A, B, do swear in the name of God I, A B/ solemnly affirm that I will faithfully execute the office of President (or discharge the functions of the President) of India and will do the best

of my ability preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law and that I will devote myself to the service and well being of the people of India.

Third schedule in the Constitution of India deals with forms of oaths and affirmations.

Raja Parvez Ashraf

Raja Parvez Ashraf, the senior Pakistan People’s Party leader, was appointed as the 17th Prime Minister of Pakistan on 22 June 2012. In a poll held in the Pakistan’s National Assembly to elect new Prime Minister, Raja received 211 votes of the total 342 votes while the Opposition PML (N) candidate, Sardar Mehtab Abbasi, bagged only 89 votes.

Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari administered oath to the new Prime Ministerat in a special oath taking ceremony held at the Presidency at Islamabad in Pakistan.

Vidya Balan

Union Rural development Ministry of India on 4 May 2012 appointed National award winning actor Vidya Balan as the brand ambassador for improving the state of sanitation in the country. Rural Develop Minister Jairam Ramesh brought in the leading bollywood star to promote the sanitation campaign started by him.

Thein Sein

U Thein Sein was appointed as the new President of Myanmar on 30 March 2011. Two Vice-Presidents - U Tin Aung Myint Oo and Dr. Sai Mauk Kham also took oath. President U Thein Sein named 30 cabinet ministers, including defense minister, home minister, border affairs minister and industrial development minister, and foreign minister.

U Thein Sein was elected following a Presidential vote in February 2011.

Milind Barve and Sundeep Sikka

Milind Barve was appointed as new chairman of Mutual fund industry body AMFI (The Association of Mutual Funds in India). He had earlier served as Managing Director of HDFC Asset Management Company The position of chairman fell vacant after incumbent U K Sinha who became chief of market regulator SEBI.

Sundeep Sikka

The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) also named Sundeep Sikka, CEO of Anil Ambani group's mutual fund arm Reliance Capital Asset Management Co, as its new Vice-Chairman.

U. K. Sinha

U. K. SINHA, 1976 batch IAS officer of Bihar cadre was on 3 February 2011 appointed as the eighth Chairman of the market regulator, SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF INDIA

(SEBI) U. K. Sinha prior to being appointed as SEBI Chairman worked as UTI AMC Chairman and Managing Director.

Sushma Nath

The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) on 3 February 2011 appointed Expenditure Secretary SUSHMA NATH as FINANCE SECRETARY. She is the First Indian Woman to be appointed as Finance Secretary .Sushma Nath will also shoulder the responsibility as Secretary, Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance. She is an MP cadre IAS officer of the 1974 batch. She has been officiating as the expenditure secretary since 2008. She was a member of the Sixth Central Pay commission which was set on 5 October 2006 and headed by Justice B.N. Srikrishna. She succeeded outgoing Finance Secretary Ashok Chawla who ended his term on 31 January 2011.

AWARDS / HONOURS

Pieta the South Korean Film won Golden Lion Venice Top Prize

The Golden Lion Prize for best movie was given to the South Korean Movie, Pieta directed by Kim Ki-duk at the 69th Venice Film Festival on 8 September 2012. The Master by Paul Thomas Anderson walked off with two major awards namely, Special Jury Award and Best Actor for Joaquin Phoenix.

Pieta is the brutal story about a debt collector with a habit of crippling those, who were unable to pay his debt. The brutality stops at a certain point of time, when he meets a woman who claims to be his mother.

Dr. KC Abraham

Managing Director of Kunnath Pharmaceuticals and the producer of world famous Musli Power X-tra won Switzerland Business Excellence Award 2012 on 8 September 2012 at Zurich, Switzerland. The award has helped Kunnath Pharmaceutical to become a name of rapport across the nation.

Gopi Chand Narang

Pakistan government on 14 August 2012 honoured Urdu author, Gopi Chand Narang with Sitara-i-Imtiaz, the third highest civilian honour given by the nation. In the past, former Prime Minister Morarji Desai and matinee idol Dilip Kumar were bestowed Pakistan's highest civilian honour, Nishan-i-Imtiaz. The award will be given to Gopi Chand Narang in Pakistan on 23 March, 2013, Pakistan's Republic Day.

Gopi Chand Narang was born on 11 February, 1931, in Dukki, Pakistan. He is an Indian scholar of Urdu language and literature, an eminent Urdu writer, scholar, critic and linguist.

9 physicists worldwide received the Fundamental Physics Prize

9 physicists worldwide were given the Fundamental Physics Prize on 31 July 2012. The prizes were given to the physicists for their remarkable contribution to the field of fundamental physics. Fundamental Physics Prize has been established by Russian Businessman Yuri Milner and it is the most money-spinning academic prize in the world. Winners of the award include, Ashoke Sen, N J Nima, Arkani-Hamed, Juan Maldacena, Nathan Seiberg, Edward Witten, Andrei Linde, Alexei Kitaev, Maxim Kontsevich, Ashoke Sen. The winners will receive 3 million dollar as the prize amount. The Nobel Prize currently comes with an award of 1.2 million dollar, which is generally divided between two or three people.

Vinya Mishra

Miss India World Vinya Mishra was awarded with Kalpana Chawla excellence award on 6 May 2012 at Mavlankar Auditorium, New Delhi. The other awardees included Padmabhushan

kuchipudi and bharatnatyam dancer Swapnasundari, IPS Officer Shalini Singh, who had won the police medal for meritorious service in 2012 and jewellery designer Puneeta Trikha. The award instituted by PECOBA (Punjab Engineering College Chandigarh Old Boys Association was conferred by late astronaut's father Banarsi Lal Chawla Chawla. The awards are being given every year in the memory of Kalpana, who died in Space Shuttle Columbia disaster on 1 February 2003.

PERSON DIED

Muzaffar Razmi

The famous Urdu poet Muzzaffar Razmi died on 19 September 2012 in Kairana in Shamli district. Razmi (76) suffered a brief illness and is now survived by his two daughters and three sons. Razmi wrote three books of Urdu Poetry. His book, Lahmon ki Khattah released in the year 2004 was uncovered by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.

Ranganath Misra

Ranganath Misra, the former chief justice of India died on 13 September 2012. He died at the age of 86 and is survived by his wife Sumitra Misra. Ranganath Misra was appointed to be the 21st Chief Justice of India from 25 September 1990 to 24 November 1991 during the reign of former Prime Minister Chandra Shekhar and former President of India, R. Venkataraman

Neil Alden Armstrong

Neil Alden Armstrong, the US Astronaut, who got his name written in the history of mankind after he became the first person on the Earth to walk on the surface of moon, passed away on 25 August 2012. He was 82. At the age of 38, Armstrong, as the commander of the Apollo 11 mission, became the first human to land on the moon on 20 July 1969. Right after he stepped on the surface of moon, Armstrong uttered that famous sentence "That's one small step for man, one giant leap for mankind."

AK Hangal

Veteran actor Avatar Krishan Hangal, popularly called AK Hangal, passed away in Mumbai on 26 August 2012 after prolonged illness. He was 97. In a career span of about 40 years Hangal worked in around 225 films. A devoted artist, he also worked in numerous theatre plays and TV Series.

Vilasrao Deshmukh

Vilasrao Dagadojirao Deshmukh, the Union Minister for Science and Technology and Earth Sciences died of multiple organ failure at the Global Health City Hospital in Chennai on 14 August 2012. He was 67. He was admitted to hospital on 6 August after his kidney and lever stopped to work.

Ashok Mehta

Veteran Indian Cinematographer Ashok Mehta passed away in Mumbai on 15 August 2012. He was 65. Mehta was suffering from lung cancer and was getting treatment at Kokilaben Dhirubhai Ambani Hospital in Mumbai.

Vempati Chinna Satyam

Kuchipudi Dance Guru Vempati Chinna Satyam passed away on 29 July 2012. He was 83 years old. He was honoured with Padma Bhushan by the Government of India in the year 1998. He was born in Kuchipudi Village in Krishna District of coastal Andhra Pradesh where Kuchipudi dance was originated.

Rajesh Khanna

Bollywood superstar Rajesh Khanna passed away at his Mumbai residence ASHIRWAD on 18 July 2012. He was 69. He was severely ill over the past few months. Rajesh Khanna, who was fondly called Kaka by his fans, is considered to be the first superstar of Indian cinema.

Rajesh Khanna is survived by his wife Dimple Kapadia and two daughters Twinkle Khanna and Rinkie Khanna.

Purushottam M Rungta

Former President of Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) Purushottam M Rungta died on 12 July 2012 after long sickness. He was 84 years old. He was commonly known as BHAIJI to cricketers and administrations.

Dara Singh

Rustam-E-Hind, Dara Singh, who won India numerous accolades globally in wrestling, passed away on 12 July 2012 in Mumbai following a protracted illness. He was 84.He had suffered a cardiac arrest on 7 July 2012.

Born on 19 November 1928 in Dharmoochak village of Amritsar in Punjab, as Deedar Singh Randhawa, Dara Singh travelled to different parts of the globe as a Professional Wrestler. He announced his retirement from active wrestling in 1983. In 1996 he was inducted into the Wrestling Observer Newsletter Hall of Fame.

INTERNATIONAL

US and Pakistan inked NATO Supply Agreement

Pakistan and the US on 31 July 2012 signed an agreement on transporting supplies for NATO troops in Afghanistan through Pakistan, until the end of 2015. The agreement was signed by Additional Defence Secretary Rear Admiral Farrukh Ahmed and US Charge d Affaires Richard Hoagland.

Under the agreement, the US will provide 1.1 billion dollar aid to Pakistan for fighting terrorists within its borders. The agreement will cease to exist by the end of 2015, though; it can be renewed for one-year intervals beyond that. The agreement is set to replace the existing arrangements, which is not an official agreement and largely based on a verbal understanding.

Major points of the agreement are as follows:

The agreement bars transportation of arms and ammunition for NATO/ISAF in Afghanistan via Pakistan

Arms shipments and equipments for training of Afghan security forces allowed

Routes from Khyber Pakhtunkhwa and Balochistan are to be used by NATO tankers

No tax or duty to be levied on the containers though commercial carriers will have to pay a fee.

Pakistan to ensure the security and quick transfer of cargo while keeping the US authority in loop.

Containers travelling to Afghanistan will be bound to return via Pakistan

The Defense Ministry which will act as a central coordination authority will review daily operations and other

matters related to the supply routes

Two monitoring offices for NATO supplies to be set up at the Defence Ministry and the US embassy.

Election Commissions of India and South Korea signed MoU to Strengthen Democracy

The Election Commission of India and South Korean Election Commission on 1 August 2012 signed an MoU (Memorandum of Understanding) to strengthen institutions and processes for democracy. This was 13th MoU that India signed with Electoral Bodies. It will also strengthen India-South Korea bilateral cooperation.

Both the nations will work together for the cause of the Asian electoral community and the larger global electoral fraternity.

India allowed FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) from Pakistan

Indian government on 1 August 2012 decided to allow investment from Pakistan with the objective of boosting bilateral economic relations. However, India kept out strategic sectors of defence, space and atomic energy from Pakistan. Pakistan can explore sectors like cement, textiles and sports for investments in India. Besides, the FDI proposals from Pakistan need to be cleared from the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB). It is important to note that India had granted the MFN status to Pakistan in 1996. Although Pakistan had notified granting the MFN status to India in March 2012, it is yet to implement it fully.

However, Pakistan had partially liberalised its trade regime with India in March 2012 by shifting from positive list rules to negative. It means that barring 1209 items Pakistan will allow import of all other Indian goods can explore sectors like cement, textiles and sports for investments in the country.

US Imposed Sanctions on Banks Handling Iranian Oil Transactions

United States announced fresh sanctions against foreign banks that helps Iran sell its oil on 1 August 2012.The U.S government signed an executive order of new sanctions which will target anyone buying Iranian petrochemicals or facilitating payments to Iran, including an Iraqi and a Chinese Bank. The government stated that the measure would increase pressure on Tehran for failing to meet its international nuclear obligations. The sanctions are targeting the foreign banks that handle transactions for Iranian oil or handle large transactions from the National Iranian Oil Company (NIOC) or Naftiran Intertrade Company (NICO).

India signed Tax Information Exchange Agreement (TIEA) with Monaco

India signed Tax Information Exchange Agreement (TIEA) with Monaco on 31 July 2012 in New Delhi. It will allow the two countries to check tax evasion and money laundering. This was the ninth TIEA signed by India.

Key features of the agreement are as following

It is based on international standard of transparency and exchange of information.

Information must be foreseeably relevant to the administration and enforcement of the domestic laws of the Contracting Parties concerning taxes and tax matters covered by the agreement.

The requesting State has to provide some minimum details about the information requested in order to justify the foreseeably relevance criteria.

Information is to be treated as secret and can be disclosed to only specified person or authorities, which are tax authorities or the authorities concerned with the determination of tax appeal.

It also provides for disclosure of information to any other person or entity or authority or any other jurisdiction (including foreign Governments) with the written consent of the competent authority of the requested Party.

There is a specific provision that the requested Party shall provide upon request the information even though that Party may not need such information for its own tax purposes.

There is a specific provision for providing banking and ownership information.

There is a specific provision for Tax Examination Abroad where authorities of one State can present in the tax examination of taxpayer in the other State.

Upon entry into force, the Agreement allows exchange of information forthwith.

US Senate passed Bill to label Haqqani Network as a Foreign Terrorist Organization

The US Senate on 27 July 2012 unanimously passed a resolution to label the Haqqani network as a foreign terrorist group. The resolution came following the US House of Representatives passed Haqqani Network Terrorist Designation Act of 2012 early July 2012. The bill was already passed in 2011 but had to be passed by the Senate again given the changes made in it by the House. As the final step to become legislation, the bill now moves to the White House for the approval of President Barack Obama.

United Nations General Assembly adopted Resolution on Syria

The United Nations General Assembly on 3 August 2012 adopted a non-binding resolution that condemns Syria's use of heavy weapons in the fight against rebel forces. The resolution, drafted by Saudi Arabia, deplored the unrelenting bloodshed in Syria and demanded a peaceful political transition in the country.

The resolution got 133 votes in favour in the 193-member body, while 12 voted against the resolution. 31 nations including India chose to remain absent during the voting. The fresh resolution is largely in line with the League of Arab States’ resolution which demanded Syrian President Bashar-al-Assad to step down from power and urged world community to severe diplomatic relations and ties with Syria.

Syrian government, however, deemed the resolution as an attempt to jeopardize the regional peace and stability. Those who opposed the UN resolution including China, Iran, North Korea, Belarus, Cuba argued that putting pressure only on one party would not help resolve the Syrian issue and would instead derail the issue from the track of a political settlement.

India abstained from voting after it found some of the provisions of the resolution contrary to its long held stance on the Syrian crisis. Provisions such as forced regime change and sanctions against the country India found particularly objectionable. Before deciding to abstain from the

voting Indian Ambassador to the UN Hardeep Singh Puri had held several rounds of dialogue with his Saudi and Qatari counterparts to remove these provisions.

China signed Economic Agreements with North Korea which includes the Development of SEZs

China in the second week of August 2012 signed agreements with North Korea to increase the bilateral economic co-operation. The agreements were signed during a visit of senior North Korean official.

The agreements included the development of two special economic zones in North Korea. One is in Rason, on North Korea’s east coast and the other is in Hwanggumphyong on the border with China. Moreover, China and North Korea also signed agreements on agricultural co-operation and electricity supply.

Organisation of Islamic Cooperation suspended Syria’s Membership

Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, the 57-member body of Islamic countries, suspended Syria from the organization. The decision to suspend Syria was taken despite Iran's vociferous opposition, during the OIC summit meeting in the Saudi city of Mecca on 16 August 2012.

The OIC move is aimed at pressurizing Syrian President embattled regime to cease violence against its own citizens. More than 20000 people have been killed so far in one of the bloodiest civil war in the history of Arab nations. In an statement issued at the end of the summit, OIC Secretary General Ekmeleddin Ihsanoglu said that the OIC decision is a strong message of Islamic Orgainsation to the trouble-torn nation.

The summit of the world's largest Islamic bloc, which represents nearly 1.6 billion muslim population globally started on 14 August 2012 with the suspension proposal put forward by a preparatory meeting of foreign ministers. Saudi King Abdullah presided over the meeting, attended by Iranian President Mahmoud Ahmadinejad whose country has openly criticised the push to suspend Syria.

Earlier, Syria had faced suspension from Arab League in 2011 for supporting violence following the massive uprising against the current regime. Syrian President Bashar-al-Assad had however termed the move as a plot of western countries against Syria.

India to cut Import Duties on 234 Items from Pakistan

The Union Cabinet on 17 August 2012 approved the Commerce Ministry’s proposal to cut down the list of sensitive items under South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) for Pakistan by 30 percent. Besides, India will also cut import duties on about 234 items from Pakistan under the bilateral trade normalisation programme. The cabinet, however, made it clear that the India will follow these measures only when Pakistan reciprocates with the same gesture and allows goods to be traded through the land routes

Pakistan permits only 137 items to be imported through the Attari land route, while the rest goods are imported through sea route, making exports largely unviable for Indian traders. Indian authorities have been consistently demanding Pakistan to allow all goods to be traded through land, but the demand has not received any positive response as yet.

India and Pakistan initiated the trade normalisation programme in early 2011 which subsequently paved the way for fastpaced liberalization of trade and investments. The process, however, slackened over the past few months due to the political turmoil in Pakistan.

India China agreed to set up Joint Working Group on Trade and Investments

India and China agreed to set up a joint working group (JWG) to look into issues related to trade and investments. The decision to set up the JWG was taken at the meeting of India-China Joint Group on Economic Relations, Trade, Science and Technology in New Delhi on 27 August 2012. Besides, the two nations also agreed to adopt a five-year plan on economic cooperation. The ministerial level meeting was attended by Indian Commerce Minister Anand Sharma and his Chinese counterpart Chen Deaming.

The total bilateral trade between India and China for 2011-12, stood at 75457.42 million dollar as compared with 59000.36 million dollar in 2010-11. During 2011-12, the exports were 17902.98 million dollar while the imports stood at 57554.44 million dollar. The provisional trade deficit for 2011-12 was 39651.46 million dollar.

The Joint Group on Economic Relations, Trade, Science & Technology was formed in 1988 when then Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi visited Beijing.

NATIONAL

The Government approved a Complete Ban on Employment of Children

The Union Government on 28 August 2012 cleared a proposal to put a complete ban on employment of children up to the age of 14 both in hazardous and non-hazardous work by amending an anti-child labour Act. The Union Cabinet approved bringing amendment to the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, which has also penal provisions for non compliance.As per the existing Act, children below 14 years of age are allowed to work in industries not considered to be hazardous. Children between 14-18 years will also be defined as adolescents in the amended Act. The amendment will also fulfill the mandate of Right to Education to free and compulsory education for children in the age group of 6-15 years. It will also bring labour laws in the country in line with International Labour Organisation norms. The Union Cabinet also referred the Land Acquisition Bill, to a Group of Ministers (GoM).

Government of India enacted Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006

The Government of India enacted the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act (PCMA) 2006, which will have under its ambit covers all the States and Union Territories of India except the State of Jammu & Kashmir. The Act also applies to all citizens of India without and beyond India. Under the PCMA 2006, every child marriage is voidable at the option of the contracting party who was a child at the time of the marriage, within two years of the child attaining majority. PCMA 2006 replaced Child Marriage Restraint Act (CMRA) of 1929. PCMA was notified in the Gazette of India on 11 January, 2007 and has been enforced 1 November, 2007.

Supreme Court of India ordered Better Healthcare for Bhopal Gas Tragedy Victims

In an order passed on 9 August 2012, the Supreme Court of India directed the government to make all the medical records of Bhopal Gas victims computerised and issue health booklets and smart cards to each victim. The court’s directive came as it seek to ensure better healthcare and proper implementation of relief and rehabilitation programme for thousands of victims of world’s worst industrial disaster.The Apex Court Bench of Chief Justice SH Kapadia and Justices AK Patnaik and Swatanter Kumar passed the order on a petition filed by the Bhopal Gas Peedith Mahila Udyog Sanghathan.An Empowered Monitoring Committee will be set up to carry out the court’s order. The committee will undertake the tasks such as making medical surveillance operational, computerisation of medical information, publication of ‘health booklets,’ etc. It will also ensure that ‘health booklets’ and ‘smart cards’ are provided to each victim irrespective of where such victim is being treated.”

Union Cabinet approved the Launch of Satellite to study Mars

The Union Cabinet on 3 August 2012 gave its consent to the launch of satellite to the Mars proposed in 2013. The Cabinet decision came following a meeting chaired by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh.The Department of Space had sent a proposal to the Union Cabinet, in which it had sought government’s permission to launch a satellite to study Mars, also called Red

Planet. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is expected to launch a Mars Orbiter in November 2013 with a 25kg scientific payload. The Mars mission will be launched by ISRO’s advanced Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV). The objective of the mission is to study the climate, geology, origin, evolution and sustainability of life on the planet. If the ISRO fails to launch the Mars Mission next year, other opportunities are available in 2016 and 2018.India has undertaken the massive space project with the help of United States, Russia, Europe, Japan and China. The mission is estimated to cost the government exchequer about 450 crore rupees. An initial allocation of 125 crore rupees was already made in the budget 2012-13.

Special Tribunal approved MHA Move to declare SIMI as an Unlawful Organization

A special tribunal in its decision pronounced on 1 August 2012 approved the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) move to declare Students Islamic Movement of India (SIMI) as an unlawful association. The tribunal headed by sitting Delhi High Court Judge Justice VK Shali submitted its report to the Union Home Ministry. The tribunal was constituted to decide whether there was sufficient cause for declaring the association unlawful.

The Union Home Ministry on 3 February 2012 had extended the ban on SIMI for another two years. SIMI was first designated as an unlawful association on 27 September 2001, given its alleged involvement in the numerous terrorist incidents in the country. The organization also believed to have a close rapport with dreaded terrorist organization like Lashker-e-Taiba.

SIMI was founded by Mohammad Ahmadullah Siddiqi on 25 April 1977, in Aligadh, Uttar Pradesh. The organization was banned under the provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. SIMI appealed against the ban in various courts including Special Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act tribunals, but it was not given any respite. Though a special tribunal in August 2008 had lifted the ban on SIMI, but the ban was soon restored by the then Chief Justice of India KG Balakrishnan, on 6 August, 2008.

Union Government approved Relaxation in Policies Related to Transfer of Government Land

The Union Government of India on 2 August 2012 approved relaxation in policies relating to transfer of government land. The objective of the policy is to speed up private-public partnership in the country and to fast-track pending infrastructure projects. The decision will ensure that infrastructure projects are not held up for procedural delays.

A ban was imposed in 2011 on transfer of government-owned land to any entity except in cases where land was to be transferred from one government department to another. This ban however excluded the cases where the land was to be transferred from one government department to another. The policy has also been relaxed for all land transfers from ministries to statutory authorities or PSUs (Public Sector Units).

Besides, the government allowed use and development of railway land by Rail Land Development Authority (RLDA), as per the provisions of Railways Amendment Act, 2005.

Power Tripped in Northern, Eastern and North Eastern Grids: India’s Biggest Power Blackout

India witnessed its biggest ever power blackout on 31 July 2012. Post the collapse of the northern power grid twenty states in India were left with no electricity till late evening. This is the second time that the country saw a power failure of a huge margin; interestingly both the failures happened in a time frame of over twenty four hours.

The collapse happened at around one o clock in the noon, when the northern grid tripped, which then immediately led to a similar effect on the eastern and north-eastern grids, as the two are connected as a common grid. The problem was compounded as several states had removed the under frequency relays that island their systems when grid disruptions occur.

Apparently, the failure of the three power grids despite a stable electricity supply was due to the mounting demand for electricity as monsoon rains remained deficient, outdated power transmission equipments and utter lack of discipline by state utilities in drawing power.

Among the states affected were Delhi, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, West Bengal, Punjab, Jammu & Kashmir, Orissa, Bihar, Rajasthan, Jharkhand and Assam, meaning that the power trip covered more than half of the country’s population.

Amongst the worst hit were the two hundred coal miners trapped in West Bengal and Jharkhand as their shafts remained closed. Amongst the railways, almost three hundred trains remained stranded, also the Delhi Metro, which is a life line to many came to a stop leaving the traffic situation in the state a tizzy. During the peak hour the supply stood less than 40,000 MW against the demand of 130,000 MW.

The situation came back to control later by evening on 31 July 2012, forty percent of the system was operating normally again and power was eventually restored over the states. The first power cut of this kind happened just few hours back on the night of 30 July 2012.

ECONOMY

Growth of Eight Core Sectors slipped to 3.6 percent in June 2012 against 5.6 percent in June 2011

As per the official figures released on 31 July 2012, growth of eight core sectors slipped to 3.6 percent in June 2012 against 5.6 percent in June 2011. During April-June 2012-13, the cumulative growth rate of the Core industries was 3.6 % as against their growth at 5.2% during the corresponding period in 2011-12. Core sector growth in May 2012 had moderated to 4 percent, from 5.9 percent in May 2011.

The Eight core industries that include crude oil, petroleum refinery products, coal, electricity, cement and finished steel have a combined weight of 37.90 per cent in the Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

Coal: Coal production (weight: 4.38% in IIP) registered a growth of 7.2% in June 2012 compared to its growth at (-) 3.0% in June 2011. The growth of the coal sector in cumulative terms witnessed a growth of 6.4% during April-June 2012-13 compared to its growth at 0.3% during the same period of 2011-12.

Crude Oil: Crude Oil production (weight: 5.22% in IIP) registered a growth of (-) 0.8% in June 2012 compared to its growth at 7.7% in June 2011. Cumulatively Crude Oil production registered a growth of (-) 0.5% during April-June 2012-13 compared to its growth at 9.5% during the same period of 2011-12.

Natural Gas: Natural Gas production (weight: 1.71% in IIP) registered a growth of (-) 11.1% in June 2012 compared to its growth at (-) 11.7% in June 2011. Cumulatively, Natural Gas production registered a growth of (-) 11.1% during April-June 2012-13 compared to its growth at (-) 10.2% during the same period of 2011-12.

Petroleum Refinery Products: Petroleum refinery production (weight: 5.94% in IIP) had a growth of 6.1% in June 2012 compared to its growth at 4.6% in June 2011. In cumulative terms, Petroleum refinery production saw a growth of 3.2% during April-June 2012-13 compared to its 5.2% growth during (April-June) period of 2011-12.

Fertilizers: Fertilizer production (weight: 1.25% in IIP) registered a growth of (-) 11.7% in June 2012 against its growth at (-) 2.4% in June 2011. Cumulatively Fertilizer production had a growth of (-) 12.2% during April-June 2012-13 corresponding to 1.1% growth during (April-June) period of 2011-12.

Steel (Alloy + Non-Alloy): Steel production (weight: 6.68% in IIP) registered a growth rate of (-) 0.5% in June 2012 against its 14.5% growth in June 2011. Cumulatively, Steel production registered a 3.6% growth during April-June 2012-13 compared to its 8.4% growth during the same period of 2011-12.

Cement: Cement production (weight: 2.41% in IIP) registered a growth of 10.2% in June 2012 against its 1.7% growth in June 2011. The cumulative growth of Cement Production was 9.9% during April-June 2012-13 compared to its 0.1% growth during the same period of 2011-12.

Electricity: Electricity generation (weight: 10.32% in IIP) had a 8.1% growth in June 2012 compared to its 7.9% growth in June 2011. The cumulative growth of Electricity generation was 6.4% during April-June 2012-13 compared to 8.2% growth during the same period of 2011-12.

India's economic growth rate dipped to nine-year low, both in the March quarter at 5.3 percent, as well as for the 2011-12 fiscal at 6.5 percent on account of global economic slowdown and its own domestic problems thereby prompting the industry to demand immediate and bold action to arrest slowdown. The data released by the Commerce Ministry on 1 August 2012 India’s exports in June also slipped by 5.45 per cent, year-on- year, to 25 billion dollar on account of sluggish global economy.

EGoM approved 50% Diesel Subsidy to farmers in Drought Hit Areas to save Kahrif Crop

An Empowered Group of Ministers (EGoM) on drought, headed by agriculture minister Sharad Pawar in a meeting on 31 July 2012 announced a 50 per cent diesel subsidy scheme for the farmers to help them save the standing kharif crop through irrigation. The total subsidy burden would be around Rs 1,260 crore and is to be borne equally by the state governments and the farmers. Districts that received 50 per cent deficient rainfalls can avail this facility. The subsidy scheme will be applicable in districts that had more than 50 per cent deficient rains as on 15 July 2012

The EGoM also approved an increase in the subsidy on the seeds of alternative crops under contingency plans. A relief package of Rs 1440 crore was also cleared towards watershed development-related efforts in Karnataka, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Rajasthan where around 56 lakh hectares of farmland are estimated to go uncultivated. Around Rs 500 crore was approved for meeting drinking water-related challenges in these states. Rs. 453 crore would be given under the National Rural Drinking Water Programme (NRDWP) to Maharashtra, Karnataka, Rajasthan and Haryana.

It was decided in the EGoM meeting that the subsidy amount on seeds of cereals is to be increased from Rs 500 a quintal to Rs 700 per quintal, while that of pulses and oilseeds would be enhanced from Rs 1200 per quintal to Rs 2000 per quintal. The government has prepared contingency plans for 320 districts.

The Agriculture Ministry also decided to waive the duty on import of certain items to increase the availability of feed ingredients for animal husbandry sector needs. Duty- free imports of oilmeal is to be allowed to ensure feed availability to livestock. The withdrawal of customs duty on oilmeal imports is to be applicable for de-oiled soyameal, sunflower, mustard and canola oilmeal. Currently, oilmeal imports attract a duty of 15 per cent.

RBI signed MoU with Financial Regulators of 9 Countries to promote Sharing of Information

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) signed three memoranda of understanding – with Jersey Financial Services Commission (JFSC), Financial Services Authority of UK and Financial Supervisory Authority of Norway. The Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) was signed with regulators of other countries to promote greater co-operation and sharing of supervisory information between the regulators. RBI signed nine MoUs thus far with financial regulators of different countries.

The MoU with the Jersey Financial Services authority was signed on 16 July 2012. Jersey Financial Services Commission (JFSC) is an independent statutory body. The main function of JFC is the regulation, licensing and supervision of financial services providers for compliance with prudential norms and conduct of business requirements in Jersey.

The MOU with the Financial Services Authority (FSA), UK was signed on 17 July 2012 at FSA, UK Headquarters, London. The FSA is the United Kingdom’s principal national financial services and markets regulator and administers the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000(FSMA) that provides for the supervision of firms, financial services, financial products as well the financial markets.

The MoU with the Financial Supervisory Authority of Norway (Finanstilsynet) was signed on 19 July 2012 at FSA, Norway headquarters. Finanstilsynet as the supervisory authority is entrusted with supervision of banks (insurance companies and investment firms, etc.) in Norway as per the Financial Supervision Act of 1956.

India’s Fiscal Deficit reached 37 Percent of the Budget Estimate

According to the latest data released by the Controller General of Accounts (CGA) on 1 August 2012, India's fiscal deficit in the first quarter (April-June) of the fiscal year 2012-13 stood at 1.90 lakh crore rupees which was 37 percent of the entire budget estimate.

The Union Government in the budget 2012 had pegged the fiscal deficit for the financial year 2012-13 at 5.13 lakh crore, or 5.1 percent of total GDP. Fiscal deficit during the corresponding period of fiscal year 2011-12 was 39 percent of the budget estimates amounting 1.63 lakh crore rupees.

The revenue receipts, however, increased in the first three months of fiscal year 2012-13. The revenue receipt during the given period stood at 1.18 lakh crore rupees, which was 12.7 percent of the budget estimates. Total expenditure of the government stood at 3.12 lakh crore rupees, or 21 percent of the budget estimates.

RBI directed NBFCs to maintain Net-owned Funds (NOF) at Rs 3 crore by 31 March 2013

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in a notification issued on 3 August 2012 stated that all registered non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) which who intend to convert themselves into non-banking financial company-micro finance institutions (NBFC-MFIs) would have to seek registration with immediate effect, not later than 31 October 2012.

The central bank also mentioned that the NBFCs have to maintain net-owned funds (NOF) at Rs 3 crore by 31 March 2013, and at Rs.5 crore by 31 March 31 2014. If the NBFCs fail maintain the NOF they will have to ensure that lending to the micro finance sector, that is, individuals, SHGs or JLGs, which qualify for loans from MFIs to be restricted to 10 per cent of the total assets.

The NBFCs operating in the north-eastern region are to maintain the minimum NOF at Rs.1 crore by 31 March 2012, and at Rs.2 crore by 31 March 2014.

Union Cabinet sets Base Price for Auction of 2G Spectrum at 14000 Crore Rupees

The Union Cabinet on 4 August 2012 approved the reserve price for auction of 2G spectrum as well as spectrum usage charges (SUC). The Cabinet set the reserve price of 14000 crore rupees for the 5 megahertz pan-India spectrum in the 1800 megahertz band. The price is 22 percent lower than the telecom regulator's suggestion. An auctioneer will be soon appointed to conduct a fresh auction. The Cabinet also endorsed the EGoM's recommendation that the reserve price for the 800 megahertz band, which is used by CDMA operators, be fixed at 1.3 times the price for 1800 megahertz band.

Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) had recommended the base price at 18000 crore rupees, which drew a heavy criticism from telecom companies, who argued that the base price suggested by TRAI is irrational.

India’s NSE became the World’s Largest Bourse in Equity Segment as per WFE’s Global Ranking

As per the latest global ranking compiled and published by the World Federation of Exchanges (WFE) in August 2012, the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE) become the world’s largest bourse in terms of the number of trades in equity segment for the first six months of 2012. A total of 735474 trades took place in the equity segment of NSE in the January-June period of 2012, making it the world’s largest exchange on this parameter. NSE was followed by NYSE Euronext and Nasdaq OMX at the second and the third positions.

Industry experts attributed the recent position of NSE acquired by the bourse to growing investor base, use of latest technology and new products. NSE's platform is connected to two lakh trading terminals in more than 2000 towns and cities across the country.

NSE is the second largest exchange globally after Korea Exchange for index options. Eurex was the third largest exchange worldwide in terms of total number of index options traded during the first six months of 2012.

BSE recorded a total of 187824 trades during this period in its equity segment. The total number of listed companies is much larger in case of the BSE, the exchange however lags behind NSE significantly in terms of volume and value of trades.

The latest data published by WFE indicated that investors from tier-three cities contributed more than 45 per cent of total cash market retail turnover in the financial year 2011- 12. The tier-three cities account for more than half of the total retail investor base on NSE platform.

RBI permitted Banks to lend to Telecom Companies for the Upcoming Auction for Spectrum

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted banks to lend to telecom companies for the upcoming auction for spectrum, subject to conditions such as mortgaging the spectrum to the lenders. The RBI had laid down a few pre-conditions for financing of telecom firms for the auction of airwaves to protect banks against potential defaults.

The Union cabinet on 3 August 2012 approved a proposal that allows telecom companies bidding for airwaves to mortgage spectrum to raise funds from banks. The government set a reserve or base price of Rs 14000 crore for the auction.

That banks were revising their lending rates in specific maturities without lowering the base rate concerned the RBI. This activity of the banks resulted in the transmission of monetary policy signals by the central bank to be ineffective. The base rate is supposed to be responsive to changes in monetary conditions.

The RBI had formed a committee to assess the monetary policy transmission mechanism and also loan products offering fixed interest rate. The RBI want banks to enact changes in lending rates through their respective benchmark base rates for floating-rate loans.

Moody’s cut India’s Growth Forecast to 5.5 Percent

Moody's Analytics cut India's growth forecast to 5.5 percent for the fiscal year 2012-13, as it blamed government or RBI of inaction despite slowing economy, as well as a poor monsoon. The research unit of ratings agency Moody's Investors Service becomes the latest to cut India's growth forecasts this week.

Earlier CLSA and Citigroup had cut their growth outlooks for India to 5.4 percent and 5.5 percent, respectively for the fiscal year ending in March 2013. Moody’s noted despite the slowing growth both the government and the Reserve Bank of India had provided little policy response. Moody's added weaker-than-average rainfalls during the monsoon period would also weigh on India's growth. The research unit also cut its 2013 growth forecast to 6 percent from 6.2 percent.

India’s FDI Inflow plunged 53 Percent in April-June Quarter of Fiscal 2012-13

According to the FDI data released by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 10 August 2012, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) inflow in India declined to 5.4 billion dollar in the April-June quarter of fiscal 2012-13. The figure stood at 12.2 billion dollar during the same period of fiscal 2011-12.

On a cumulative basis FDI flows into India registered a fall of 53 percent as it was estimated at 7.7 billion dollar in the first quarter of the financial year 2012-13 compared to 16.3 billion dollar during the corresponding period of previous year.

Overall foreign investment, however, remained on positive trajectory with inflows estimated to have declined nearly 83 percent to 2 billion dollar, compared to 11.6 billion dollar in April-June 2011.

With poor show on investment front and higher trade deficit, India’s balance of payment is likely to aggravate further. As per the RBI data released on Balance of Payment for the last quarter of fiscal 2011-12, the trade deficit exceeded 50 billion dollar (10.6 per cent of GDP) and current account deficit rose to 21.7 billion dollar (4.5 per cent of GDP).

Current Account Deficit (CAD)

India’s current account deficit (CAD) was at 30-year record high of 4.2 per cent of the GDP in 2011-12. CAD occurs when country’s total imports and transfers exceeds its total exports and transfers. High level of CAD leads to the deterioration in the value of a currency, while it also hurts the economy.

India’s Exports declined to 22.4 Billion Dollar in July 2012

India’s exports for the month of July 2012 stood at 22.4 billion dollar registering a decline of - 14.8 percent as compared to 26.3 billion dollar during the same month of 2011. Imports during July 2012 stood at 37.9 billion dollar as compared to 41.1 billion dollar in July 2011. Balance of Trade stood at 15.5 billion dollar during July 2012 as compared to 14.8 billion dollar in July 2011. The trade data were released by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry on 14 August 2012.

The cumulative figure for exports for the period of April-July 2012 stood at 97.6 billion dollar as compared to 102.8 billion dollar in April-July 2011; The cumulative figure for imports for April-July 2012 stood at 153.2 billion dollar as compared to 163.8 billion dollar in April-July 2011. The cumulative figure for the Balance of Trade for the period of April-July 2012 stood at 55.6 billion dollar as compared to 61.0 billion dollar in April-July 2011.

PMEAC pegged India’s Growth at 6.7 Percent in the Fiscal Year 2012-13

According to the Economic Outlook 2012-13 released by Prime Minister Economic Advisory Council on 17 August 2012, India’s economy will grow at 6.7 percent in the financial year 2012-13. India economy had registered 6.5 percent growth in the fiscal 2011-12, which was the lowest in the past nine years.

The council also raised the projection for inflation to about 6.5 – 7 percent from earlier 5 – 6 percent.

The government’s fiscal deficit is expected to go up to 6 percent in the financial year 2012-13 as compared to 5.8 percent in the previous fiscal.

The current account deficit of the government pegged at 67. 1 billion dollar (3.6 percent of GDP).

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) had earlier lowered its growth projection for 2012-13 to 6.5 per cent from 7.3 per cent estimated earlier. Other global agencies had also cut their growth forecast for Indian economy on the account of paralyzed policy reforms, high policy rates and weak monsoon.

The PMEAC in its report advised the government to take some concrete measures to reverse the pessimistic economic environment in the country. To accelerate the stalled reform council Chairman C Rangrajan urged the government to open multi-brand retail to foreign investment. It also recommended the government to raise diesel prices in one or more steps to moderate the widening fiscal deficit.

India’s Retail Inflation declined to 9.86 percent in July 2012

According to the retail inflation data released by Central Statistics Office (CSO), on 21 August 2012, India’s Consumer Price Index (CPI) based retail inflation came down to 9.86 percent in July 2012. The retail inflation number for June 2012 was revised downwards to 9.93 per cent from the provisional estimate of 10.02 per cent.

Prices of vegetables, edible oil, egg, meat, fish, pulses shot up considerably keeping the overall retail inflation high during the month of July.

Inflation rates for rural and urban areas stood at 9.76 per cent and 10.10 per cent in July 2012. As per the revised data, the inflation rates for rural and urban areas stood at 9.65 per cent and 10.44 per cent in June 2012.

The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) based headline inflation also declined to 6.87 percent in July 2012. The WPI inflation stood at 7.25 percent in June 2012.

Regulator SEBI permitted seven Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to start Operation in India

Market regulator Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in August 2012 permitted seven Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to start operation in India under a newly formulated route that enable pooling of funds for investments in areas such as real estate, private equity and hedge funds. Six AIFs registered with the regulator in August 2012, while one was granted registration back on 23 July 2012. SEBI had published its guidelines with regard to AIF in May 2012.

The seven AIFs that registered with SEBI include IFCI Syncamore India Infrastructure Fund, Utthishta Yekum Fund, Indiaquotient Investment Trust, Forefront Alternate Investment Trust, Excedo Realty Fund, Sabre Partners Trust and KKR India Alternate Credit Opportunities Fund.

Funds established or incorporated in India for the purpose of pooling in of capital from Indian and foreign investors for investing would have to follow a pre-decided policy. SEBI decided to allow promoters of listed companies can offload 10 per cent of equity to AIFs such as such as SME Funds, Infrastructure Funds, PE funds and Venture Capital Funds registered with the market regulator to attain minimum 25 per cent public holding.

AIFs, as per SEBI guidelines can operate broadly in three categories and it is mandatory for them to get registered with the regulator. The SEBI rules apply to all AIFs, including those operating as private equity funds, real estate funds and hedge funds, among others.

Union Finance Ministry approved 49 Percent FDI in Insurance and Pension Sector

In a move aimed at encouraging investment sentiment in the country, the Union Finance Ministry on 22 August 2012 approved 49 percent foreign direct investment in insurance and pension sector. Earlier the permitted level of FDI in the insurance and pension sector was 26 percent.

The proposal for 49 percent FDI in insurance and pension sector was made during Pranab Mukherjee’s tenure at the finance minister office. However, the decision on the same was delayed because of resistance from the cronies.

With the approval of Union Finance Ministry, the bill will now be discussed in the cabinet and will require to be approved by the parliament. The chances of the bill getting through in the monsoon session of the parliament are very low as opposition parties have been consistently stalling the house on the issue of coal scam. The monsoon session is set to end on 27 August 2012.

Indian economy is rapidly moving towards the grim economic situation similar faced during the recession. The economy needs some big ticket reforms to reverse the pessimistic economic environment. India's GDP growth fell to 6.5 percent during 2011-12 but the fourth quarter growth rate dropped to 5.3 percent, the slowest in past nine years. Business confidence among the investors and business leaders has touched the historic low as industrial output and trade figures are constantly going down.

The tight monetary policy measures adopted by the central bank to check inflation has actually aggravated the situation as high interest rates are hugely impacting the overall growth scenario. Indian industries have been reiterating that there is an urgent need to create conditions for revival of private investment.

The FDI in insurance might prove to be a start of the long pending reform but the Union Finance Minister P Chidambaram will have to work hard on political front to make it possible. Earlier the

government had to defer the decision on the bill as it faced opposition from its allies such as Trinammol Congress.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transferred a Surplus of Rs 16010 crore to the Union Government

The Reserve Bank of India in its annual report released on 23 August 2012 mentioned that it transferred a surplus of Rs 16010 crore to the union government during 2011-12 which is 6.7% more than Rs 15,009 crore transferred in 2010-11.The central bank’s gross income increased by 43.4% to Rs 53176 crore in 2011-12. Its expenditure however rose by 17.1% to Rs 10137 core. After transfers to the contingency reserve, the asset development reserve and the four statutory funds, Rs 16010 crore was allocated for transfer to the centre.

The Reserve Bank recorded a sharp rise in its income from domestic resources as it aggressively bought bonds through its open market operations. However, the lower interest rates in the advanced markets led to a dip in income from foreign currency assets for the third consecutive year.

The earnings from domestic sources increased by Rs 17446 crore to Rs 33366 crore in 2011-12, an increase of 109.6% earned from liquidity adjustment facility (LAF) operations, higher coupon receipts on an increased portfolio of government securities and profit on sale of securities.

The Reserve Bank’s earnings from the deployment of foreign currency assets (FCA) and gold fell 6.3% to Rs 9810 crore in 2011-12. The rate of earnings on FCA and gold was lower at 1.47% in 2011-12, compared with 1.74% in 2010-11 because of the low interest rates in international markets.

SEBI allowed Partial Flexibility in IDRs for Investors

India’s market regulator Security and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) on 28 August 2012 allowed partial flexibility in the conversion of Indian Depository Receipts (IDRs) into equity shares by investors. The SEBI move is aimed at retaining domestic liquidity besides; it is also expected to attract foreign entities to enroll their IDRs on India stock exchanges.

In another circular released by the RBI, the central bank put an overall cap of 5 billion dollar for raising of capital through IDRs by foreign companies in Indian markets. The RBI measure will help Indian investors to convert their depository receipts into equity shares of the issuer company and vice versa.

CORPORATE

SBI reduced Interest Rate on Home and Car Loans by Up to 0.5 Percent

India’s leading bank State Bank of India (SBI) on 1 August 2012 reduced its interest rate on home and car loans by up to 0.5 percent. The new interest rate will be effective from 7 August 2012. It has reduced the interest rate on home loans of up to 30 lakh rupees from 10.50 percent to 10.25 percent. Whereas, the loan more than 30 lakh to 75 lakh, the interest rate is 10.40 percent against 10.75 percent.

SBI new car loans are likely to be available at an interest rate of 10.75 percent against previous rate of 11.25 percent for 7 years. It makes customers to pay 1699 rupees EMI for every 1 lakh rupees against 1725 rupees EMI per month earlier. The reduction is likely to save 312 rupees per year on every one lakh.

SBI reduced the interest rate on the deposits of more than 5 years

India’s leading bank State Bank of India (SBI) on 2 August 2012 reduced the interest rate on the deposits of five year and above to 8.5 percent. The new interest rate will be effective from 7 August 2012. Currently, SBI is providing 8.75 percent interest on the deposits of 15 lakh or below and 9 percent on the deposits from 15 lakh to 1 crore. Recently, SBI on 1 August 2012 announced 0.50 percent reduced interest rate on home and car loans.

However, India’s third largest bank Punjab National Bank (PNB) raised the interest rate on single deposit by 0.25 percent against 8.75 percent for the maturity of less than 1 crore rupees for one year

Gilead Sciences signed with 3 Indian companies for low-cost HIV drugs

World’s biggest HIV drugs maker Gilead Sciences on 2 August 2012 signed deals with three Indian firms to promote its low-cost generic versions of its HIV medicine EMTRICITABINE in developing countries. The three firms are Ranbaxy, Strides Arcolab and Mylan Laboratories.

The partnership is likely to help the Indian firms to produce high volumes of emtricitabine and tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) based HIV medicines and to maintain price equality to regimen.

Gilead Sciences is one of the world’s biggest makers of HIV drugs. The company licensed HIV medications to 13 Indian companies. There are more than 2.5 million HIV patients in developing countries who receive a TDF-containing regimen.

National Housing Bank cut Interest Rate by up to 1 percent for Urban Low Income Group

Housing finance industry regulator National Housing Bank (NHB) on 2 August 2012 reduced interest rate up to 1 percent on refinance to banks and housing finance companies to support affordable finance for urban low income group having income above 15000 rupees per month.

NHB is likely to be lower refinance rate by reduction in its lending rates by 0.75 to 1 percent under this special refinance scheme for urban low income housing (LIH).

Refinance (replacing an older loan with a new loan offering better terms) is likely to be extended from 5 and 15 years at fixed rates. The new interest rates on NHB refinance is 9 percent against 10 percent up to 2 lakh rupees loan and from 2 to 5 lakh rupees, the rate is 0.75 percent lower at 9.25 percent.

NHB is also providing long-term fixed rate refinance at reasonable interest rates for construction and purchase of houses in urban areas for low income group.

Micro Technologies India introduced Micro Call Blocker for unsolicited Calls & SMS

Micro Technologies India Ltd on 3 August 2012 introduced an application Micro Call Blocker to detect and block unwanted calls and SMSs. The application is offering to first 10000 users for free.

The new application introduced to put an end to the majority of unwanted calls and SMSs.

Micro Technologies is a leading India-based IT company. It offers security solutions. The company’s objective is to display technological innovation with product expansion in number of segments of vehicle, premises, mobile, other assets and energy and health.

Jet Airways Tied Up with HDFC Bank and Launched Credit Cards

The Jet Airways tied up with the HDFC bank in order to launch the ‘Jet Privilege-HDFC Bank Credit’. This is a range of credit cards which will offer benefits and rewards in the form of JP Miles. The credit card would be offered in world, platinum and titanium variants on the Master card platform.

The Jet Privileged-HDFC Bank World Credit Card allows members to enjoy several lifestyle benefits, including six JP Miles for every rupees one fifty spent and another ten thousand JP Miles with in the first ninety days.

The partnership will enable cardholders to sum up all their spending into one account with rewards in the form of JP Miles. The bank issues nearly ninety thousand cards a month and now its customer base stands at five point seven million.

M&M signed MoU with Oriental Bank for Personal and Commercial Vehicle Financing

Mahindra & Mahindra on 17 August 2012 signed a MoU with the Oriental Bank of Commerce (OBC) for personal and commercial vehicle financing. Customers of Mahindra & Mahindra will be able to take advantage of these services at any of OBC’s 1808 branches. M&M has 250 dealer outlets.

The MoU was signed by Arun Malhotra, Senior Vice - President, Sales & Customer Care - Mahindra & Mahindra and Atul Gautam, General Manager, Oriental Bank of Commerce.

Bharti Group sold its Stake in Centum Learning to Everonn Education

Leading Indian business house the Bharti group sold its group company Centum Learning to Everonn Education. As per the terms of the transaction the Bharti group will receive a combination of cash and equity shares in Everonn. The deal of the size was, however, not revealed by the Bharti group. The deal is in line with the company’s stated objective of concentrating its energy in core businesses.

BSE-listed Everonn is now run by the Dubai-based Varkey Group/GEMS Education after Everonn's former managing director P Kishore was forced to step down on accusations of bribery by the CBI. The company provides end-to-end training programmes and skill development solutions. With this acquisition, Everonn will aim to expand its reach in the Indian training space by adding corporate training, the flagship product of Centum, as a new vertical.

SpiceJet announced launch of Two Daily Flights to Jabalpur from Delhi and Mumbai

SpiceJet on 22 August 2012 announced launch of two daily flights to Jabalpur from Delhi and Mumbai from 7 September 2012.Jabalpur would be the third destination of the low-cost airline in Madhya Pradesh after Bhopal and Indore. SpiceJet would be deploying its newly acquired Bombardier Q400 NextGen Turboprop aircraft, which can accommodate 78 passengers on these two routes.

IDBI Bank Ltd entered into a MoU with SMERA to evaluate its MSME

IDBI Bank Ltd entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with SME Rating Agency of India Ltd (SMERA) to evaluate its existing as well as potential MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise) clients. This will make it easier for IDBI to get information and expedite the credit decision in lending to the prospective MSME customers.

IDBI has agreements with rating agencies such as CARE and Crisil to rate its prospective MSME clients. IDBI Bank’s outstanding MSME lending was estimated at 17000 crore rupees on 31March 2012.

The net non performing assets (NPAs) for the segment (MSME) increased to 2.29 per cent in financial year 2012 as compared with 1.83 per cent in financial year 2011.

HSBC sold its Entire Stake to Federal Bank for 341 Crore Rupees

Banking major HSBC on 28 August 2012 sold its entire stake in Kerala-based private sector lender Federal Bank. HSBC sold its 5 percent stake in Federal Bank through open market transaction for 341 crore rupees.

HSBC was holding 85.16 lakh shares of Federal Bank, which it sold on an average price of 401.04 rupees.

Earlier in June 2012, HSBC had sold its total stake in Axis Bank and Yes Bank for 2425 crore rupees. The UK-based bank held 4.75 percent and 4.76 percent in Axis Bank and Yes Bank respectively.

Jammu and Kashmir Bank was Awarded Best Banker Prize

Jammu and Kashmir Bank on 20 August 2012 won four national awards - THE SUNDAY STANDARD FINWIZ-2012 BEST BANKERS’ AWARDS. The Bank was awarded Best Banker in FINANCIAL INCLUSION AND CUSTOMER FRIENDLINESS and declared runner up for BEST BANKER IN PRIORITY SECTOR GROWTH AND AGRICULTURAL CREDIT.

The Sunday Standard is a part of the New Indian Express Group which is based in Chennai. It had engaged Indicus Analytics- India’s premier economic research agency- to conduct a survey and find out India’s best bankers.

The surveyors highlighted the J&K Bank’s contribution in facilitating the workings of the economy and contributing to its growth by promoting entrepreneurs and innovation.

GAIL signed pact with French Energy Giant GDF Suez to import LNG

State-owned gas utility GAIL India on 26 August 2012 signed a contract with French energy giant GDF Suez to import 0.8 million tones of liquefied natural gas (LNG) from 2013 to 2014. GDF would supply six cargoes of LNG in 2013 beginning January and an equal number in 2014. It will supply one cargo once in two months, most probably from its Yemen portfolio.

As per the agreement, GDF will supply six cargoes of LNG in 2013 and an equal number in 2014. The LNG could be imported at Dahej terminal of Petronet LNG Ltd in Gujarat or Kochi import facility in Kerala. The gas in its liquid form could be shipped to the Dabhol terminal in Maharashtra.

GDF holds a 10-per cent stake in Petronet LNG Ltd. It had in November 2011 agreed to supply 9 cargoes of LNG to Petronet LNG Ltd. GAIL owns and operates over 9,500-km of natural gas pipeline network in India..

Apple won Patent Infringement Case against Samsung

US technology giant Apple on 24 August 2012 won a 1-billion dollar patent case against Samsung after a California court ruled that the South Korean firm stole a series of Apple’s patents pertaining to software and design of mobile devices such as the iPhone and iPad.

The 9-member jury held that Apple’s patents were valid and the company did not violate any of Samsung’s patents. The jury rejected Samsung’s claim that some of Apple’s patents should be declared invalid. The jury also rejected Samsung’s counterclaims, declaring that Apple did not infringe on Samsung’s patents with the iPhone and the iPod Touch.

SPORTS

London Olympics 2012 concluded as US topped the Medal Tally

The 30th Summer Olympics (London Olympics 2012) concluded in London on 12 August 2012. The 17-day event was inaugurated at Olympic Stadium at the Olympic Park in East London on 27 July 2012. London Olympics witnessed nearly 10500 athletes from 204 National Olympic Committees participating in as many as 26 sports events.

At the end of the game US topped the medal tally with a total of 104 medals (46 Gold+29 Silver+ 29 Silver) followed by China, which bagged a total of 88 medals (38 Gold+27 Silver+23 Bronze). Great Britain with 65 medals (29 Gold+17 Silver+19 Bronze), Russia with 82 medals (24 Gold+26 Silver+32 Bronze) and South Korea with 27 medals (13 Gold+8 Silver+6 Bronze) finished third, fourth and fifth respectively. India with a total of 6 medals (2 Silver+4Bronze) finished 55th on the medal tally.

India at London Olympics 2012

India had sent 83-member team to the London Olympics 2012, which is the largest ever contingent sent by Indian Olympic Association in the Olympics. India’s total number of medals in London Olympics 2012 stood at a record haul of six medals. Shooter Vijay Kumar bagged the silver medal in the 25 m Rapid Fire event, while MC Mary Kom, five-time world women's boxing champion, ace shuttler Saina Nehwal and rifle shooter Gagan Narang won India bronze medals. Gagan Narang opened India’s account at the medal tally after he won bronze in shooting event on 30 July 2012.

India’s men's hockey team badly disappointed those who were expecting them to reclaim the lost glory of Indian hockey. The team in a show of disastrous performance finished 12th and at the bottom most as they lost all their six matches. It was the worst-ever performance by the Indian hockey team in the history of Olympics. Prior to this the worst ever performance of the Indian Hockey team came in 1996 Atlanta Olympics when it had finished 8th.

Besides, major medal hopes for the country such as Beijing Gold medalist Abhinav Bindra in shooting and Deepika in Archery also could not meet with the expectations of the people, as they squarely failed to deliver a medal winning performance. Beijing bronze medalist Vijender Kumar also failed to recreate the magic in the boxing ring as he lost to Uzbekistan's Abbos Atoev 17-13 in the quarterfinals.

India's History in Summer Olympics

India started participating in Summer Olympics from Paris Olympics 1900 after Norman Pritchard, an Anglo-Indian, participated in two events and claimed silver in both the events. India first sent its contingent to Summer Olympics in Antwerp Olympics 1920 and has sent its team in every Olympics since then. In the last 112 years of modern Olympics India has won

mere nine gold and 8 of them are in hockey and one in individual shooting event. After 6 medal haul at the London Olympics 2012 total number of medals won by India now stands at 26.

Major Medal winning Performances at London Olympics 2012

• Michael Phelps bagged 6 medals (4 Gold + 2 Silver) in swimming, becoming the most decorated Olympian ever with 22 medals.

• Jamaican sprinter Usain Bolt clinched three gold in three separate events (100 meter race, 200 meter race and 4X100 meter relay team race). He won the 100 meters gold medal with a time of 9.63 seconds, setting a new Olympic record for that distance. He took 19.32 seconds to clinch 200 meters gold. With a storming victory in both 100 and 200 meters race he became the only sprinter in the history to defend both Olympic titles.

• Germany beat Netherlands 2-1 to win men’s hockey gold.

• Mexico beat Brazil 2-1 to win Soccer gold

• United States defeated Spain to win men’s Basketball gold

• Andy Murray of Great Britain beat Roger Federer of Switzerland to win tennis men’s singles gold

• Russia defeated Brazil to win men’s volleyball gold

• Dan Lin of China beat Malaysian Chong Wei Lee to clinch Badminton men’s singles gold

Mascot for London Olympics 2012

Mascots have been a part of Olympic Games since Munich 1972, when Waldi, a dachshund, was the symbol of the Munich games. The mascots of London Games were Wenlock and Mandeville. While Wenlock is a mascot of Olympics, Mandeville is mascot for Paralympics. These are two ultra-modern one-eyed creatures.

Medal Tally – London Olympics 2012

Rank by Gold

Country Gold Silver Bronze Total

1 United States of America 46 29 29 104

2 People's Republic of China 38 27 23 88

3 Great Britain 29 17 19 65

4 Russian Federation 24 26 32 82

5 Republic of Korea 13 8 7 28

6 Germany 11 19 14 44

7 France 11 11 12 34

8 Italy 8 9 11 28

9 Hungary 8 4 5 17

10 Australia 7 16 12 35

11 Japan 7 14 17 38

12 Kazakhstan 7 1 5 13

13 Netherlands 6 6 8 20

14 Ukraine 6 5 9 20

15 New Zealand 6 2 5 13

16 Cuba 5 3 6 14

17 Islamic Republic of Iran 4 5 3 12

18 Jamaica 4 4 4 12

19 Czech Republic 4 3 3 10

20 Democratic People's Republic of Korea

4 0 2 6

21 Spain 3 10 4 17

22 Brazil 3 5 9 17

23 South Africa 3 2 1 6

24 Ethiopia 3 1 3 7

25 Croatia 3 1 2 6

26 Belarus 2 5 5 12

27 Romania 2 5 2 9

28 Kenya 2 4 5 11

29 Denmark 2 4 3 9

30 Azerbaijan 2 2 6 10

30 Poland 2 2 6 10

32 Turkey 2 2 1 5

33 Switzerland 2 2 0 4

34 Lithuania 2 1 2 5

35 Norway 2 1 1 4

36 Canada 1 5 12 18

37 Sweden 1 4 3 8

38 Colombia 1 3 4 8

39 Georgia 1 3 3 7

39 Mexico 1 3 3 7

41 Ireland 1 1 3 5

42 Argentina 1 1 2 4

42 Slovenia 1 1 2 4

42 Serbia 1 1 2 4

45 Tunisia 1 1 1 3

46 Dominican Republic 1 1 0 2

47 Trinidad and Tobago 1 0 3 4

47 Uzbekistan 1 0 3 4

49 Latvia 1 0 1 2

50 Algeria 1 0 0 1

50 Bahamas 1 0 0 1

50 Grenada 1 0 0 1

50 Uganda 1 0 0 1

50 Venezuela 1 0 0 1

55 India 0 2 4 6

56 Mongolia 0 2 3 5

57 Thailand 0 2 1 3

58 Egypt 0 2 0 2

59 Slovakia 0 1 3 4

60 Armenia 0 1 2 3

60 Belgium 0 1 2 3

60 Finland 0 1 2 3

63 Bulgaria 0 1 1 2

63 Estonia 0 1 1 2

63 Indonesia 0 1 1 2

63 Malaysia 0 1 1 2

63 Puerto Rico 0 1 1 2

63 Taipei (Chinese Taipei) 0 1 1 2

69 Botswana 0 1 0 1

69 Cyprus 0 1 0 1

69 Gabon 0 1 0 1

69 Guatemala 0 1 0 1

69 Montenegro 0 1 0 1

69 Portugal 0 1 0 1

75 Greece 0 0 2 2

75 Republic of Moldova 0 0 2 2

75 Qatar 0 0 2 2

75 Singapore 0 0 2 2

79 Afghanistan 0 0 1 1

79 Bahrain 0 0 1 1

79 Hong Kong, China 0 0 1 1

79 Saudi Arabia 0 0 1 1

79 Kuwait 0 0 1 1

79 Morocco 0 0 1 1

79 Tajikistan 0 0 1 1

Michel Phelps became the Most Successful Athlete in the Olympic History

US swimmer Michel Phelps became the most successful athlete in the history of Olympic games after he won the gold medal in 4x200 metre freestyle relay in final race at the Aquatic Centre on 31 July 2012.

Phelps, with playing his 4th Olympics, made his individual Olympic tally to 19 (15 gold, two silver and two bronze), surpassing the 18 won by Soviet gymnast Larisa Latynina between 1956 and 1964.

He first swam at the Olympics in 2000 Sydney Olympics, when he was just 15. He became the youngest American male swimmer in 68 years and placed fifth in the 200m butterfly. He also holds the world record in swimming when he swam1:54.92 in the 200m butterfly event in March 2001.

Six-time winner of the World Swimmer of the Year Award, Phelps has to his credit the record of winning maximum number of gold medals (8) won in a single Olympics, the feat he achieved hduring 2008 Beijing Games surpassing American swimmer Mark Spitz's seven-gold record at Munich in 1972.

Vijay Kumar bagged Silver in Olympics 25 Metre Rapid Fire Pistol Event

In a battle for Olympic medal in the individual 25 metre rapid fire pistol event, Indian shooter Vijay Kumar clinched the silver on 3 August 2012. Kumar hit the target 30 times out of 40 attempts in the series comprising eight rounds of five shots each. Leuris Pupo of Cuba, whi clinced the gold clinched scored 34 out of 40. Chinese marksman Ding Feng bagged the bronze.

He was born on 19 August 1985 in Hamirpur district of Himachal Pradesh and is presently a Subedar in the Indian Army’s 16th Dogra Regiment. He booked his place at the London Olympics when he won a silver medal at the shooting World Cup in Fort Benning, US in 2011. He has more than 20 international medals and 75 national medals to his credit. He had won 3 gold medals and one silver medal in the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in Delhi. 2006 Commonwealth Games held in Melbourne saw him winning two gold medals in two separate shooting events. In one of the major achievements in 2009 ISSF World Cup held in Beijing he bagged Silver missing the gold by mere 0.1 point.

Acknowledging his excellent track record and medal winning performances, the India government awarded him with the Arjuna Award in year 2007.

Saina Nehwal clinched Bronze in Women’s Singles Badminton Event at London Olympics 2012

Ace Indian shuttler Saina Nehawal won India its third medal at London Olympics 2012 after she clinched a bronze in women's singles badminton event played at Wembley Arena on 4 August 2012. Saina bagged the bronze after her Chinese opponent Xin Wang conceded the match due to a knee injury. Xin Wang was one game point ahead of Saina when she decided to quit the game due to the unbearable pain. Chinese shuttlers Li Xuerui and Wang Yihan won the gold and silver medals respectively.

Saina’s bronze marked India’s third medal at London Olympics 2012 and twelfth individual medal in the history of modern oympics. The previous two medals came in shooting events. While Gagan Narang won India its first bronze in the London Olympics on 30 July 2012, Vijay Kumar clinched silver on 3 August 2012. With this victory, Saina became the second Indian woman after Karanam Malleshwari to win a medal in the history of olympics. Karnam Malleshwari had earned India a bronze in weight lifting event in 2000 Sydney Olympics.

Born in Hisar, Haryana on 17 March 1990, Saina Nehwal turned a professional shuttler in 2006. Year 2008 saw her winning the World Junior Badminton Championships. In 2008 Beijing Olympics she had reached the quarter-finals round becoming the first Indian woman to reach the quarter finals in the Olympic Games. In year 2009, she won the Indonesia Open Title, becoming the first Indian to win a BWF Super Series title. Saina’s career best ranking came in 2010 when she rose to world number two position.

Former Indonesian badminton great Atil Jauhari is the present coach of Saina while, national coach Pullela Gopichand is her mentor.

Saina was awarded with the Arjuna Award in 2009 and Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, the highest award given to a sportsperson in the country, in year 2010. The government of India also conferred Padm Shree, the fourth highest civilian award in India, upon her in 2010.

Jamaican Sprinter Usain Bolt won Gold in Men’s 100 Meter Race, set Olympic Record

Jamaican sprinter Usain Bolt won gold in men’s 100 meter race with 9.63 seconds, fastest in the history of Olympics. His compatriot Yohan Blake came second as he took 9.75 second to complete the race. US’ sprinter Justin Gatlin grabbed bronze with 9.79 seconds.

Bolt holds a world record of 9.58 second in 100 meter racing, the record he set at the Berlin World Championships in 2009. With it, he now has the three fastest 100 meters in history next to his name. He is only the second Olympic champion in the 100 meters to defend his title after United State's Carl Lewis.

Mary Kom bagged Bronze in Women Flyweight Boxing at London Olympics 2012

In a bout fought on 8 August 2012 at the Excel Arena, star Indian female Boxer Mary Kom got India its fourth medal in the London Olympics 2012, giving the country its biggest medal haul in the history of modern Olympics. The ace pugilist, however, knocked out of the Olympic Games flyweight (51 kg) semi-finals after she suffered an 11-6 defeat in the hand of Britain’s Nicola Adams.

Mangte Chungneijang Mary Kom popularly called Mary Kom or Magnificent Mary got her place secured at London Olympics 2012 after winning 2012 AIBA Women's World Boxing Championship held in Qinhuangdao, China from 9 May to 22 May 2012. There too she had suffered a defeat to Nicola Adams in the quarter-finals.

Kicking off her Olympics campaign on 5 August 2012, Mary Kom had beat Karolina Michalczuk of Poland 19-14 in the in the first round. In the quarter-final, the following day, she defeated Maroua Rahali of Tunisia 15-6, securing one medal for the country. This was the first time when the women boxing event was introduced in the Olympic games.

Born on 1 March 1983 in Kangathei in Manipur, India, Mary Kom turned professional boxer after her victory in the Manipur state women's boxing championship in 2000. Mary made her international debut at the first AIBA Women's World Boxing Championship held in the United States, where she bagged a silver medal in the 48 kg weight category. Subsequently she won a gold medal in the 45 kg class at the second AIBA Women's WorldBoxing Championship in Turkey in 2002. Kom has total 5 world boxing championship titles in his name.

The government of India had awarded her with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, country’s highest award given to sports persons, in 2009. Besides she was also given the Arjuna Award in 2003 and Padma Shree Award in 2006. She was also appointed the International Boxing Association’s Ambassador for Women’s Boxing in 2009.

India bagged Record Six Medals in London Olympics 2012 as Sushil Kumar settled for Silver

Sushil Kumar, the star Indian grappler, won India its sixth medal on the very last day in London Olympics 2012. The wrestler bagged the silver after his Japanese opponent Tatsuhiro Yonemitsu overpowered him 3-1 in the gold medal bout in the 66-kg freestyle category on 12 August 2012.

With this victory Susheel Kumar also got his name written in the sports history annals of the country as became the first ever Indian sportsperson to win individual medals in two successive Olympic Games. Kumar had won a bronze at the 2008 Beijing Games.

In a separate 60-kg wrestling event, Yogeshwar Dutt, another Indian wrestler won India a bronze medal. Dutt defeated North Korea's Ri Jong Myong in the bronze medal bout on 9 August 2012.

With the two medals in wrestling India took the total number of its medals in London Olympics 2012 at a record haul of six medals. Shooter Vijay Kumar bagged the silver medal in the 25 m Rapid Fire event, while MC Mary Kom, five-time world women's boxing champion, ace shuttler Saina Nehwal and rifle shooter Gagan Narang won India bronze medals. Gagan Narang opened India’s account at the medal tally after he won bronze in shooting event on 30 July 2012.

VVS Laxman announced Retirement from International Cricket

V.V.S. Laxman, on 18 August 2012 announced his retirement from international cricket, ending a glorious career spanning 16 years. Laxman played 134 Tests, amassing 8781 runs at an average of 45.97. He scored 17 hundreds and 56 half centuries and earned the sobriquet Very Very Special. Laxman made his Test debut in 1996 against South Africa at Ahmedabad.

Laxman, played 86 ODI matches for an aggregate of 2338 at an average of 30.76. But he could never become the part of Indian team in any cricket world cup edition.

Rory Mcllroy won the US PGA Golf Championship

Rory Mcllroy won the US PGA Golf Championship at Kaiwah island on 12 August 2012, claiming his second major title with a record-setting eight-shot victory. With this victory Mcllroy also became world number one player surpassing Luke Donald.

23-year Mcllroy, hit a six-uneder 66 to finish 13 under, while, David Lynn and Ian Poulter finished second and third respectively. Tiger Woods, four-time winner of the title, faltered to a level par 72 and two under total.

Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore appointed as the head of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awards Committee

Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore, the silver medallist of Athens Olympics 2004, was named the head of the 15-member committee, set up to select the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Awardee and Arjun Award winners. Aslam Sher Khan, the former hockey team skipper, was named the head of the 15-member committee that will select the Dronacharya Awardees.

Rajeev Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is the highest sports award in the country. The award consists of a cash award of 7.5 lakh rupees, a scroll of honour and a medal. Arjuna Awards, the second highest awards given to sportspersons, carries a scroll of honour, and a cash award of five lakh rupees. Dronacharya Awards are given to the coaches of different sports for their remarkable contribution. The Dronacharya Awards are consisted of a plaque, a scroll of honour, ceremonial dress and a cash award of five lakh rupees.

Roger Federer and Li Na won Cincinnati Masters

World no. 1 tennis player Roger Federer won a record fifth Western & Southern Open Title (Cincinnati Masters) at Cincinnati on 19 August 2012. Federer beat second seeded Novak Djokovic 6-0, 7-6, (9-7). This was the first time when top-seeded men’s players clashed in the final of Cincinnati Masters.

In women’s singles final China’s Li Na beat German Angelique Kerbar to win her first title of the season. Li Na overcame the terrible first set to record a 1-6, 6-3, 6-1 victory over her rival.

To make it to the final, Li defeated American wild card Venus Williams in the semifinals. Kerber, meanwhile defeated Petra Kvitova, the winner over Li in Montreal, in her semifinal match at night on Center Court. Defending Champion Maria Sharapova withdrew from the tournament due to illness.

South Africa replaced England as the World’s Number One Cricket Team

South Africa replaced England as the World’s Number One Test Cricket team. The feat was achieved after its 2-0 victory over England in the three Test-match series, which ended at Lord’s Cricket Ground in London on 21 August 2012. England had been the top team in the Reliance ICC Test Championship table since August 2011 when it dethroned India while South Africa has assumed the number one spot for the first time since November 2009. Here is the latest ICC Test Championship table given in the box.

Note: Zimbabwe is presently unranked, as it has played insufficient matches.

Vijay Kumar and Yogeshwar Dutt chosen for Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2012

London Olympics silver medalist Vijay Kumar and Bronze medalist Yogeshwar Dutt will be conferred with the country’s highest sporting honour Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2012. Besides, 25 sportspersons will be presented the Arjuna Awards, the second highest sports award in the country. The awards were announced by the Union Sports Ministry on 19 August 2012.

Usually the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award is given to only one sportsperson in one calendar year but the rule can be relaxed in special circumstances such as an Olympic medal. Pistol shooter Vijay Kumar bagged silver in the 25m rapid fire event at the London Olympics, while wrestler Yogeshwar Dutt claimed a bronze in 60kg free style event.

Ankur Mittal won the Bronze Medal in the Fourth International Junior Shotgun Cup

Ankur Mittal won the bronze medal in double trap in the fourth International junior shotgun Cup in Orimattila, Finland. He scored 177 points.

Mittal had scored 45, 41 and 45 in qualification and 46 in the final. Shayan Masood, the other Indian came fourth, one point behind. He had scored 130 in qualification following a series of 43, 45 and 42.

The results of Men’s double trap: 1. Artem Nekrasov (Rus) 190 (142); 2. Kiril Fokeev (Rus) 183 (139); 3. Ankur Mittal 177 (131); 4. Shayan Masood 176 (130).

India defeated Australia to win ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup

India defeated host and defending champion Australia to win ICC Under-19 Cricket World Cup. In the final match played at Townsville in Australia on 26 August 2012, the Indian under -19 squad led by Unmukt Chand beat Australian side by 6 wickets. Skipper Unmukt Chand scored unbeaten 111 runs leading his team to a glorious victory.

Batting first the Australian team scored 225 runs with the loss of 8 wickets. Australian captain William Bosisto scored unbeaten 87 runs. India started strongly but lost 4 wickets on just 97 runs. Subsequently skipper Chand guided the Indian team to a 6 wickets victory in the 48th over.

William Bosisto, the Australian skipper received the Man of the Tournament award. Anamul Haque of Bangladesh scored 365 runs, highest in the tournament. Reece Topley of England claimed 19 wickets and remained the leading wicket taker of the tournament.

This victory marked third under-19 world cup title for India after Mohammad Kaif in 2000 and Virat Kohli in 2008 had led the team to the tournament victory.

A total of 16 teams participated in the tournament. The teams were put into four groups A, B, C and D. India was placed in group C along with Papua New Guinea, West Indies and Zimbabwe. Australia was placed in group A alongside Ireland, England and Nepal.

England’s test team captain Andrew Strauss retired from International Cricket

England’s test team captain Andrew Strauss announced his retirement from international cricket on 29 August 2012. Under Strauss’ captaincy the England team witnessed back-to-back Ashes wins over Australia and reached to the top of the test rankings. He was appointed the skipper of English team in 2009 replacing Kevin Pietersen.

A left-hand batsman, Strauss made his first class debut in year 1998 and one-day international debut in 2003 against Sri Lanka. Strauss made his test debut against New Zealand at Lord’s in 2004, where he scored 112 and 83 runs in two innings and received Man of the Match award.

In a nine-year long international career, Strauss played 100 tests and 127 one-day internationals. Strauss has to his credit 7037 and 4205 runs in test and ODIs respectively.

ONE LINER (FROM FEBRUARY TO AUGUST)

February, 2012

• Noted Hindi writer who on 13 February 2012 was selected for the 21st Vyas Samman for his poetry collection Aam Ke Patte published in 2004- Professor Ramdarash Mishra

• This Indian state government on 13 February 2012 announced medical benefits, financial support & higher compensation packages for various other categories of workers covered by the Industrial Workers Act– Delhi Government

• This Indian state government suspended the scheme of distribution of social benefits under Electronic Benefit Transfer (EBT)– Haryana Government

• The railways safety review committee, headed by a former Atomic Energy Commission chairman submitted its report to the Union government on 17 February 2012- Anil Kakodkar

• International Conference on Coastal and Port Engineering in Developing Countries inaugurated by the Union Minister for Shipping- G K Vasan

• New York Times’ foreign correspondent and a two-time Pulitzer Prize winner died in eastern Syria on 16 February 2012- Anthony Shadid

• As a part of this campaign Delhi Chief Minister Sheila Dikshit launched a major State-wide de-worming campaign- Chacha Nehru Sehat Yojna (CNSY)

• RBI panel on priority sector lending proposed increment in the target (priority sector) for foreign banks to this per cent of net bank credit from the current level of 32 per cent- 40%

• Union Home Minister P. Chidambaram on 23 February 2012 inaugurated the fourth and final regional hub of the National Security Guard (NSG) here–Marol, Mumbai

• Indian hockey team on 26 February 2012 defeated this country 8-1 to enter London Olympics–France

• This Indian soccer legend popularly known as Sailen Manna, died in Kolkata on 27 February 2012- Sailendra Nath Manna

• 1977 batch IAS officer and additional chief secretary (finance) on 28 February 2012 was named the Chief Secretary of Rajasthan- CK Mathew

• Cabinet Committee on Infrastructure approved the upgradation of Railway Infrastructure for introduction of multi-modal transport system (Phase - II) in the twin cities– Hyderabad & Secunderabad

• The Bollywood actor received a Green Globe Award for his efforts toward a greener future at the fourth edition of the Panasonic Green Globe Foundation Awards– Abhishek Bachhan

• This veteran environmental filmmaker was on 3 February 2012 honoured with the prestigious V. Shantaram Life Time Achievement Award at the Mumbai International Film Festival 2012- Mike Pandey

• India lost to this country with 2-1 in the final of the SDAT-WSF Under-21 Squash World Cup on 5 February 2012- Egypt

• The state to contribute more than 50 percent of India’s total tea production in 2011- Assam

• The observation satellite launched by Iran- Navid satellite

• India signed 13th TIEA with the country-Guernsey

• Hungarian mission inked deal with the company to ease visas- VFS Global

• India, Japan and China entered into a pact which is known as- Shade

• India and USA signed a MoU with India on-Labour and Employment Issues

• The fifth edition of the world future energy summit was held in UAE capital- Abu Dhabi

• India’s NTPC signed an agreement with Bangladesh Power Development Board to set up a joint venture 1320 MW thermal power plant at- Rampal

• The country became the 157th Country to adopt the CTBT( Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty)- Indonesia

• Al- Qaida’s Chief in Pakistan, was killed in US drone attack-Badar Mansoor

• The 12th India-EU summit was held in- New Delhi

• Yingluck Shinawatra who visited India on 24-26 January 2012 is the Prime Minister of- Thailand

• NDSAP which is approved by Union cabinet of India stands for- National Data Sharing and Accessibility

• A two-day International Conference on cooperatives for social and economic change took place in the city-Bhopal

March, 2012

• Golden Jubilee Celebrations of the Afro-Asian Rural Development Organization was inaugurated by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh in this city– New Delhi

• Union government on 6 March 2012 decided to depute a high level committee to this state to assess its foodgrain storage requirements – Odisha

• IPS Officer of 1977 batch was appointed as Director General, National Disaster Response Force and Civil Defence (NDRF&CD), Ministry of Home Affairs– Prakash Mishra

• Prime Minister Manmohan Singh on 7 March 2012 issued directions to a Group of Ministers to review the decision of export ban on this item– Cotton

• Union minister for Rural Development, Jairam Ramesh announced to launch a nationwide sanitation campaign- Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan

• Reserve Bank of India on 9 March 2012 cut the cash reserve ratio (CRR) by basis points– 75 basis points

• He took over as new Member Mechanical, Railway Board and ex-officio Secretary to Government of India on 10 March 2012- Keshav Chandra

• Report of the probe by the income-tax department into the allegations that relatives of this former chief justice had amassed huge wealth during his tenure was submitted to the Supreme Court- KG Balakrishnan

• Union Railway Minister presented the Union Railway Budget 2012-13 in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012– Dinesh Trivedi

• Chief Election Commissioner of India, left for Amman at the head of a four-member delegation on 17 March 2012- Dr. S. Y. Quraishi

• Indian ace badminton player & World no five won the Swiss Open Grand Prix Gold trophy on 18 March 2012- Saina Nehwal

• According to data released by the government on 19 March 2012 retail inflation stood at this per cent in February 2012- 8.83%

• Moody’s downgraded this public sector Indian bank one notch on 19 March 2012 due to its high level of troubled assets and low provisions for coverage– Union Bank of India

• Union Minister who was elevated to the cabinet rank when he was sworn in as the Union Railway Minister by President Pratibha Patil in New Delhi on 20 March 2012- Mukul Roy

• This legendary versatile Bengali actor was selected for India's highest film honour - the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2012–Soumitra Chatterjee

• K K Birla Foundation announced its decision to honour Tamil writer with the Saraswati Samman 2011 for his book Irama Kathaiyum Iramayakalum-AA Manavalan

• This nationwide literacy video campaign launched by the National Literacy Mission Authority, Ministry of Human Resource Development culminated in Delhi on 25 March 2012-Saakshar Bharat Yatra

• This Marathi poet and Sahitya Akademi award winner passed away in Pune on 26 March 2012-Manik Godghate

• Chandigarh girl crowned as the Pantaloons Femina Miss India World 2012 in the grand finale of the 49th edition of the beauty pageant on 30 March 2012- Vanya Mishra

• India's first solar power plant of 40 MW capacity was inaugurated in Jaisalmer district's Dhudsar village in this state– Rajasthan

• This former BCCI president and union minister passed away on 1 April 2012-NKP Salve

• John Templeton Foundation decided to honour Tibetan Buddhist spiritual leader with one of the world's leading religion prizes, Templeton Prize for 2012- The Dalai Lama

• US Senate on 30 March 2012 confirmed career diplomat as ambassador to India-Nancy Powell

• India on 1 March 2012 decided to have maritime cooperation with the country-China

• Scientists identified at least two genes called NACP and MAPT linked to the disease-Parkinson’s

• The country to take over the chair of assembly and governing board of ASOSAI on 29 February 2012-India

• The commission to release guidelines to eliminate physical punishment in schools-National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)

• The person who won the Russian Presidential election with 63.75 percent of votes on 5 March 2012-Vladimir Putin

• The Indian state government to introduce Mamoni Scheme-Assam

• Hindustan Petroleum corporation Ltd on 8 March 2012 resumed oil supplies to the Airlines-Kingfisher Airlines

• The country to declare Termit Massif and Tin Toumma desert a National nature and Cultural reserve-Niger

• Syrian President Bashar al-Assad set the date for elections-7 May 2012

• The state to receive a special package of 130 crore rupees from the centre-Arunachal Pradesh

April, 2012

• This Jammu & Kashmir High Court Chief Justice was sworn in as Supreme Court judge on 2 April 2012-F. M. Ibrahim Kalifulla

• On 3 April 2012 Indian Navy formally inducted this nuclear-powered submarine into its fleet-INS Chakra

• First Spices Park for processing of seed spices like cumin, coriander and fennel was commissioned in this state on 7 April 2012–Rajasthan

• This Indian squash player won a 3-2 victory over Robbie Temple of England at the $120000 El Gouna International Open in El Gouna, Egypt on 9 April 2012-Saurav Ghosal

• Former Tamil Nadu State secretary of the CPI (M) and three-time MLA died in Chennai on 10 April 2012-N. Varadarajan

• This international monetary body in its flagship annual publication Asian Development Outlook (ADO) projected moderate increase in growth rate for India to 7 percent in 2012-13–Asian Development Bank

• Union government made it mandatory for individuals with income above this amount to file their tax returns 2011-12 onwards electronically-Rs 10 lakh

• Union government approved Rs 30000 crore bailout for this national carrier-Air India

• Union Cabinet approved the extension of funding support for implementing the Swavalamban Scheme existing under this system from three years to five years-New Pension System (NPS)

• This Samajwadi Party MLA from Itwa in Sidhhartnagar district was unanimously elected Speaker of the 16th Uttar Pradesh Assembly-Mata Prasad Pandey

• Powerful earthquake of 8.7 magnitude on the Richter scale on 11 April 2012 hit Aceh province of this South Asian country giving rise to tsunami scare–Indonesia

• This Kannada poet was chosen for the Basavashree Award on 28 April 2012-Chennaveera Kanavi

• This country announced to strengthen the defences of its Gulf allies along with the commencement of nuclear talks that could ease tensions with Tehran–United States of America

• National League for Democracy (NLD) led by this pro-democracy leader in Myanmar won 43 of the 45 seats in by-polls held on 1 April 2012–Aung Saan Suu Kyi

• Recep Tayyip Erdogan who held talks with the leaders of western countries on Iran issue is the Prime Minister of this country– Turkey

• Bingu Mutharika the president of this African nation died after a heart attack–Malavi

• Israel barred this German author from entering the Jewish state, citing a poem in which he accuses Israel of plotting Iran's annihilation and threatening world peace–Gunter Grass

• More than 100 Pakistani soldiers died in an avalanche at this place-Siachen sector close to the border with India

• Asif Ali Zardari the President of this Asian nation visited India–Pakistan

• Bo Xilai, a high-ranking Communist Party official, was stripped of his most powerful posts. Bo Xilai was the high-ranking communist party leader of this country–China

• This American leader won the Republican Party candidature to challenge President Barack Obama in November elections–Mitt Romney

• The government of this Asian nation faced yet another rights abuse allegation as two senior members of a breakaway faction of the JVP accused the security forces of abducting them–Sri Lanka

• This Pakistani foreign service officer was appointed the High Commissioner to India–Salman Basheer

• This middle-east country deployed hundreds of police at its main airport to detain activists flying in to protest the country's occupation of Palestinian areas–Israel

• This country forgave Myanmar's 3.7-billion dollar debt and resumed development aid as a way to support the country's democratic and economic reforms-Japan

• Islamic radical groups attacked the church services in this African nation–Nigeria

• Afghanistan reached on an agreement with this country to define their relationship after most foreign troops leave Afghanistan at the end of 2014-United States of America

May, 2012

• Union minister of labour and employment Mallikarjun Kharge on 1 May 2012 inaugurated this facility to bring transparency and accessibility for employers in

depositing monthly EPF contributions of their workers. - E-Challan and Receipt (ECR) facility

• Reserve Bank of India published guidelines for implementation of this new global capital adequacy norm by March 2012 - Basel III

• Vice President Hamid Ansari on 3 May 2012 presented Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2011 to Renowned Bengali Actor Shri Soumitra Chatterjee

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) raised the interest rate ceiling on NRI deposits in foreign currencies by up to this per cent. - 3%

• Noted Tamil writer known for his novel Thanneer and other works was declared the recipient of the 6 NTR National Literary Award on 4 may 2012. - Ashokamitran

• Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee was elected as Chair of this renowned financial institution- Asian Development Bank’s (ADB) Board of Governors

• Yesteryear actress Sushma Seth and Miss India World Vinya Mishra were awarded with this prestigious award on 6 May 2012. - Kalpana Chawla excellence award

• Union government on 7 May 2012 declared that this coal company will sign Fuel Supply Agreements with the power plants identified by the Central Electricity Ministry of power.- Coal India Limited

• A jury under the banner of the Prime Minister, Dr. Manmohan Singh on 7 May 2012 selected him to be the first recipient of the Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony. - Pandit Ravi Shankar

• Ministry of Culture on 8 May 2012 entered into an agreement with this international university for establishing the Indian Ministry of Culture Vivekananda Chair. - University of Chicago, USA

• Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 10 May 2012 approved the proposal for implementation of this yojna in Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj Nagar District of Uttar Pradesh. - Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana (IGMSY)

• Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) on 10 May 2012 approved the amendments in the special scholarship scheme for this state by including students who pass their class 12 from CBSE affiliated schools located in the state. - Jammu and Kashmir

• Minister of Science & Technology and Earth Sciences Vilasrao Deshmukh on 24 May 2012 inaugurated high altitude cloud physics laboratry at this place in Maharashtra. – Mahabaleshwar

• This IPL franchise won the IPL Season 5 on 27 May 2012. – Kolkata Knight Riders

• Former Uttar Pradesh Chief Minister and Samajwadi Party chief Mulayam Singh Yadav was presented with the prestigious international award on 28 May 2012. - International Jurists Award – 2012

• This Socialist leader became the President of France, ousting Conservative incumbent Nicolas Sarkozy – Francois Hollande

• This Russian political leader was sworn in as Russia's President for a third term – Vladimir Putin

• Prime Minister of this European nation defended European Union fiscal pact, austerity policy – Spain

• The United Nations adopted global guidelines for this purpose – To defend the land rights of poor farmers globally

• Sri Lankan President Mahenda Rajpaksa announced to release this former Army Commander of Sri Lanka - Sarath Fonseka

• India became the largest importer of arms surpassing this country – China

• This Visually-challenged Chinese activist arrived USA with his family - Chen Guangcheng

• This former Libyan intelligence officer and the only person convicted of the 1988 Lockerbie bombing which killed 270 people, died at his home in Tripoli - Abdelbaset al-Megrahi

• This country successfully test-fired a new intercontinental ballistic missile capable of piercing defence systems being developed by the U.S – Russia

• This Pakistani doctor who helped the CIA confirm the presence of al-Qaeda leader Osama bin Laden in the Abbottabad house where he was killed on May 2 last year was sentenced to 33 years imprisonment under the colonial vintage Frontier Crimes Regulation (FCR) – Shakeel Afreedi

• UN Climate talk started in this German city - Bonn

• This Republican leader won the Republican nomination for the 2012 US Presidential elections – Mitt Romney

June, 2012

• Justice took the oath as Supreme Court judge on 4 June 2012.- Madan Bhimarao Lokur

• Legendary Indian cricketer sworn in as the member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament on 4 June 2012.- Sachin Ramesh Tendulkar

• Government of India on 5 June 2012 nominated Vice Admiral as the new Navy chief. - Devender Kumar Joshi

• Ace Indian Badminton player Saina Nehwal clinched her 16th career title as she defeated Thailand's Ratchanok Inathon in the Thailand Open Grand Prix Gold title in Bangkok on 10 June 2012.-Saina Nehwal

• India’s Batting great was conferred upon the Wisden India Outstanding Achievement award for completing a century of 100 international hundreds, in Dubai on 11 June 2012.- Sachin Tendulkar

• The US super computer, was crowned the fastest computer in the world on 17 June 2012.- Sequoia

• The Supreme Court of Pakistan suspended Interior Minister from the Senate (the Upper House of Parliament) for failing to produce the necessary documents to establish that he had given up his British nationality.- Rehman Malik

• Pakistan successfully tested the nuclear-capable cruise missile with a range of 700 km. This was the fifth missile test done by Pakistan since late last month. - Hatf VII

• Renowned Pakistani human rights activist said the powerful security establishment was planning to get her killed using one of the many jihadi outfits operating in the country.- Asma Jehangir

• Sri Lankan President forced to cancel a speech in London's business hub, because of security concerns after Tamil activists threatened to hold a large demonstration against alleged human rights abuses in Sri Lanka.- Mahinda Rajapaksa

• India’s External Affairs Minister met his Chinese counterpart Yang Jiechi and discussed bilateral issues on the sidelines of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) summit.- S.M. Krishna

• An earthquake registering 6 on the Richter scale hit the resort of Fisheye. - Turkish Mediterranean

• As per the British government’s order only those British nationals or residents with an annual income of at least rupees will be able to bring spouses to the U.K. from the Indian sub-continent and other countries outside the European Union. The new restriction will come into force 9 July 2012.- 16 lakh

• Bangladesh Prime Minister voiced her strong resolve to work together with India for mutual development. - Sheikh Hasina

• U.S. Defence Secretary visited India. His visit to New Delhi would focus on building a strong security relationship with India. - Leon Panetta

• At least 153 people on board an aircraft killed when the plane crashed into a building in a residential area of Nigeria's commercial capital.- Lagos

• Air Marshal took over as AOC-IN-C, Western Air Command, IAF.- Arup Raha AVSM VM

• To concretize the operational contours of the National Manufacturing Policy (NMP), the Government established a Manufacturing Industry for matters pertaining to the implementation of the National Manufacturing Policy. - Industry Promotion Board (MIPB)

• Sania Mirza and Mahesh Bhupathi on 7 June 2012 won their title together and first French Open trophy. - Second Grand Slam

• Electronic Equipments major Samsung Electronics on 7 June 2012 named their new chief executive officer. - Kwon Oh-hyun

July, 2012

• Eighty one year old founder of the News Corporation, resigned third week of July 2012-Rupert Murdoch

• India’s leading four-wheeler manufacturer Maruti Suzuki India Limited announced to close down its factory at an industrial town in the Gurgaon district of Haryana on 21 July 2012-Manesar

• Who became the first cyclist of Britain, to win the coveted Tour de France Cycling race on 22 July 2012-Bradley Wiggins

• Egypt’s President Mohamed Morsi elected fifty year old man as the country’s Prime Minister-Hisham Kandil

• President of Ghana, Passed away on 24 July 2012-John Atta Mills

• Greentech Foundation awarded Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) on 24 July 2012-Gold Trophy in Safety Management Award 2012

• India got its fourteen President at the Central Hall of Parliament on 25 July 2012-Pranab Mukherjee

• The Government of Japan on 23 July 2012 decided to honour Indian Environmental philosopher with Fukuoka Prize 2012.-Vandana Shiva

• Following the deal struck by Kotak Mahindra Bank worth India received its first investment through the qualified framework investor (QFI) route.-$5 million

• The first US woman to travel into space died in La Jolla, California on 23 July 2012.-Sally Ride

• GAIL gas India Ltd and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) signed Agreement on 26 July 2012.-Swap Agreement and Gas Co-operation Agreement

• The Ministry of Women and Child Development on 26 July 2012 drafted -National Policy for Children 2012.

• The World Bank approved an 1100 crore rupees loan for Himachal Pradesh to promote. The loan agreement was signed between the World Bank and the state government in New Delhi on 28 July 2012-green initiatives and sustainable development in the state

• The Government of India launched an anti-ragging website. The Union Human Resource Minister inaugurated the ‘Anti- Ragging Web Portal’ on 26 July 2012.-Kapil Sibal

• India and Indonesia signed an agreement to avoid double taxation and prevent fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income on 27 July 2012.-Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement

• Famous Cricketer was signed as the Brand Ambassador of BMW on 27 July 2012.-Sachin Tendulkar

• Coast Guard Station Karaikal, was commissioned by Vice Admiral, Director General Indian Coast Guard at Karaikal on 25 July 2012.-MP Muralidharan

• Appointment Committee of the Cabinet(ACC) appointed the Secretary of the President on 24 July 2012.-Omita Paul

• Kulandei Francis, Indian Social Activist Won award-Magsaysay Awards 2012

• The Government of a state banned Gutka and Pan Masala on 24 July 2012. The State Cabinet decided to ban the manufacturing, storage, distribution, sale and consumption of these products.-Chhattisgarh

August, 2012

• The person who is appointed as Union Finance Minister after a small cabinet reshuffle- P Chidambram

• US Swimmer who became the Most Successful Athlete in the Olympic History- Michel Phelps

• Indian sports personality who bagged Silver in Olympics 25 Metre Rapid Fire Pistol Event- Vijay Kumar

• Former UN secretary general quit as the UN special envoy to Syria- Kofi Annan

• India signed Tax Information Exchange Agreement (TIEA) with which Sovereign city state on 31 July 2012 in New Delhi that will allow the two countries to check tax evasion- Monaco

• The Indian Scientist who was honoured with Fundamental Physics Prize (FPP) 2012 - Ashoke Sen

• Jamaican Sprinter who won Gold in Men’s 100 Meter Race and set Olympic Record - Usain Bolt

• The personality who sworn in as the Head of Gorkhaland Territorial Administration- Bimal Gurung

• The Indian badminton player who clinched Bronze in Women’s Singles Badminton Event at London Olympics 2012- Sania Nehwal

• The world renowned sports personality won the US PGA Golf Championship- Rory Mcllroy

• The Indian economist who is appointed the New Chief Economic Advisor in the Finance Ministry- Raghuram Rajan

• The corporate personality who stepped down as the chairman of Mahindra & Mahindra- Keshub Mahindra

• India successfully test-fired Medium Range Ballistic Missile - Agni – II

• First Meeting of the India-CELAC Troika Foreign Ministers was held in - New Delhi

• The bank with which Jet Airways Tied Up and Launched Credit Cards- HDFC Bank

• The person who is appointed as the New Election commissioner- Syed Nasim Ahmed

• Death of famous Indian cinematographer- Ashok Mehta

• The Vice Minister of Foreign Affairs of Cuba who visited India in August - Rogelio Sierra Diaz

• The Indian- American journalist and author suspended by Time, CNN for plagiarism- Fareed Zakaria

• The bird which was declared as state bird of Delhi- The house sparrow

• The Union minister of science and technology who passed away- Vilas Rao Deshmukh

• 1975 Batch IRS Officer appointed as chairman of central board of direct taxes( CBDT) -Poonam Kishore Saxena

• The person appointed as the new Union Minister of Science and technology-Vayalar Ravi

• Two Indian sports personality choosen for Rajiv Gandhi khel ratna award- Vijay Kumar and Yogeshwar Dutt

• Person elected as Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha-PJ Kurien

CURRENT AFFAIRS FOR BANK EXAMS

Apex Indian bank, the Reserve Bank of India on 21 April 2012 directed all commercial banks to print the MICR (Magnetic Ink Character Recognition) and IFSC (Indian Financial System Code) code on the passbook and statement of account of the customers. The bank made the printing of MICR and IFSC code compulsory for all the banks.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 17 April 2012 instructed commercial banks to reduce their exposure to gold loan companies to 7.5% of their capital funds from the existing 10%. The directive will impact the gold loan companies such as Muthoot Finance and Manappuram Finance as they will receive less funding.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 17 April 2012 banned banks from charging a prepayment penalty on floating rate home loans. Banks were barred from charging any fee from a customer who wants to repay an outstanding loan and close the account.

Reserve Bank of India, the apex Indian Bank, on 17 April 2012, cut the key policy rates for the first time in the past three years. While the repo rate (the rate at which the RBI lends money to banks) was cut down by 50 basis points from 8.50 per cent to 8.00 per cent, the reverse repo rate (normally fixed at a spread of 100 basis points below the repo rate) was reduced to 7.0 per cent. The marginal standing facility rate, which has a spread of 100 basis points above the repo rate now stands at 9.0 per cent.

The Reserve Bank of India on 3 April 2012 tightened the reporting requirements of the banks. As per the directions issued, banks will have to submit a monthly statement informing the central bank about the quantity of gold imported and mode of payment adopted. The statement is to be filed with the foreign exchange department of the RBI and has to be submitted at the end of March and September.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 3 April 2012 released 'Quarterly Statistics on Deposits and Credit of Scheduled Commercial Banks, September 2011’. The release included data related to deposits and credit of scheduled commercial banks including regional rural banks (RRBs) as on 30 September 2011. The data included in the release were based on Basic Statistical Return (BSR)-7 received from all scheduled commercial banks (including RRBs).

Reserve Bank of India on 2 May 2012 published guidelines for implementation of the new global capital adequacy norms, called Basel III, by March 2018. Indian banks will have to maintain Tier I capital, or core capital, of at least 7 per cent of their risk weighted assets on an ongoing basis. The objective is to strengthen risk management mechanism.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 4 May 2012 raised the interest rate ceiling on NRI deposits in foreign currencies by up to 3%. The interest rate ceiling on Foreign Currency Non-Resident FCNR (B) deposits of banks was raised from 125 basis points (bps) (1.25%)

above the corresponding LIBOR or swap rates to 200 bps for maturity period of one year to less than three years, and to 300 bps for maturity period of three to five years.

Credit rating agency Standard and Poor’s (S&P) assigned stable outlook to 10 Indian banks and kept their long term and short-term issuer credit rating (ICR) at BBB- and A-3. A-3 on the other hand is a short-term issue rating that exhibits adequate protection parameters but shows a weakened capacity to meet obligations under adverse economic conditions.

Private sector lender HDFC Bank launched premium credit cards exclusively for women on 30 November 2011. HDFC expects to add 4 million credit card customers in the next two years. The bank has about six million credit card customers. Of this, 1.5 million customers are women.

Reserve Bank of India deregulated non-resident external (NRE) deposits on 16 December 2011 allowing banks to offer higher interest rates to dollar-denominated accounts. Reserve Bank freed the rates on non-resident external accounts, offering interest as high as 9.6% per annum.

US banking major Citi group on 25 February 2012 sold its 9.85 percent stake in HDFC, India’s biggest mortgage lender, for around 1.9 billion dollars. Citi group, the third largest lender of US by assets, was in alliance with the HDFC for last seven years.

South Korean lender Woori Bank on 18 April 2012 opened its maiden Indian branch in Chennai. The Seoul based bank slated Chennai as the first city to launch their operation in India given the fact that the southern metro city is home to more than 170 Korean companies, including big names such as Hyundai Motors, Lotte and Samsung.

Reserve Bank of India on 29 December 2011 allowed non-residents to hedge their currency risk in respect of external commercial borrowings (ECB) denominated in rupees, with AD Category-I (authorised dealer) banks in India.The apex bank mentioned that the amount and tenor of the hedge cannot not exceed that of the underlying transaction.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) ordered banks to set aside more capital for their investments in financial entities such as insurance with an objective to strengthen the ring fence around banks. The RBI proposed the raise in risk weight to prevent banks from getting affected because of their holdings in other finance entities.

Reserve Bank on 27 December 2011 directed all banks to issue cheques conforming to Cheque Truncation System (CTS) 2010 standard with uniform features from 1 April 2012 onwards. Reserve Bank on 26 December 2011 tightened the prudential norms for the non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) under which the NBFCs will have to account for risks towards off balance sheet items while computing capital adequacy

requirement. The NBFCs can thus participate in the credit default swap market only as users.

Reserve Bank of India on 16 December 2011 left its policy rate unchanged at a three-year high of 8.5 per cent. RBI paused the hike after 13 consecutive rate hikes since March 2010.RBI also left the cash reserve ratio unchanged at 6 percent, despite market speculation that it might cut the ratio in order to boost market liquidity.

Reserve Bank of India announced non-direct intervention measures in the wake of steady weakening of the rupee against the dollar. The non-direct intervention measures are aimed at curbing speculative positions in the foreign exchange market.Re-booking cancelled forward contracts, whatever the type and tenor of the underlying exposure, by resident and foreign institutional investors has been disallowed.

India’s largest private lender by assets, ICICI Bank and IDBI Bank, the seventh largest public sector bank in India together launched India’s first credit default swap (CDS) on 7 December 2011. CDS was launched seven days after the product was cleared by the Reserve Bank of India on 30 November 2011. CDS is similar to a traditional insurance policy where it obliges seller of the CDS to compensate the buyer in the event of a loan default

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 2 December 2011 approved the creation of a separate category of non-banking financial companies for the microfinance institution (MFI) sector. The central bank also specified that such institutions need to have a minimum net owned fund of Rs 5 crore.

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 28 March 2012 announced a several revisions with an objective to liberalise the norms for direct investment abroad by Indian residents. The revisions include liberalisation in regulations on qualification shares, professional services rendered and Esop (employee stock option plan) schemes.

Exercise - 1

Based on Banking Industry

1. Which of India's leading commodity bourses on 20 December 2011 became the world's fifth-largest commodity futures exchange?

(a) National Multi Commodity Exchange of India

(b) Bharat Diamond Bourse

(c) Multi Commodity Exchange

(d) Bombay Stock Exchange

2. Name the state-run Mumbai-headquartered bank which on 29 December 2011 surprised the market by cutting its base rate, the minimum lending rate, by 10 basis points, thereby becoming the first banker this year to do so when others are waiting for a signal from the central bank.

(a) State Bank of India

(b) Union Bank

(c) United Bank of India

(d) Allahabad Bank

3. Which PSU lender called off its plans to set up a joint venture with Visa Inc and Elavon Inc to enter the merchant acquiring business over differences on sharing technology?

(a) Union Bank

(b) State Bank of India

(c) Syndicate Bank

(d) Corp Bank

4. The Board of Approval (BoA) under the Commerce Ministry on 24 January 2012 approved the proposal of this company to set up a special economic zone (SEZ) at Indore in Madhya Pradesh. Identify the company.

(a) Reliance Industries

(b) Tata Consultancy Services (TCS)

(c) Hero Motors

(d) Infosys

5. Which channel developed a 52-week special India: Wild Encounters to focus on India's enchanting wildlife s well as take viewers on an exploration spree?

(a) Discovery India

(b) Animal Planet

(c) Sony

(d) National Geography

6. Which of the following banks filed a criminal complaint against Sterling Biotech, and its six directors, for allegedly defaulting on repayments on credit facilities provided by the public sector lender?

(a) State Bank of Travancore

(b) State Bank of Mysore

(c) State Bank of Patiala

(d) State Bank of Indore

7. Which of the following Indian Telecom company on 16 February 2012 got the RBI nod for FCCB redemption?

(a) Reliance Telecom

(b) Uninor

(c) Airtel

(d) Vodafone

8. World’s largest two wheeler manufacturer Hero Moto Corp on 22 February 2012 inked a pact with Erik Buell Racing [EBR]. EBR is an:

(a) USA based company

(b) UAE based company

(c) Argentina based company

(d) UK based company

9. Which of the following public sector bank has appointed Madhukant Girdharlal Sanghvi as its new Chairman

(a) Bank of Baroda

(b) Allahabad Bank

(c) State Bank of Maharashtra

(d) Syndicate Bank

10. Which of the following nationalized bank on 1 April 2012 appointed D Sarkar as chairman and Managing Director

(a) Indian Bank

(b) Allahabad Bank

(c) Union Bank of India

(d) Canara Bank

11. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 4 May 2012 raised the interest rate ceiling on NRI deposits in foreign currencies by up to what percent?

(a) 1%

(b) 2.5%

(c) 3.3%

(d) 3%

12. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on 17 April 2012 instructed commercial banks to reduce their exposure to gold loan companies to what per cent of their capital funds from the existing 10%?

(a) 9%

(b) 8.3%

(c) 4.1%

(d) 7.5%

13. Union government raised interest rates on post office-operated small savings like Monthly Income Scheme (MIS) and Public Provident Fund (PPF) by what per cent in March 2012?

(a) O.5%

(b) 1.1%

(c) O.75%

(d) 1.75%

14. The Union Railway Budget 2012-13 was presented in the Lok Sabha on 14 March 2012 by Union Railway Minister Dinesh Trivedi. Which of the following facts related to the budget are not true?

1. The total union budget outlay for 2012-13 stood at Rs 60100 crore.

2. The fares were raised in the budget. The fares were raised 5 paise per km for suburban and ordinary second class. Fares for mail express second class was raised by only 2 paise per km

3. Union Railway budget 2012-13 proposed to allocate about Rs 4410 crore to capacity augmentation works

4. The Union railway proposed to electrify 6500 route kilometers during the 12th Plan period. This would include electrification of Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla line and hence provide pollution free traction to the pristine Kashmir Valley.

(a) 3 & 5

(b) Only 4

(c) Only 2

(d) 3 & 4

15. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) panel on priority sector lending on 21 February 2012 proposed increment in the target (priority sector) for foreign banks to what per cent of net bank credit from the current level of 32 per cent with sub-targets of 15 per cent for exports and 15 per cent for the MSE sector?

(a) 53%

(b) 40%

(c) 46%

(d) 39%

Answers

1. (d)

2. (b)

3. (c)

4. (b)

5. (b)

6. (b)

7. (a)

8. (a)

9. (d)

10. (c)

11. (d)

12. (d)

13. (a)

14. (c)

15. (b)

Exercise- 2

1. Who is the author of the book ‘Shame’? (Clerks’ Grade, 2007)

(a) Chandar S Sundaram

(b) Namita Gokhale

(c) Jaswinder Sanghara

(d) Anita Desai

(e) Salman Rushdie

2. Who became Miss World 2012?

(a) Denise Perrier

(b) Yu Wenxia

(c) Marita Lindah

(d) Azra Akin

3. Which Englishman's role was central to the founding of the Indian National Congress?

(a) Allen Octavian Hume

(b) Lord Lytton

(c) Sir Stafford Cripps

(d) Robert Clive

4. The Indian National Army was founded by?

(a) Bipin Chandra Pal

(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(c) Bhagat Singh

(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

5. Who framed the Constitution of India

(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Dr. B R Ambedkar

(c) Jatin Banerjee

(d) Ram Manohar Lohia

6. Who Officially opened the first Olympic games ?

(a) Prince Andrew

(b) Constantine I

(c) Otto

(d) King George I

7. Which venue hosted the athletics events in the first Olympic games ?

(a) Kallithea

(b) Panathinaiko Stadium

(c) Neo Phaliron Velodrome

(d) Bay of Zea

8. How many sporting events were included in the first Olympic games ?

(a) 10

(b) 22

(c) 43

(d) 55

9. Which country did not participated in first Olympic Games?

(a) Greece

(b) America

(c) Germany

(d) New Zealand

10. Which Country won the most number of Gold Medals in the first Olympic Games?

(a) United States

(b) Germany

(c) Greece

(d) Australia

11. How many countries participated in the first Olympic games?

(a) 9

(b) 14

(c) 19

(d) 22

12. How many sports were included in the first Olympic games?

(a) 7

(b) 9

(c) 11

(d) 13

13. Who is known as the Nightingale of India?

(a) Sarojini Naidu

(b) Annie Besant

(c) Asha Bhosle

(d) Lata Mangeshkar

14. The sensitive index of National stock Exchange of India is popularly known as

(SBI Assistant & Stenographer Exam, 2012)

(a) SENSEX

(b) CRIS

(c) CSE

(d) MCX

(e) Nifty

15. Which of the following term is not used in the field of Biology?

(SBI Assistant & Stenographer Exam, 2012)

(a) DNA

(b) RNA

(c) GST

(d) Osmosis

(e) Homeostasis

Answers

1. (e)

2. (b)

3. (a)

4. (d)

5. (b)

6. (d)

7. (b)

8. (c)

9. (d)

10. (a)

11. (b)

12. (b)

13. (a)

14. (a)

15. (c)